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PMI PMI-002 Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Exam Practice Test

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Total 748 questions

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Questions and Answers

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Question 1

A series of consecutive points on the same side of the average is called ____________.

Options:

A.

Run Chart

B.

Trend Analysis

C.

Outliers

D.

Cycle

Question 2

An individual's willingness to take a risk can be determined by which of the following:

Options:

A.

Decision Tree modelling

B.

Monte Carlo method

C.

Sensitivity analysis

D.

utility theory

Question 3

Using the PMBOK definition of contingency reserve, which of the following statements about contingency reserves is false?

Options:

A.

A contingency reserve is a separately planned quantity used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part.

B.

Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns.

C.

Contingency reserves may be set aside for unknown unknowns.

D.

Contingency reserves are normally included in the project's cost and schedule baselines.

Question 4

If a project has an 80% chance of activity will take 2 weeks or less. what is the probability of the event?

Options:

A.

75%

B.

65%

C.

50%

D.

20%

Question 5

Human resource administration is the primary responsibility of which of the following:

Options:

A.

Project Management Team

B.

Human Resources Department

C.

Executive Manager

D.

Project Manager

Question 6

During the execution of a software project, the vendor proposes an upgrade of a part of project without a change in the schedule or cost. After the change is approved, where would this change BEST be documented?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Procurement Management plan

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Quality assurance plan

Question 7

An example of risk mitigation is:

Options:

A.

Taking early action to reduce probably of risk rather repair the damage after risk has occurred.

B.

Purchasing insurance

C.

Eliminating the cause of a risk

D.

You develop a contingency plan to execute in case the risk event occurs.

Question 8

You are project manger of an existing project. You have been with your company for several years but not in the area where this project is occurring. A Project Management Plan is in place. The project has not exceeded many baseline change thresholds. The customer is not happy with the status of the project. Which of the following is the BEST initial action?

Options:

A.

Prepare a corrective action plan

B.

Conduct team-building with all stakeholders

C.

Verify the customer's needs and expectations

D.

None

Question 9

All of the following are communication tools EXCEPT _________.

Options:

A.

Memos

B.

Verbal circulation of a rumour

C.

video conferencing

D.

Inputting data into a spreadsheet

Question 10

A tool that analyzes the inputs to a process to identify the causes of errors is called ______________________.

Options:

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Fishbone diagram

C.

Ishikawa diagram

D.

All of the above

Question 11

All of the following aid in achieving consensus EXCEPT __________.

Options:

A.

Maintaining a focus on the problem, not each other

B.

Avoiding conflict

C.

Seeking facts

D.

Avoiding voting, trading, or averaging

Question 12

The belief that management's high levels of trust, confidence and commitment to workers leads to high levels of motivation and productivity on the part of workers is a part of which motivation theory?

Options:

A.

Theory Y

B.

Theory Z

C.

Theory X

D.

Contingency Theory

Question 13

When should the project expeditor form of organization be used?

Options:

A.

When the project is extremely important to the organization

B.

When a project's cost and importance are relatively low

C.

When the project manager has a lot of responsibility and accountability

D.

When the organization's primary source of revenue is derived from projects

Question 14

The PERT method is MOST used in situations where

Options:

A.

if Is important to know the inter relationships of activities

B.

Little is known about the cost estimated related to the project

C.

Little experience exists on which to base estimated of activity duration

D.

Resource requirements are well define

Question 15

The principle states that "Employees who believe that their efforts will lead to effective performance and who anticipate important rewards for their accomplishments become productive stay productive." This principle illustrates which of the following theory?

Options:

A.

Expectancy theory

B.

Maslow theory

C.

Herzberg theory

D.

None

Question 16

The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on completion is the ___________.

Options:

A.

Owner

B.

Sponsor

C.

Customer

D.

client

Question 17

Which of the following statements concerning compromise as a conflict resolution is false?

Options:

A.

Neither party wins but both parties get some degree of satisfaction

B.

Important aspects of the project may be hindered in order to achieve personal objectives

C.

Compromise is generally considered a lose-lose situation

D.

A Definitive resolution is seldom achieved

Question 18

You are the project manager of a project .The senior executive of your company wants monthly schedule update of your project. Which of the following would you send to the executive?

Options:

A.

Milestone chart

B.

Time scaled network diagram

C.

Arrow activity diagram

D.

PERT chart

Question 19

A cost management plan is ______________.

Options:

A.

A plan for describing how cost variances will be managed

B.

A subsidiary element of the project charter

C.

An input to the Estimate Costs process

D.

Both A and C

Question 20

The ability of a product to be used for different purposes at different capacities and under different conditions determines its __________.

Options:

A.

Usability

B.

Flexibility

C.

Operability

D.

Availability

Question 21

When a risk should be avoided?

Options:

A.

The risk event has a low probability of occurrence and low impact.

B.

The risk event is unacceptable - generally one with a very high probability of occurrence and high impact.

C.

The risk can be transferred by purchasing insurance.

D.

A risk event can never be avoided.

Question 22

A key barrier to team development is _________.

Options:

A.

A strong matrix management structure

B.

When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets

C.

When team members are accountable to both functional and project manager!

D.

When formal training plans cannot be implemented

Question 23

Project initiation is all of the following except:

Options:

A.

A process of formally recognizing that a new project exists

B.

A process of formally recognizing that an existing project should continue into its next phase

C.

It links the project to the ongoing work of the performing organization

D.

Its inputs are product description, strategic plan, constraints, and assumptions

Question 24

Which of the following is an output of the Control Scope process ?

Options:

A.

Scope statement

B.

Change Requests

C.

Formal acceptance

D.

Work breakdown structure

Question 25

If you are a project manager and a change request has been denied, you should:

Options:

A.

Record it and save it.

B.

Pass on to the project team.

C.

Forget it

D.

None

Question 26

You are the Project Managers of ABC company. The Project team members are from the finance and accounts. The team members report to Finance and Account Managers respectively, and you have limited control over them. What type of organizational hierarchy does ABC company follow?

Options:

A.

Matrix organization

B.

Projectized organization

C.

Functional organization

D.

None

Question 27

The scope management provides:

Options:

A.

A basis for future decisions about the project.

B.

A baseline to accomplish verification measures.

C.

A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.

D.

All of the above.

Question 28

Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days, what is the PERT weighted average?

Options:

A.

6

B.

4

C.

6.3

D.

6.1

Question 29

A Reserve Analysis technique is NOT used during __________.

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Estimating Activity Duration

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Estimate Costs

Question 30

The process of identifying and defining a product or a service is called:

Options:

A.

Procurement planning

B.

Source selection

C.

Contract administration

D.

Contract closeout

Question 31

Which process is not included in the Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Develop Schedule and Control Schedule

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Question 32

Scoring models, comparative approaches and benefit contribution are all part of:

Options:

A.

Constrained optimization models for selecting a project

B.

Benefit measurement models for selecting a project

C.

Quality measurement techniques

D.

Distribute Information tools

Question 33

Which of the following is NOT an output of the Control Schedule:

Options:

A.

Schedule updates

B.

Revisions

C.

Corrective action

D.

Lessons learned

Question 34

Which describes how cost variances will be managed?

Cost management plan

Cost baseline

Cost estimate

Chart of accounts

Options:

Question 35

The amount of time that an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the project end date is called:

Options:

A.

Negative Float

B.

Total Float

C.

Float

D.

c and b

Question 36

An input of the Collect Requirements process is a/an:

Options:

A.

Project Charter

B.

Project schedule

C.

Strategic plan

D.

Historical information

Question 37

Adjusting Leads and Lags is a technique for:

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

Question 38

What involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.

Options:

A.

Resource planning

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Question 39

A modification of a logical relationship that allows an acceleration of the successor task is represented by:

Options:

A.

Lead time

B.

Lag time

C.

Negative Lag

D.

a or g

Question 40

Which is the Estimate Costs technique used most frequently in the early stages of a project.

Options:

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Life-cycle costing

C.

Parametric modeling

D.

Bottom up estimating

Question 41

Risk event is the description of what may happen to the _____ of the project.

Options:

A.

Manager

B.

harm

C.

Schedul

D.

Budget

Question 42

Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a CAPM.

Options:

A.

Project Management Policy of Ethics

B.

Project Management Professional Standards

C.

Project Management Code of Professional Ethics and Standards

D.

Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct

Question 43

The __________ task relationship is defined by the activity duration:

Options:

A.

Start-to-start

B.

Finish-to-finish

C.

Start-to-finish

D.

None of the above

Question 44

The Critical Path Method of scheduling is:

Options:

A.

A mathematical analysis technique for Develop Schedule

B.

A technique that uses weighted averages to calculate project duration

C.

A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule

D.

A technique that allows for probabilistic treatment of both network logic and activity duration estimates

Question 45

You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5,000 and is expected to last 5 years in production. At the end of the five years, the expected worth of the equipment is $2,000. Using the straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be written off each year?

Options:

A.

$600

B.

$1200

C.

$3000

D.

$100

Question 46

A Reserve Analysis is a technique for:

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Define Activities

Question 47

Which of the following relationships is rarely used in PDM (Precedence Diagramming Method)?

Options:

A.

Start-to-Finish

B.

Finish-to-Start

C.

Start-to-Start

D.

Finish-to-Finish

Question 48

Which of the following is true about pure risk?

Options:

A.

The risk can be deflected or transferred to another party through a contract or insurance policy.

B.

Pure risks involve the chance of both a profit and a loss.

C.

No opportunities are associated with pure risk, only losses.

D.

Botn A and c are correct.

Question 49

A cost-plus-incentive-fee (CPIF) contract has an estimated cost of $150,000 with a predetermined fee of $15,000 and a share ratio of 80/20. The actual cost of the project is $130,000. How much profit does the seller make?

Options:

A.

$31,000

B.

$19,000

C.

$15,000

D.

None of the above

Question 50

A project Control Scope system is documented during which of the Project Scope Management processes?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify ScoPe

D.

Control Scope

Question 51

A tool that analyzes the inputs to a process to identify the causes of errors is called ____________.

Options:

A.

Cause and Effect Diagram

B.

Fishbone Diagram

C.

Ishikawa Diagram

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 52

A project is considered successful when _______________.

Options:

A.

The project meets or exceeds the expectations of the stakeholders

B.

The product of the project has been manufactured

C.

The project sponsor announces the completion of the project

D.

None of the above

Question 53

Your project is moving ahead of schedule. Management elects to incorporate additional quality testing into the project to improve the quality and acceptability of the project deliverable. This is an example of which one of the following?

Options:

A.

Scope Creep

B.

Change Control

C.

Quality Assurance

D.

Integrated Change Control

Question 54

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding various Activity Scheduling tools?

Options:

A.

PDM allows for conditional branching and iteration of activities.

B.

PDM uses activity-on-node (AON) diagramming method.

C.

PDM allows for conditional branching and iteration of activities.

D.

PDM uses analogous methods as an estimation technique.

Question 55

You are a project manager for your organization. Management has asked you to help them determine which projects should be selected for implementation. In a project selection model, which one of the following is the most important factor?

Options:

A.

Business needs

B.

Type of constraints

C.

Budget

D.

Schedule

Question 56

Which of the following is an example of indirect costs?

Options:

A.

Salaries of corporate executives

B.

Salaries of full-time project staff

C.

Overhead costs

D.

Both A and C

Question 57

Analogous estimating ____________.

Options:

A.

Uses bottom-up estimating techniques

B.

Uses the actual costs from a previous, similar project

C.

Is synonymous with top-down estimating

D.

Both B and c are correct

Question 58

___________ is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.

Options:

A.

Procurement Management

B.

Planning Management

C.

Scope Management

D.

Control Management

Question 59

The independence of two events in which the occurrence of one is not related to the occurrence of the other is called ________________.

Options:

A.

Event phenomenon

B.

Independent probability

C.

Statistical independence

D.

Statistical probability

Question 60

Which of the following are inputs of Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work, Contract, Business case and organizational process assets

B.

Project SOW, project selection methods, and enterprise environmental factors

C.

Contract, project selection methods, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

D.

Contract, project SOW, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

Question 61

A document or tool which describes when and how human resources will be brought onto and taken off the project team is called ____________.

Options:

A.

Staffing Management Plan

B.

Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

C.

Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)

D.

Resource Assignment Chart

Question 62

Root Cause Analysis is related to ________.

Options:

A.

Process Analysis

B.

Quality Audits

C.

Performance Measurements

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 63

A tight matrix is ___________________.

Options:

A.

A balanced matrix organization

B.

Where all team members are brought together in one location

C.

Where functional managers operate in a dual reporting structure reporting to both their own departments and to the project manager

D.

Both A and c

Question 64

During project integration activities, a project sponsor's role can best be described as doing which one of the following?

Options:

A.

Helping the project manager and stakeholders to resolve any issues

B.

Acting as a sounding board for the project stakeholders

C.

Showing management the project progress and status reports

D.

None

Question 65

A contingency plan is ______________.

Options:

A.

A planned response that defines the steps to be taken if an identified risk event occurs

B.

A workaround

C.

A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part

D.

Both A and c

Question 66

When a risk should be avoided?

Options:

A.

The risk event has a low probability of occurrence and low impact.

B.

The risk event is unacceptable - generally one with a very high probability of occurrence and high impact.

C.

It can be transferred by purchasing insurance.

D.

A risk event can never be avoided.

Question 67

The project manager's leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental level of the project team and should move through successive steps in the following order: _____________.

Options:

A.

Disciplinary, autocratic, and participative

B.

Staff planning, team training, and performance monitoring

C.

Team building, team development, and responsibility assignment

D.

Directing, coaching, supporting, and delegating

Question 68

Estimated at Completion is determined by which of the following?

Options:

A.

ETC + ACWP

B.

BAC"ETC

C.

BAC/CPI

D.

Both A and c

Question 69

A tool which links the project roles and responsibilities to the project Define Scope is called ____________.

Options:

A.

Define Scope Matrix

B.

Responsibility Assignment Matrix

C.

Roles Assignment Matrix

D.

Project Scope and Roles Matrix

Question 70

You are project manager of a project and the funding for your project has been reduced. What is the BEST action to take in response to this?

Options:

A.

Perform detailed financial analysis and renegotiate for adequate funding.

B.

Inform in customer that the project will be delayed an adjust resources accordingly.

C.

Only do as much work as the new budget permits and document actions taken.

D.

Inform the customer of impacts and negotiate a change in scope.

Question 71

Which of the following estimates MOST accurately reflects the actual cost of the project?

Options:

A.

Top-down

B.

Bottom-up

C.

Budget

D.

Appropriations

Question 72

Planning components are tools or techniques of the Define Activities process. Which of the following are planning components?

Options:

A.

Executing processes

B.

Planning processes

C.

Controlling Processes

D.

Closing processes

Question 73

You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your ptoject recently for $5,000 and is expected to last 5 years in production. At the end of the five years the expected worth of the equipment is $2,000. Using straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be written off each year?

Options:

A.

$600

B.

$1200

C.

$3000

D.

Zero

Question 74

You have been assigned to a project where the objective is to create a new building. You are in charge of the demolition phase of this project, and you report to the project manager in charge of this project. You have been hired on contract and will be released at the completion of the demolition phase. What type of organizational structure you are working for?

Options:

A.

Projectized organization

B.

Weak matrix organization

C.

Balanced matrix organization

D.

Functional organization

Question 75

Project management processes is organized into:

Options:

A.

Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing

B.

Initiating, planning, contracting, executing, and closing

C.

Designing, developing, testing, and implementing

D.

Initiating, planning, contracting, developing, and closing

Question 76

You are project manager and the monthly report to the client showed zero schedule variance. However, member of the team know that a milestone has been missed which will cause an overall delay to the project. Which one of the following is being inadequately reported?

Options:

A.

Communication plan variance

B.

Resource management plan

C.

Critical path status

D.

Risk analysis

Question 77

The cost effective rule for shortening a project is to crash the:

Options:

A.

Critical tasks-

B.

Non-critical tasks.

C.

Tasks with lowest cost.

D.

Tasks with highest cost.

Question 78

Which of the following statements are FALSE about cost reimbursable contracts?

Options:

A.

cost-reimbursable contracts generally carry the highest risks to the buyer, as the total costs are uncertain

B.

cost-reimbursable contracts often includes incentives for meeting or exceeding project objectives

C.

cost-reimbursable contracts resemble fix unit agreements when the unit rates are preset by the buyer and seller

D.

cost-reimbursable contracts are contracts that involves payments to the seller for actual costs, plus a fee representing the sellers profit

Question 79

Which of the following are inputs of the Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work, Contract, Business case and organizational process assets

B.

Project SOW, project selection methods, and enterprise environmental factors

C.

Contract, project selection methods, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

D.

Contract, project SOW, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

Question 80

Which of the following is useful in Identify Risks because it permits a systemic evaluation of the work?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure.

B.

Design specification

C.

Project flow chart

D.

Project chart

Question 81

What is the key difference between a contract close-out and an administrative closure?

Options:

A.

Contract close-out formalizes project completion.

B.

Contract close-out includes updating records with final results.

C.

Administrative closure includes procurement audits.

D.

Contract close-out includes product verification.

Question 82

Monte Carlo analysis is a form of what type of analysis?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Schedule compression

C.

What if scenario analysis

D.

Resource leveling

Question 83

The work breakdown structure:

Options:

A.

Is used to break down the project Into manageable pieces

B.

Is set and does not change throughout the project

C.

Is needed as part of the project charter

D.

None of the above

Question 84

To determine the impact of a change that has occurred, which of the following should be taken?

Options:

A.

Re-evaluate the work breakdown structure.

B.

Assess the communication policy.

C.

Review the earned value

D.

Performance measurement

Question 85

As a project manager, you know that the most important activity to ensure customer and stakeholder satisfaction is which of the following?

Options:

A.

Documenting and meeting the requirements

B.

Reporting project status regularly and in a timely manner

C.

Documenting and meeting the performance measurements

D.

Reporting changes and updating the project plan and other project documents where appropriate

Question 86

Mathematical models using linear, dynamic, integer, or algorithm models are considered

Options:

A.

Project selection methods

B.

Project selection criteria

C.

A form of expert judgment

D.

A form of historical information

Question 87

Which of the following are not essential for project close out ?

Options:

A.

Documenting formal acceptance of the product.

B.

Documenting the lessons learned

C.

Documenting the final project scope

Question 88

Which of the following are not indirect costs?

Options:

A.

Payroll tax cost.

B.

Subcontract costs.

C.

Insurance costs.

D.

Accounting support costs.

Question 89

Which process involves monitoring, measuring, and taking corrective action?

Options:

A.

Executing processes

B.

Planning processes

C.

Controlling Processes

D.

Closing processes

Question 90

A response to a risk event that was not defined in advance of is occurrence is called a:

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation response.

B.

Workaround response.

C.

Corrective action response.

D.

Contingency response.

Question 91

Comparing actual to baseline schedules, examining the statement of work, understanding cost overruns, and assessing risk; all occur during a:

Options:

A.

Project audit.

B.

Contract negotiation.

C.

Stakeholder meeting.

D.

Resource leveling activity.

Question 92

You are the project manager for Tech Days Seminar Homes. Your new project assignment is to head the Days Seminar Home opening in Mountainview, CA. You are estimating the duration of the project plan activities, devising the project schedule, and monitoring and controlling deviations from the schedule. Which of the Project Management Knowledge Areas are you working in?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Quality Management

C.

Project Integration Management

D.

Project Time Management

Question 93

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

PBS

B.

Project Scope statement

C.

WBS Template

D.

Constraints

Question 94

Which of the following activities is not part of Plan Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Updating risk register

B.

Determining risk roles and responsibilities

C.

Identifying risk categories

D.

Developing a risk management plan

Question 95

Who has the responsibility for Plan Quality?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

QA manager

C.

Project planner

D.

Team 'ead

Question 96

You are managing a project that will implement a new Insurance software package. Two project team members have difficulty working together. They come to you, for help resolving the issues. You immediately set up a meeting that includes the functional manager. After the meeting you and the functional manager discuss the issues and agree on a solution. What type of organizational structure you are working in?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Balanced matrix

C.

Piojectized

D.

Strong Matrix

Question 97

The buyer and seller are bound by the ________.

Options:

A.

Contract

B.

Responsibilities

C.

WBS

D.

Identification

Question 98

Which of the following is not part of project scope management?

Options:

A.

Verify Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

None of the above

Question 99

Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the __________.

Options:

A.

Work Breakdown Structure

B.

sow

C.

Project Charter

D.

Project Scope Statement

Question 100

Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. What are the two options?

Options:

A.

Direct ar|d Indirect

B.

Tactical and Strategic

C.

Management and Project

D.

0n|y Tactical

Question 101

Which of the following plans is not done during the writing of a project plan?

Options:

A.

Executive Communication

B.

Risk Management

C.

Quality Management

D.

Scope Statement

Question 102

How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 10 individual are participating?

Options:

A.

45

B.

12

C.

10

D.

5

Question 103

Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are examples of ____________.

Options:

A.

Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a project

B.

Integral parts of the SOW

C.

Ways to ensure stakeholder commitment

D.

Project selection methods

Question 104

You are project manager of a project, which of the following is not your responsibility?

Options:

A.

Quality in the organization

B.

Acquiring HR resources for the project team

C.

Overall responsibility for risk on the project

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 105

The project baseline is _______.

Options:

A.

Original plans plus the approved changes

B.

Important in the project initiation phase

C.

Initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization

D.

Original plans and the approved major changes

Question 106

Which monitoring or controlling activities would not result in preventive action being applied?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Manage project team

C.

Quality control

D.

Manage Scope statement

Question 107

Who has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Project Manager

B.

Sponsor

C.

Team Lead

D.

Management

Question 108

A complete set of indexed project records is called __________.

Options:

A.

Project archives

B.

Index

C.

sow

D.

Project History

Question 109

Administrative closure is the process that ________.

Options:

A.

Closes all activities pertaining to a specific project

B.

Collects user acceptance of the project product or service

C.

Includes all the activities needed to validate the project products and services

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 110

Which of the following are the inputs of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Requirements document created in collect requirements process

B.

Project files from previous projects

C.

Project Charter

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 111

Who is responsible for issuing the project charter?

Options:

A.

The project manager

B.

The project sponsor

C.

The Team lead

D.

The nianagement

Question 112

The intent of the risk management process group is to ________.

Options:

A.

Increase the probability of positive outcomes in the project

B.

Announce project risks

C.

Not consider risks affecting the company

D.

Announce project deliverables

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Total 748 questions