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ServiceNow CIS-EM Certified Implementation Specialist - Event Management Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 115 questions
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Certified Implementation Specialist - Event Management Exam Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Service Operations Workspace integrations Launchpad capabilities include management of which key components?

Choose 3 answers

Options:

A.

event connectors

B.

Alert management rules

C.

Metric policies

D.

Log data inputs

Question 2

In default configuration using baseline connectors, how often is event data collected from event sources?

Options:

A.

Once every minute

B.

Every 2 minutes

C.

Twice every minute

D.

Every 5 minutes

Question 3

What determines if an alert management rule's actions apply to an alert?

Options:

A.

The alert's bound configuration item

B.

The alert management rule's filter

C.

The alert management rule's field mapping

D.

The message key

Question 4

A Service is not viewable in Operator Workspace. What could be the issue?

Options:

A.

The service is a manual service

B.

The service is not set to operational

C.

The service was created through Service Mapping

D.

The service is a technical service

Question 5

Given the following Impact settings and Alerts in a three node cluster that makes up the components of a Business Service, what is the overall service health of this Business Service?

Options:

A.

Critical

B.

Error

C.

Major

D.

Minor

E.

Warning

F.

Clear

Question 6

By default, when are idle alerts are closed?

Options:

A.

After 7 days

B.

After 14 days

C.

After 30 days

D.

Never

Question 7

The default polling time to collect events from an event source is:

Options:

A.

5 seconds

B.

30 seconds

C.

60 seconds

D.

120 seconds

Question 8

If more than one alert management rule applies to a particular alert which of the rules will run based upon the Order of execution field?

Options:

A.

All alert management rule will run, from the highest to the lowest Order of execution numbers.

B.

Only the alert management rule with the highest Order of execution number will run.

C.

All alert management rule will run, from the lowest to the highest Order of execution numbers.

D.

Only the alert management rule with the lowest Order of execution number will run.

Question 9

What ServiceNow feature would you configure to process incoming email to create events?

Options:

A.

Event field mapping

B.

Event processing jobs

C.

Transforms

D.

Event Filler

E.

Inbound actions

Question 10

You have a very large networking environment and have noticed that your event notifications are either not being triggered or are delayed.

What are best options to try to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Ensure all Event Management – process events jobs are set to a Ready state

B.

Verify that the Bucket field in the event table is set to zero (0)

C.

Add additional event processor jobs

D.

Ensure multi-node event processing is disabled

Question 11

A customer informs you that they already have monitoring and event management tools.

Which of the following describes the extra value that ServiceNow Event Management provides? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

ServiceNow Event Management Alerts, Incidents, Problems, and changes are automatically correlated with CIs and Business Services that can be visualized in Business Service maps.

B.

ServiceNow Event Management manages relationships between alerts and related incidents to maintain an end-to-end event management lifecycle.

C.

ServiceNow Event Management provides a business-centric platform and single system of record for service monitoring and remediation results, to better control and manage performance and availability.

D.

ServiceNow Event Management provides state-of-the-art performance monitoring capabilities across a wide array of different types of infrastructures.

E.

ServiceNow Event Management utilizes the power of integration with leading monitoring systems to automatically create actionable alerts.

Question 12

In the event table, which field maps the external attributes from the target system?

Options:

A.

Resource

B.

Description

C.

Source

D.

Additional Information

Question 13

When setting up a monitoring connector definition PULL the M.0 Server must be validated and have Line of Sight (LoS) to the monitoring system. This configuration requires what?

Choose 4 answers

Options:

A.

Polling interval for scheduling access to the target system

B.

Internal IP address and port for communication with the target System

C.

An active and validated MID Server

D.

Access credentials la the MID Server system

E.

Internal IP address and port for communication with the MID Server system

F.

Access credentials lo the monitoring system

Question 14

Which are recommended best practices for Event Management? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Filter out events on ServiceNow Instance for easier consolidation and aggregation.

B.

Promote all events to alerts during initial implementation until you fully understand which should be ignored.

C.

Filter out events at source rather than in the ServiceNow instance.

D.

Base-line “normal-state” events to filter out background noise.

E.

Ignore all non-critical events during initial implementation to streamline processing; add alerts over time as time and resources allow.

Question 15

Which attribute is responsible for de-duplication?

Options:

A.

Metric_name

B.

Message_key

C.

Short_description

D.

Additional_info

Question 16

Where are approval requests for execution of alert remediation tasks configured?

Options:

A.

In the Flow Designer remediation subflow

B.

In Service Operations Workspace

C.

In the alert management rule's approvals related list

D.

In the alert management rule's playbook

Question 17

Within the ServiceNow IT Operations Management solution set, which statement most accurately describes what Event Management is?

Options:

A.

The process responsible for defining, analyzing, planning, measuring, and improving all aspects of the availability of IT services

B.

The process responsible for ensuring the capacity of IT Services and IT infrastructure is able to deliver agreed upon service level targets in a cost-effective manner

C.

The process responsible for recovery action and planning through machine learning

D.

The process responsible for monitoring all abnormal occurrences throughout the IT infrastructure, allowing for normal operations, and detecting and escalating exception conditions

Question 18

How often do baseline event connectors retrieve events?

Options:

A.

Every 30 seconds

B.

Every 2 minutes

C.

Every 10 minutes

D.

Every 1 minute

E.

Every 5 minutes

Question 19

If a Message Key is not provided, which fields are concatenated to make our own?

Options:

A.

Source, Type, Node, Resource, Metric Name

B.

Source, DNS, Node, Additional info, Metric Name

C.

Source, Type, DNS, Additional info, Metric Name

D.

Source, Source Instance, Node, Type, Resource

Question 20

What is the default collection/polling interval applied to all event connectors?

Options:

A.

Every 120 seconds

B.

Every 5 seconds

C.

Every 40 seconds

D.

Every 60 seconds

E.

Every 10 seconds

Question 21

If the Message Key is not populated, the default value is created from which fields?

Options:

A.

Source, type. node, resource, and metric name

B.

Source, source instance, node, and resource

C.

Source, type. node, and metric name

D.

Source, source instance, node, and type

E.

Source, type. node, resource, and time of event

Question 22

Which step in the event rule configuration process enables you to ignore events and prevent alert generation?

Options:

A.

Transform and compose alert output

B.

Event filter

C.

Event options

D.

Threshold

Question 23

Which is the best option to reduce latency issues when receiving events?

Options:

A.

Verify bucket field in em_event table > 0

B.

Verify event_processor_job_count = 2

C.

Verify event_processor_job_count = 0

D.

Verify event_processor_enable_multi_node = 2

Question 24

Modified Agent Client Collector policies do not take effect until what action is taken?

Options:

A.

Agents are restarted

B.

Agents re-run the discovery policy

C.

MID server synchronization is initiated

D.

The policy is republished

E.

The check is tested on an existing agent/host

Question 25

What applications are included in the ITOM Health product?

Options:

A.

Event Management and Operational Intelligence

B.

ITOM Visibility

C.

Discovery and Service Mapping

D.

Cloud Management

Question 26

Which attribute within an event needs to be exactly the same to allow for deduplication?

Options:

A.

Metric Name

B.

Message Key

C.

Type & Node

D.

Description

E.

Correlation ID

Question 27

The individual commands that the Agent Client Collector executes on the host are known as what? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Events

B.

Checks

C.

Parameters

D.

Policies

E.

Metrics

F.

Scripts

Question 28

When are anomaly alerts generated by Operational Intelligence displayed in alert intelligence?

Options:

A.

When the statistical model threshold is breached

B.

When they are promoted to IT alerts

C.

When it is manually promoted in insights explorer

D.

When the anomaly score is greater than 100

Question 29

What would you use as a central location to explore the CMDB class hierarchy, CI table definitions, and CIs?

Options:

A.

CI Remediations

B.

CI Relation Types

C.

CI Identifiers

D.

Process to CI Type Mapping

E.

CI Class Manager

Question 30

MID Servers provide important functions in your ITOM Health deployment.

What does MID stand for?

Options:

A.

Management, Instrumentation, and Discovery

B.

Messaging, Integration, and Data

C.

Monitoring, Insight, and Domain

D.

Maintenance, Information, and Distribution

Question 31

Copies of checks that have been included in Agent Client Collector policies are known as what?

Options:

A.

Check definitions

B.

Check models

C.

Check clones

D.

Check mirrors

E.

Check instances

Question 32

If more than one event rule applies to a particular event or metric, which of the event rules will run based upon the Order of execution number?

Options:

A.

Only the event rule with the highest Order of execution number will run.

B.

Only the event rule with the lowest Order of execution number will run.

C.

All event rules will run, from the lowest to the highest Order of execution numbers.

D.

All event rules will run, from the highest to the lowest Order of execution numbers.

Question 33

What does the Service Operations Workspace express list reduce the need for?

Choose 2 answers

Options:

A.

Conducting root cause analysis

B.

Constantly refreshing the list of alerts

C.

Navigating through different interfaces

D.

Performing remediation actions

Question 34

What is the function of the External Communication Channel (ECC) Queue? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

It is a connection point between a ServiceNow instance and the MID Server.

B.

It contains probe records to be executed on the customer’s network.

C.

It holds jobs that the MID Server needs to perform.

D.

It is a connection point between a hardware CI on a customer’s network and the MID Server.

E.

It contains records of CIs that the ServiceNow admin has submitted for entry into the CMDB.

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