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PTCB PTCE Pharmacy Technician Certification (CPhT) Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 238 questions

Pharmacy Technician Certification (CPhT) Exam Questions and Answers

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Question 1

What type ofmedication erroris described asa mistake in prescribing, dispensing, or planned medication administration that is detected and corrected before reaching the patient?

Options:

A.

Compliance error

B.

Monitoring error

C.

Omission error

D.

Potential error

Question 2

How many bottles of NPH insulin would a patient need for a 60-day supply, given the following directions?

Inject subcutaneously 23 units every morning and 17 units in the evening.

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

12

D.

24

Question 3

Diflucan is indicated to treat:

Options:

A.

bacterial infections.

B.

gastroesophageal reflux disease.

C.

altitude sickness.

D.

fungal infections.

Question 4

Desvenlafaxineis indicated to treat:

Options:

A.

Hypertension

B.

Major depressive disorder

C.

Benign prostatic hypertrophy

D.

Atrial fibrillation

Question 5

Which of the following products is acorticosteroid?

Options:

A.

Progesterone

B.

Fluocinolone

C.

Methyltestosterone

D.

Spironolactone

Question 6

According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), which of the following is an approved abbreviation?

Options:

A.

U for units

B.

AD for right ear

C.

AU for both ears

D.

gtt for drop

Question 7

The label of a stock bottle provides the following information:

(01)55555444422

(1)051526

(10)ABC123

(21)11262026

What is the lot number for this medication?

Options:

A.

ABC123

B.

55555444422

C.

051526

D.

11262026

Question 8

A patient who received90 tabletsone month ago contacts the pharmacy to request a refill. The insurance rejects the claim, saying that the refill is56 days too soon.The claim rejection is likely the result of submitting an incorrect:

Options:

A.

Days supply

B.

NDC number

C.

Quantity

D.

Indication

Question 9

A patient presents the following prescription:

Predmisone 20 mg b.i.d x 2 days

20 mg every day x 2 days

10mg every day x 2 days

5 mg every day x 2 days

How many 10mg tables should be dispensed to fill the prescription completely?

Options:

A.

8

B.

10

C.

15

D.

20

Question 10

To decrease the risk of incorrectly filling a prescription for a drug that has a look-alike/sound-alike name, the pharmacy could:

Options:

A.

use both the brand name and the generic name on the prescription label.

B.

place the drug next to another look-alike/sound-alike drug on the shelf if they are alphabetical.

C.

review the first five digits of the NDC to confirm the correct product.

D.

take hazardous drug precautions.

Question 11

Which of the following should be taken on anempty stomach?

Options:

A.

Levothyroxine

B.

Amlodipine

C.

Cyclobenzaprine

D.

Loratadine

Question 12

Federal law restricts the OTC sale of:

Options:

A.

Loratadine

B.

Pseudoephedrine

C.

Acetaminophen

D.

Naproxen

Question 13

Which of the following is the correct interpretation of "Sig: 1 tab PO q.i.d. p.c. & h.s."?

Options:

A.

Take one tablet by mouth five times daily with meals and at bedtime.

B.

Take one tablet by mouth four times daily without meals and at bedtime with a snack.

C.

Take one tablet by mouth four times daily before meals and at bedtime.

D.

Take one tablet by mouth four times daily after meals and at bedtime.

Question 14

Therapeutic equivalence (TE) codesmay be found in:

Options:

A.

Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy.

B.

The Orange Book.

C.

Safety Data Sheets (SDSs).

D.

The package insert.

Question 15

ReconstitutedArexvymust be discarded if it is not used within a maximum of:

Options:

A.

30 minutes

B.

4 hours

C.

24 hours

D.

1 week

Question 16

Thegeneric name for Concertais:

Options:

A.

Methylphenidate

B.

Dexmethylphenidate

C.

Dextroamphetamine

D.

Lisdexamfetamine

Question 17

Which of the following is a common allergic reaction to medications?

Options:

A.

Dizziness

B.

Constipation

C.

Nausea

D.

Rash

Question 18

Which of the following medications is indicated to treatdiabetes?

Options:

A.

Galantamine

B.

Gemfibrozil

C.

Glimepiride

D.

Granisetron

Question 19

How much of a drug prescribed at5 mg/kgshould be administered to a patient weighing132 lbs?

Options:

A.

33 mg

B.

300 mg

C.

660 mg

D.

3 g

Question 20

While unpacking today's shipment, a pharmacy technician notices that a vial of Apidra arrived frozen. The technician's best course of action is to prepare the item to be:

Options:

A.

thawed and stored in a refrigerator

B.

sent to the prescriber

C.

dispensed to a patient

D.

returned to the distributor

Question 21

Famotidine oral suspensionremains stable for a maximum of how many days following reconstitution?

Options:

A.

1

B.

7

C.

21

D.

30

Question 22

According to theFDA,heparin strength per total volumeshould be the primary and prominent expression on the manufacturer’s label, followed by the:

Options:

A.

Percentage weight per volume

B.

Volume per total strength

C.

Strength per mL enclosed in parentheses

D.

mL per dose enclosed in parentheses

Question 23

According tofederal law, records regarding thedistribution, receipt, or destructionofcontrolled substancesmust be maintained for a minimum ofhow many years?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

5

D.

7

Question 24

A package with the NDC: 76439-103-10 contains the same medication as a package with which of the following NDCs?

Options:

A.

76439-208-10

B.

76439-103-50

C.

74693-103-10

D.

74693-206-50

Question 25

If 120 g of cream contains 3 g of drug, how many g of drug are in 2 oz of cream?

Options:

A.

1.5

B.

6

C.

15

D.

60

Question 26

When entering prescription information into a computer, a pharmacy technician should include which of the following to help prevent a medication dosing error?

Options:

A.

Allergies

B.

Leading zeros

C.

Insurance information

D.

Contraindications

Question 27

A prescription specifiesalbuterol (containing 200 MDI) at 2 puffs q6h PRN.The medication will last a minimum of:

Options:

A.

10 days

B.

14 days

C.

25 days

D.

30 days

Question 28

The correct direction for a prescription label for the Sig:"2 gtt OU q4-6h p.r.n."is to place two drops in:

Options:

A.

Both ears every 4 to 6 hours as needed.

B.

The right ear every 4 to 6 hours as needed.

C.

The right eye every 4 to 6 hours as needed.

D.

Both eyes every 4 to 6 hours as needed.

Question 29

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription forZyrtec 10 mg once a dayfor schizophrenia. The technician should alert the pharmacist because:

Options:

A.

Zyrtec requires special handling.

B.

The prescription exceeds the maximum recommended daily dose.

C.

The prescription appears to contain a look-alike sound-alike (LASA) error.

D.

Zyrtec is subject to a REMS program.

Question 30

The directions for aZ-Pak (azithromycin)specify:

Options:

A.

1 tablet PO on the current day, then 1 PO daily for 4 days.

B.

1 tablet PO on the current day, then 1 PO daily for 5 days.

C.

2 tablets PO on the current day, then 1 PO daily for 4 days.

D.

3 tablets PO on the current day, then 1 PO every other day for 6 days.

Question 31

Which of the following drugs must be dispensed with a patient package insert?

Options:

A.

Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim

B.

Norethindrone/Ethinyl Estradiol

C.

Triamterene/HCTZ

D.

Emtricitabine/Tenofovir Disoproxil

Question 32

According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), which of the following is a high-alert medication in an acute care setting?

Options:

A.

Normal saline solution

B.

Transdermal lidocaine

C.

Dextrose 5% solution

D.

Insulin U-500

Question 33

According to the manufacturer, Risperdal Consta remains stable at room temperature for a maximum of:

Options:

A.

12 hours

B.

7 days

C.

14 days

D.

21 days

Question 34

The oral liquid formulation of which of the following medications must be stored in the refrigerator?

Options:

A.

Gabapentin

B.

Sertraline

C.

Aripiprazole

D.

Risperidone

Question 35

Incompatibility of a nonsterile compound may be indicated by:

Options:

A.

a clear solution

B.

the use of a pH buffer system

C.

an unexpected change in odor

D.

suspension particles settling to the bottom of a container

Question 36

Which of the following is an event that must be reported to VAERS if it occurs after vaccine administration?

Options:

A.

Constipation

B.

Anaphylaxis

C.

Drowsiness

D.

Hyperlipidemia

Question 37

Which of the following medications usually end in "-pril" and are used torelax blood vessels?

Options:

A.

Beta blockers

B.

Calcium channel blockers

C.

ACE inhibitors

D.

Statins

Question 38

In order to maintain proper storage conditions, which of the following medications must be dispensed in its original container?

Options:

A.

Methotrexate

B.

Metoprolol XL

C.

Nitroglycerin SL

D.

Allopurinol

Question 39

Nurtec ODT must be stored in the original packaging until ready to use because it is sensitive to:

Options:

A.

moisture

B.

light

C.

heat

D.

cold

Question 40

Cytotoxic agents are most commonly used in the treatment of:

Options:

A.

diabetes

B.

cancer

C.

rosacea

D.

allergies

Question 41

A pharmacy is notified that an oral solution has been recalled due to temperature excursions during transport. The first step pharmacy staff should take is to:

Options:

A.

remove any affected product from dispensing stock.

B.

contact patients who received a therapeutically equivalent product.

C.

switch patients from the oral solution to oral capsules.

D.

contact all prescribers who recently prescribed the product.

Question 42

The technician is asked to use Tall Man lettering when making a bin label for a new product because:

Options:

A.

this contributes to patient safety.

B.

it is an FDA requirement.

C.

all generic drug labels include this labeling.

D.

it is only used for clinical trial products.

Question 43

The master formulation record is used to help:

Options:

A.

ensure quality control.

B.

prevent drug diversion.

C.

eliminate patient profiles.

D.

guarantee drug availability.

Question 44

Experiencing photosensitivity as a result of taking ciprofloxacin oral tablets for the first time is an example of a(n):

Options:

A.

intended effect.

B.

adverse reaction.

C.

synergistic effect.

D.

anaphylactic reaction.

Question 45

According to theInstitute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), IVpropranololis considered ahigh-alert medicationinacute care settingsbecause it is a(n):

Options:

A.

Adrenergic antagonist.

B.

Chemotherapeutic agent.

C.

Opioid.

D.

Anticoagulant.

Question 46

Which of the following medication pairs is an example of aLook-Alike, Sound-Alike (LASA) errorin which an antifungal drug is dispensed instead of an anesthetic drug?

Options:

A.

Diflucan and Diprivan

B.

Clonidine and Klonopin

C.

Metronidazole and Metformin

D.

Amiloride and Amlodipine

Question 47

An outsourcing facility mislabeled enoxaparin syringes asphytonadione syringesand sent them out to multiple facilities. Which type of recall would be most appropriate to issue?

Options:

A.

Class I

B.

Class II

C.

Class III

D.

Misbranding

Question 48

Naproxenis indicated to treat:

Options:

A.

Inflammation and pain

B.

Diabetes

C.

Heart arrhythmias

D.

High blood pressure

Question 49

Behind-the-counter decongestant products containingpseudoephedrinemust be used with caution in patients with:

Options:

A.

Asthma

B.

Hypertension

C.

Hypokalemia

D.

Eczema

Question 50

According to NIOSH, a pharmacy technician must wear personal protective equipment (PPE) to clean up a spill of:

Options:

A.

Amiodarone

B.

Atorvastatin

C.

Methotrexate

D.

Midazolam

Question 51

A medication quantity was omitted from a prescription. This occurrence may best be described as which type of error?

Options:

A.

Administration

B.

Dispensing

C.

Dosage

D.

Prescribing

Question 52

Themost effectiveway toprevent the spread of infectionwithin a pharmacy is to:

Options:

A.

Wear powdered latex gloves.

B.

Clean counting trays after use.

C.

Put on shoe covers.

D.

Wash hands for 30 seconds.

Question 53

Which of the following isleast likelyto causesignificant patient harmif used in error?

Options:

A.

Topical creams

B.

Injectable insulins

C.

Antineoplastic agents

D.

Oral anticoagulants

Question 54

If250 mL of a 15% solutionis diluted to1.2 L, what is the resulting percentage strength?

Options:

A.

0.72%

B.

3.1%

C.

3.6%

D.

72%

Question 55

Pharmacies may dispense a supply ofisotretinointhat will last no more than how many days?

Options:

A.

15

B.

30

C.

45

D.

90

Question 56

The use of Tall Man lettering:

Options:

A.

highlights the similarities in drug names.

B.

ensures all trade names will be capitalized.

C.

draws attention to the differences in drug names.

D.

keeps the pharmacy inventory in alphabetic order.

Question 57

Drowsinessis a common side effect of:

Options:

A.

Xarelto

B.

Bystolic

C.

Dexilant

D.

Lyrica

Question 58

A pharmacy received the following prescription:

Ibuprofen 800 mg

Sig: i tab PO t.i.d. x 7 days

Disp. #21

If the pharmacy technician printed a prescription label instructing the patient to take one tablet by mouth twice a day for seven days, an error would have been made transcribing the:

Options:

A.

dosage frequency

B.

route of administration

C.

days supply

D.

dosage form

Question 59

Bottles ofhydralazineandhydroxyzineare located next to each other on the same shelf in the pharmacy. Before counting the medication, a helpful patient safety procedure would be to verify the:

Options:

A.

Dosage strength

B.

Color of the tablet

C.

NDC number

D.

Lot number

Question 60

A patient presents the following prescription:

Clobetasol 0.05% cream

Apply small amount to affected area b.i.d. x 14 days. Avoid face, groin, and axilla.

According to the instructions, the patient should avoid applying the medication to their:

Options:

A.

underarms

B.

feet

C.

scalp

D.

chest

Question 61

When used on a prescription, "PR" indicates a particular:

Options:

A.

Route of administration.

B.

Frequency of dosing.

C.

Medication strength.

D.

Dosage form.

Question 62

According to DEA regulations, invoices for which of the following medications must be filed separately from all other invoices?

Options:

A.

Lidocaine

B.

Fentanyl

C.

Oseltamivir

D.

Diltiazem

Question 63

Outdated products found in a pharmacy should be:

Options:

A.

shipped to the DEA for disposal.

B.

kept on the shelf to be dispensed first.

C.

isolated from active dispensing stock.

D.

reported to the ISMP for tracking.

Question 64

FDA guidelines for Class III drug recallsrequire pharmacies to:

Options:

A.

Post signs throughout the pharmacy announcing the recall

B.

Remove from stock all medication that meets the recall specifications

C.

Notify physicians and all affected personnel of the recall

D.

Contact all patients who have received medication that meets the recall specifications

Question 65

Which of the following auxiliary labels would be most appropriate for phenazopyridine?

Options:

A.

May discolor urine

B.

May cause drowsiness

C.

Chew or crush the tablets

D.

Take with food or milk

Question 66

An order for furosemide 120 mg IV STAT will be dispensed using furosemide 40 mg/2 ml. What volume, in ml of the stock injection will be required to deliver the requested dose?

Options:

A.

1

B.

3

C.

6

D.

12

Question 67

A prescription for an 8-year-old child with otitis media reads:

Cefdinir suspension 5 mL PO q12h x 10 days

Dispense #100 mL

Before dispensing this prescription, the pharmacy must contact the prescriber because:

Options:

A.

cefdinir is not available as a suspension.

B.

the concentration of cefdinir suspension is required.

C.

cefdinir suspension is not indicated for otitis media.

D.

cefdinir suspension was prescribed for a child old enough to swallow capsules.

Question 68

AMedication Guidemust be dispensed with:

Options:

A.

Atenolol

B.

Bupropion

C.

Diltiazem

D.

Levothyroxine

Question 69

Which of the following medications is subject to a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program because current patients should avoid becoming pregnant?

Options:

A.

Sertraline

B.

Ondansetron

C.

Montelukast

D.

Mycophenolate

Question 70

Addyi is subject to a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program because it:

Options:

A.

can cause severe hypotension and syncope.

B.

is an emergency oral contraceptive.

C.

contains an opioid analgesic.

D.

is a monoclonal antibody.

Question 71

To which drug classification does Cytoxan belong?

Options:

A.

ACE inhibitor

B.

Chemotherapy agent

C.

Antibiotic

D.

Narcotic

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Total 238 questions