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SCDM CCDM Certified Clinical Data Manager Exam Practice Test

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Total 150 questions

Certified Clinical Data Manager Questions and Answers

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Question 1

It has been identified that ten adverse events were not reported in the trial prior to the database lock. What action should be taken to determine the next step?

Options:

A.

Get the AE data entered immediately so the database can be locked again.

B.

Evaluate the potential effect of the omission on the validity of the safety and efficacy analysis.

C.

Notify upper management immediately so the monitor can contact the site.

D.

Check the data from all sites again before relocking the database.

Question 2

During a database audit, it was determined that there were more errors than expected. Who is responsible for assessing the overall impact on the analysis of the data?

Options:

A.

Data Manager

B.

Statistician

C.

Quality Auditor

D.

Investigator

Question 3

A study is collecting pain levels three times a day. Which is the best way to collect the data?

Options:

A.

Using paper pain diary cards completed by study subjects

B.

Sites calling patients daily and administering a pain questionnaire

C.

Study subjects calling into an IVRS three times a day to enter pain levels

D.

Using ePRO with reminders for data collection at each time point

Question 4

Which Clinical Study Report section would be most useful for a Data Manager to review?

Options:

A.

Clinical narratives of adverse events

B.

Enumeration and explanation of data errors

C.

Description of statistical analysis methods

D.

Rationale for the study design

Question 5

Which metrics report listed below would best help identify trends in the clinical data?

Options:

A.

Percent of data/visits cleaned

B.

Last patient/last visit date to data lock date

C.

Number of subjects screened/enrolled

D.

Query frequency counts per data element

Question 6

The serious adverse event (SAE) database should be reconciled against the clinical trial database prior to which occasion?

Options:

A.

Case report form data entry

B.

Expedited safety reporting

C.

Database quality audit

D.

Database closure or locking

Question 7

For a study, body mass index is calculated from weight and height. Which information is needed to document the transformation?

Options:

A.

Algorithm and algorithm version associated with the calculated value

B.

Algorithm associated with the calculated value

C.

User ID making the change and reason for change

D.

Algorithm documented in the Data Management Plan

Question 8

A study numbers subjects sequentially within each site and does not reuse site numbers. Which information is required when joining data across tables?

Options:

A.

Subject number and site number

B.

Subject number

C.

Study number and subject number

D.

Site number

Question 9

A study team member suggests that data for a small, 50-patient, 2-year study can be entered and cleaned in two weeks before lock. Which are important other considerations?

Options:

A.

Processing the data in two weeks after the study is over would save money because the data manager would not be involved until the end

B.

Without the ability to capture the data electronically, the data cannot be checked or used to monitor and manage the study

C.

Processing the data in two weeks after the study is over would save money because the EDC system would only be needed for a month

D.

It would take more than two weeks to get second iteration queries generated and resolved

Question 10

ePRO data are collected for a study using study devices given to subjects. Which is the most appropriate quality control method for the data?

Options:

A.

Programmed edit checks to detect out of range values after submission to the database

B.

Manual review of data by the site study coordinator at the next visit

C.

Data visualizations to look for site-to-site variation

D.

Programmed edit checks to detect out of range values upon data entry

Question 11

Who has primary responsibility for ensuring accurate completion of the CRF?

Options:

A.

Clinical Data Manager

B.

Site Coordinator

C.

Clinical Research Associate

D.

Investigator

Question 12

Which is the best reason why front-end checks are usually kept minimal, when compared to back-end checks, in a paper-based clinical study?

Options:

A.

Data entry staff should be able to enter a value into the database just as it appears in the paper CRF

B.

There is no need to alert the site personnel immediately about a data issue, as the study has happened already

C.

There are approvals required to raise a Data Clarification Form which could take time

D.

Data review can be performed at a later time due to the paper-based studies being smaller in size

Question 13

Which is the best way to identify sites with high subject attrition?

Options:

A.

Proportion of patients for which two visit periods have passed without data by site

B.

Number of late visits per site

C.

Proportion of late visits by site

D.

Number of patients for which two visit periods have passed without data

Question 14

In a study, data are key entered by one person after which a second person enters the data without knowledge of or seeing the values entered by the first. The second person is notified during entry if an entered value differs from first entry and the second person's decision is retained as the correct value. Which type of entry is being used?

Options:

A.

Blind verification

B.

Manual review

C.

Third-party compare

D.

Single entry

Question 15

An asthma study is taking into account local air quality and receives that data from the national weather bureau. Which information is needed to link research subject data to the air-quality readings?

Options:

A.

Location identifier

B.

Location and time identifiers

C.

Location, time and subject identifiers

D.

Location, time, subject and site identifiers

Question 16

Data characterizing the safety profile of a drug are collected to provide information for which of the following?

Options:

A.

Survival curves

B.

Efficacy meta-analyses

C.

Product labeling

D.

Quality of life calculations

Question 17

Which of the following data verification checks would most likely be included in a manual or visual data review step?

Options:

A.

Checking an entered value against a valid list of values

B.

Checking adverse event treatments against concomitant medications

C.

Checking mandatory fields for missing values

D.

Checking a value against a reference range

Question 18

A Clinical Data Manager reads a protocol for a clinical trial to test the efficacy and safety of a new blood thinner for prevention of secondary cardiac events. The stated endpoint is all-cause mortality at 1 year. Which data element would be required for the efficacy endpoint?

Options:

A.

Drug level

B.

Coagulation time

C.

Cause of death

D.

Date of death

Question 19

When implementing a study utilizing an EDC application, it would be appropriate to use free text fields for which of the following?

Options:

A.

Urine sedimentation rate

B.

Adverse event verbatim term

C.

Date of birth

D.

Body Mass Index

Question 20

The Scope of Work would answer which of the following information needs?

Options:

A.

To look up which visit PK samples are taken

B.

To look up the date of the next clinical monitoring visit for a specific site

C.

To determine the number of database migrations budgeted for a project

D.

To find the name and contact information of a specific clinical data associate

Question 21

A study team member wants to let sites enroll patients before the system is ready. Which are important considerations?

Options:

A.

Without the ability to capture the data electronically, the data cannot be checked or used to monitor and manage the study

B.

If the study were audited, enrolling subjects prior to having the EDC system ready would become an audit finding

C.

There is no way to identify, report and track adverse events and serious adverse events without the EDC system in place

D.

Starting the study prior to the EDC system being ready will delay processing of milestone-based site payments

Question 22

Which attribute is NOT a characteristic of a standardized data collection element?

Options:

A.

An unambiguous definition for the data element

B.

A strictly enforced requirement for the positioning of each data element on a case report form

C.

A standard set of values used to respond to a data collection question

D.

A unique set of data storage metadata, including a variable name and data type

Question 23

Which statement is true regarding User Acceptance Testing (UAT) in an EDC application?

Options:

A.

System tools in EDC do not remove the need for UAT

B.

Data should not be collected in a production environment until UAT is completed

C.

Every rule should be tested with at least one "pass" and one "fail" scenario

D.

The extent of UAT (i.e., the number of test cases and rules) cannot be risk-based

Question 24

The result set from the query below would be which of the following?

SELECT * FROM patient WHERE medical_record_number > 9000

Options:

A.

Longer than the patient table

B.

Shorter or of equal length than the patient table

C.

Narrower than the patient table

D.

Wider than the patient table

Question 25

Which is the most important reason for why a data manager would review data before a monitor reviews it?

Options:

A.

Data managers write the Data Management Plan that specifies the data cleaning workflow.

B.

Data can be viewed and discrepancies highlighted prior to a monitor's review.

C.

Data managers have access to programming tools to identify discrepancies.

D.

The GCDMP recommends that data managers review data prior to a monitor's review.

Question 26

Which of the following actions is particularly important in merging data from different trials?

Options:

A.

Use of a common software platform

B.

Enrollment of investigative sites with similar patient populations

C.

Exclusion of studies that use a cross-over design

D.

Use of a common adverse event dictionary

Question 27

A protocol amendment adds three data elements to the vital signs screen and two additional data-collection time points. Which is best practice for handling changes to the form completion guidelines?

Options:

A.

Update the guidelines and notify sites of changes prior to implementing the change

B.

Update the guidelines and post the new version on the trial portal

C.

Rely on the revised CRF to enforce the changes without updating guidelines or notifying sites

D.

Notify sites of the change without a guideline update

Question 28

If a data manager generated no additional manual queries on data in an EDC system and the data were deemed clean, why could the data appear to be not clean during the next review?

Options:

A.

The study coordinator can change the data due to re-review of the source.

B.

The CRA can change the data during a quality review of source to database.

C.

The medical monitor can override safety information entered in the system.

D.

The data manager may have accidentally changed the data.

Question 29

QA is conducting an audit on a study for ophthalmology which is ready for lock. Inconsistencies are found between the database and the source. Of the identified fields containing potential data errors, which fields are considered critical for this particular study?

Options:

A.

Subject Identifier

B.

Concomitant Medications

C.

Weight

D.

Medical History

Question 30

What action should be taken regarding the clinical database when MedDRA releases a new version of its dictionary?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the extent and impact of the changes.

B.

Continue using the existing version to code.

C.

Upgrade the version immediately and recode.

D.

Identify an alternative dictionary.

Question 31

At a cross-functional study team meeting, a statistician suggests collecting blood gases electronically through the existing continuous hemodynamic monitoring system at sites rather than having a person record the values every five minutes during the study procedure. Assuming that sending, receiving, and integrating these data are possible, what is the best response?

Options:

A.

Manual recording is preferred because healthcare devices are not validated to 21 CFR Part 11 standards

B.

Manual recording is preferred because the sites may forget to turn on the machine and lose data

C.

Electronic acquisition is preferable because more data points can be acquired

D.

Electronic acquisition is preferable because the chance for human error is removed

Question 32

A Data Manager receives an audit finding of missing or undocumented training for two database developers according to the organization's training SOP and matrix. Which is the best response to the audit finding?

Options:

A.

Identify the root cause and improve the process to prevent it

B.

Remove the training items from the training matrix

C.

Reprimand the person responsible for maintaining training documentation

D.

Send the two developers to the required training

Question 33

Which is the MOST appropriate flow for EDC set-up and implementation?

Options:

A.

CRF “wire-frames” created, CRFs reviewed, CRFs printed, CRFs distributed to sites

B.

Protocol finalized, Database created, Edit Checks created, Database tested, Sites trained

C.

Database created, Subjects enrolled, Database tested, Sites trained, Database released

D.

Database created, Database tested, Sites trained, Protocol finalized, Database released

Question 34

What is the purpose of providing the central laboratory vendor with a complete listing of subjects' demographic data?

Options:

A.

To provide for an independent reconciliation of the patient and remote databases after database lock

B.

To assure that all subjects have lab data for valid visits

C.

To provide for an independent reconciliation of the patient and remote databases during study conduct

D.

To assure that lab data for screening failure subjects have not been included in the lab data transmission

Question 35

In a cross-functional team meeting, a monitor mentions performing source data verification (SDV) on daily diary data entered by patients on mobile devices. Which of the following is the best response?

Options:

A.

All diary data should be source data verified

B.

The diary data should not be source data verified

C.

Diary data to be source data verified should be selected using a risk-based approach

D.

Diary data to be source data verified should be randomly selected

Question 36

In a study conducted using paper CRFs, a discrepancy is discovered in a CRF to database QC audit. What is the reason why this discrepancy would be considered an audit finding?

Options:

A.

Discrepancy not explained by the protocol

B.

Discrepancy not explained by the CRF completion guidelines

C.

Discrepancy not explained by the data handling conventions

D.

Discrepancy not explained by the data quality control audit plan

Question 37

Which of the following statements would be BEST included in a data management plan describing the process for making self-evident corrections in a clinical database?

Options:

A.

A senior level data manager may make audited changes to the database without further documentation.

B.

Self-evident corrections made in the database will be reviewed and approved by a team leader or manager.

C.

No changes will be made in the database without a query response signed by the investigator.

D.

Self-evident changes may be made per the listed conventions and documented to the investigative site.

Question 38

Which metric will identify edit checks that may not be working properly?

Options:

A.

Count by edit check of the number of times the check fired

B.

Count by site of the number of times any edit check fired

C.

Average number of edit check identified discrepancies per form

D.

Average number of times each edit check has fired

Question 39

A sponsor may transfer responsibility for any or all of their obligations to a contract research organization. Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Any written description is not transferred to the contract research organization.

B.

A description of each of the obligations being assumed by the contract research organization is required.

C.

A description of each of the obligations being transferred to the contract research organization is not required.

D.

A general statement that all obligations have been transferred is acceptable.

Question 40

Which of the following processes is the most likely to remain in a study that utilizes electronic data capture?

Options:

A.

Tracking case report forms

B.

Updating the in-house database

C.

Resolving queries

D.

Retrieving case report forms

Question 41

What does 21 CFR Part 11 dictate in regards to a minimum expectation of EDC training prior to access?

Options:

A.

Training must be performed

B.

Training must include an exam

C.

Training must be in the user's native language

D.

Training must be face to face

Question 42

The best example of a protocol compliance edit check is:

Options:

A.

An edit check that fires when a visit date is outside the specified window

B.

An edit check that fires when a value is outside of the normal range for vital signs

C.

An edit check that fires when a field is left blank

D.

An edit check that fires when an invalid date is entered

Question 43

What are the key deliverables for User Acceptance Testing?

Options:

A.

Project Plan

B.

Training

C.

Test Plan/Script/Results

D.

eCRF Completion Guidelines

Question 44

For ease of data processing, the study team would like the database codes for a copyrighted rating scale preprinted on the CRF. What is the most critical task that the CRF designer must do to ensure the data collected on the CRF for the scale are reliable and will support the results of the final analysis?

Options:

A.

Consult the independent source and determine database codes will not influence subject responses.

B.

Consult the study statistician regarding the change and determine that database codes will not influence the analysis.

C.

Consult the independent source of the rating scale for approval and document that continued validity of the tool is not compromised.

D.

Complete the requested changes to the instrument and ensure the correct database codes are associated with the appropriate responses.

Question 45

Which of the following ensures that the trials are conducted and the data are generated, documented (recorded), and reported in compliance with the protocol, GCP, and the applicable regulatory requirement(s)?

Options:

A.

Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)

B.

Statistical Analysis Plan (SAP)

C.

Data Management Plan (DMP)

D.

CRFs

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Total 150 questions