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PRINCE2 PRINCE2-Agile-Foundation PRINCE2 Agile Foundation (Version 2) Exam Exam Practice Test

PRINCE2 Agile Foundation (Version 2) Exam Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Who needs to be aware that flexing what is delivered may affect the expected benefits of the project?

Options:

A.

Customer subject matter expert and the supplier representative

B.

The team manager and the senior supplier

C.

The project manager and the project board

D.

The team quality assurance and project support

Question 2

To help with prioritization, what is MOST important when understanding the difference between scope and quality?

Options:

A.

Combining functional and non-functional requirements

B.

Creating non-functional requirements with user stories

C.

Differentiating functional from non-functional requirements

D.

Defining non-functional requirements before functional requirements

Question 3

Which statement defines a PRINCE2 principle?

Options:

A.

A PRINCE2 project defines its quality management approach

B.

A PRINCE2 project is monitored and controlled on a stage-by-stage basis

C.

A PRINCE2 project ensures a consistent approach to risk management

D.

A PRINCE2 project is tailored to suit the competitor’s environment

Question 4

Which statement about velocity is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

It is based on the concept of rationalism

B.

It is shown by the ideal line on a bum-down chart

C.

It describes how much work is getting done

D.

It tracks the time and cost of a timebox

Question 5

What describes essential aspects of project management that must be applied consistently and throughout the project lifecycle?

Options:

A.

The project context

B.

The PRINCE2 practices

C.

The PRINCE2 processes

D.

The people element

Question 6

Which of the following BEST describes stakeholders in a project?

Options:

A.

Those who have a formal role in the project team

B.

Those who will use project products

C.

Those who can affect or be affected by the project

D.

Those who can impact the project

Question 7

In which step of the risk management technique do teams consider probability and impact of a risk?

Options:

A.

Plan

B.

Assess

C.

Identify

D.

Implement

Question 8

What is an epic?

Options:

A.

A low-level requirement

B.

A fine-grained user story

C.

A detailed feature

D.

A high-level requirement

Question 9

What is the MOST LIKELY benefit from frequent releases into operational use?

Options:

A.

Feedback is obtained from real customers

B.

The need for customer involvement is increased

C.

The risks associated with agile ways of working are assessed

D.

The need for configuration management is reduced

Question 10

During which process should release planning be done for the FIRST time?

Options:

A.

Initiating a project

B.

Managing a stage boundary

C.

Managing product delivery

D.

Controlling a stage

Question 11

Which technique is used in the ’Issues' practice?

Options:

A.

Trading/swapping

B.

Objectives and key results

C.

Refactoring

D.

Delegation poker

Question 12

Which statement explains the setting of the cost tolerance for a project in an agile context?

Options:

A.

Cost tolerance is flexed

B.

Cost tolerance can be fixed or flexed

C.

Cost tolerance can be fixed and flexed

D.

Cost tolerance is fixed

Question 13

Which statement about the ‘protect the level of quality’ target is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

It is achieved by ensuring that all features are delivered

B.

It is unlikely to be achieved if incomplete user documentation is provided

C.

It allows change at the detailed level to be handled dynamically

D.

It avoids the use of extra people to improve progress during a timebox

Question 14

Which of the following defines agility?

Options:

A.

The set of activities that define the sequence of actions

B.

The ability to embrace and respond to change

C.

The ability to protect from uncontrolled changes

D.

The core belief that anyone is capable of learning

Question 15

In which step of the approach to issue management are options to resolve an issue evaluated?

Options:

A.

Capture

B.

Implement

C.

Decide

D.

Recommend

Question 16

In which area is Agile strongest when blending with PRINCE2?

Options:

A.

Product delivery

B.

Project management

C.

Project direction

D.

Product management

Question 17

Which statement about the waterfall methodology definition is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

It states that deadlines should not be moved

B.

It has distinct goals for each stage of development

C.

It is a behavior that involves making things transparent

D.

It promotes the use of experiments carried out in a scientific way

Question 18

Which statement describes how the PRINCE2 ‘starting up a project’ process can be applied in an agile environment?

Options:

A.

PRINCE2 is predictive, but not emergent

B.

PRINCE2 is predictive and can be emergent

C.

PRINCE2 requires a lengthy start to a project

D.

PRINCE2 requires a disruptive start to a project

Question 19

Which BEST describes the senior user role when tailoring the organization theme?

Options:

A.

An ‘agile sponsor’

B.

An ‘executive sponsor’

C.

A ‘coach’

D.

A ‘super product owner’

Question 20

Which statement about an epic is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

It can be broken down into user stories

B.

Its purpose is to document technical requirements

C.

It should appear at the top of a product backlog

D.

It contains sufficient granularity to allow work to start

Question 21

How should product-based planning be used as part of PRINCE2 Agile?

Options:

A.

To track progress against the team plan

B.

To create the project plan using empiricism

C.

To enable team planning to be predictive

D.

To plan by focusing on the features required

Question 22

Which is a typical characteristic of ‘business as usual’ work?

Options:

A.

It requires a specific dedicated project manager

B.

It is executed by program management

C.

It is delivered by a temporary team

D.

It is delivered by an established team

Question 23

In which process should the requirements for delivery of specialist products be agreed?

Options:

A.

Initiating a project

B.

Managing product delivery

C.

Starting up a project

D.

Managing a stage boundary

Question 24

What is the MOST important when blending PRINCE2 Project Management with agile?

Options:

A.

Adopting agile mindset

B.

Fostering psychological safety

C.

Using agile techniques

D.

Following agile processes

Question 25

Which workshop enables participants to collaboratively define the Definition of Ready?

Options:

A.

Starting up workshop

B.

Project kickoff workshop

C.

Project initiation workshop

D.

Agile enablement workshop

Question 26

Which TWO project board responsibilities are specifically assigned to the senior user?

1) Demonstrating the achievement of benefits.

2) Specifying the needs of those impacted by the outputs.

3) Balancing business, user and supplier demands.

4) Ensuring that the project delivers value for money.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

3 and 4

D.

1 and 4

Question 27

Which statement about the ‘embrace change’ target is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

It minimizes the time needed to train a new team member

B.

It reduces the planning of dependencies between projects

C.

It reduces testing in order to meet deadlines

D.

It encourages the customer to raise new ideas

Question 28

How are user inputs FIRST gathered in the 'quality' practice?

Options:

A.

As user stories in the product backlog

B.

As epic user stories in the project backlog

C.

As the project Definition of Done in the quality management approach

D.

As a quality control activity in the quality register

Question 29

In which workshop are the project role descriptions created?

Options:

A.

Starting-up workshop

B.

Project kickoff workshop

C.

Project initiation workshop

D.

Project canvas workshop

Question 30

Which of the following is a benefit of 'being and doing agile'?

Options:

A.

Following processes

B.

Using agile techniques

C.

Increasing user satisfaction

D.

Focusing on completing tasks

Question 31

Which of the following describes shared attitudes, values, and goals?

Options:

A.

Culture

B.

Leadership

C.

Co-creation

D.

Management

Question 32

What is the definition of a timebox?

Options:

A.

A tool to write a requirement in the form of who, what and why

B.

A regular event that looks at how processes can be improved

C.

A description of the rate of progress a team is making

D.

A period where work is carried out to achieve a goal

Question 33

Which two statements about tailoring the business case in an agile environment are CORRECT?

1. It should be unnecessary because products of the highest value will be delivered first.

2. It should identify the minimum viable product and when it will be delivered.

3. It should take into account that the scope may be reduced during the course of the project.

4. It should show the features, the order in which they will be delivered and any dependencies.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

3 and 4

D.

1 and 4

Question 34

How is the ‘tailor to suit the project’ principle applied in an agile context?

Options:

A.

By flexing what is produced to stay in control and deliver value

B.

By emphasizing tolerances on what is being delivered

C.

By using the Agilometer to assess the project environment

D.

By fitting releases into planned management stages

Question 35

In Lean Startup, what is based on the concept of ‘learn the most with the least effort’?

Options:

A.

A structured, timeboxed event

B.

A minimum viable product

C.

A measurement of lead times

D.

A set of criteria to determine whether work can be started

Question 36

Which two statements are key responsibilities of supplier representative?

1. They highlight areas that the project may impact from a technical perspective.

2. They are partially assigned to the delivery team.

3. They create the project's specialist products.

4. They prioritize requirements.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

3 and 4

D.

1 and 4

Question 37

Which statement about the ‘be on time and hit deadlines’ target is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

It allows change to be handled dynamically

B.

It is achieved by keeping the delivery teams stable

C.

It helps with planning dependencies within a project

D.

It ensures that the level of quality is protected

Question 38

Which is typically used in agile when estimating detailed requirements during sprint planning?

Options:

A.

Rationalism

B.

Trading

C.

Visioning

D.

T-shirt sizing

Question 39

What should the business case state about the minimum viable product (MVP)?

Options:

A.

When the MVP will be defined

B.

That the MVP must go into operational use

C.

What the MVP is

D.

That the MVP is the same as project viability