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PMI PMI-001 Project Management Professional v5 Exam Practice Test

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Total 918 questions

Project Management Professional v5 Questions and Answers

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Question 1

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Inspection

D.

Checklist analysis

Question 2

Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

Options:

A.

Liabilities

B.

Inspections

C.

Training

D.

Equipment

Question 3

Which of the following Process Groups covers all Project Management Knowledge Areas?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

Question 4

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

Define Scope

Question 5

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk audits

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Risk probability and impact assessment

Question 6

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Team performance assessment

Question 7

The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

Options:

A.

tracking

B.

scoping

C.

timing

D.

defining

Question 8

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?

Options:

A.

Marketplace conditions and commercial databases

B.

Marketplace conditions and company structure

C.

Commercial databases and company structure

D.

Existing human resources and market place conditions

Question 9

What is the definition of project plan execution?

Options:

A.

Integrating all planned activities

B.

Performing the activities included in the plan

C.

Developing and maintaining the plan

D.

Execution of deliverables

Question 10

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Define Scope

D.

Define Activities

Question 11

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

Options:

A.

The Delphi technique

B.

Nominal group technique

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Question 12

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

Options:

A.

WBS directory

B.

Activity list

C.

WBS

D.

Project schedule

Question 13

Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?

Options:

A.

Customers

B.

Project sponsors

C.

Project management team

D.

Insurance claims department

Question 14

Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

Options:

A.

Requirements documentation

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Project documents updates

Question 15

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

Options:

A.

Salience

B.

Influence/impact

C.

Power/interest

D.

Power/influence

Question 16

Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

Options:

A.

Pareto diagram

B.

Performance reporting

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Expert judgment

Question 17

Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

Options:

A.

Qualitative risk analysis

B.

Quantitative risk analysis

C.

Risk management planning

D.

Risk response planning

Question 18

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

Options:

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

Question 19

For any given project, the project manager, in collaboration with the project team, is responsible for:

Options:

A.

Applying knowledge, skills, and processes uniformly.

B.

Informing the project sponsor about which processes are going to be used.

C.

Tailoring the processes to fit the abilities of the organization.

D.

Determining which particular processes are appropriate.

Question 20

Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:

Options:

A.

influencing

B.

leadership

C.

motivation

D.

coaching

Question 21

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

Options:

A.

Staffing level is highest at the start.

B.

The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.

C.

The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.

D.

The cost of changes is highest at the start.

Question 22

Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Change control process

D.

Team performance assessment

Question 23

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

Options:

A.

Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.

B.

Occur at random times in the project plans.

C.

Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.

D.

Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.

Question 24

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

Options:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.

C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

Question 25

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

Options:

A.

Probability

B.

Quantitative

C.

Qualitative

D.

Sensitivity

Question 26

The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Push

B.

Pull

C.

Interactive

D.

Iterative

Question 27

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Activity list

B.

Project plan

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Project schedule

Question 28

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Risk register

C.

Change requests

D.

Risk response plan

Question 29

A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?

Options:

A.

Listening

B.

Facilitation

C.

Meeting management

D.

Presentation

Question 30

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

Question 31

Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?

Options:

A.

Develop preliminary project scope statement

B.

Close Project or Phase

C.

Develop project charter

D.

Create WBS

Question 32

Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Question 33

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

Options:

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

Question 34

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Question 35

An output of the Close Project (or Close Phase) process is:

Options:

A.

accepted deliverables

B.

organizational process asset updates

C.

work performance information

D.

project management plan updates

Question 36

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

Options:

A.

Cost-reimbursable contracts

B.

Time and Material contracts (T&M)

C.

Fixed-price contracts

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

Question 37

Procurement audits, negotiated settlements, and a records management system are tools and techniques used in which Procurement Management process?

Options:

A.

Close Procurements

B.

Administer Procurements

C.

Plan Procurements

D.

Conduct Procurements

Question 38

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

Question 39

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

Options:

A.

always be applied uniformly.

B.

be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.

C.

be selected as appropriate by the project team.

D.

be applied based on ISO guidelines.

Question 40

When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Document analysis

D.

Product analysis

Question 41

Types of internal failure costs include:

Options:

A.

inspections.

B.

equipment and training.

C.

lost business.

D.

reworking and scrapping.

Question 42

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

Options:

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

Question 43

The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:

Options:

A.

Intuitive

B.

Iterative

C.

Measured

D.

Monitored

Question 44

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.

One

B.

Five

C.

Six

D.

Seven

Question 45

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

Options:

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

Question 46

Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?

Options:

A.

Coaching

B.

Avoidance

C.

Consensus

D.

Influencing

Question 47

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

Options:

A.

Project management information system

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Variance analysis

Question 48

What is a technique used in the performance reporting process?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

Question 49

The person assigned by the performing organization to be responsible for achieving the project objectives is the:

Options:

A.

functional manager

B.

program manager

C.

project manager

D.

portfolio manager

Question 50

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

Options:

A.

Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B.

Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C.

Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D.

Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6

Question 51

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

Options:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

project scope statement.

C.

project management plan.

D.

work performance measurements.

Question 52

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Question 53

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

Options:

A.

prototypes

B.

requirements

C.

analyses

D.

benchmarks

Question 54

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

Options:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

Question 55

An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:

Options:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Activity lists.

C.

A work breakdown structure.

D.

A scope statement.

Question 56

Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

Options:

A.

Force/direct

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

Question 57

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

Options:

A.

enterprise environmental factors

B.

organizational process assets

C.

the project management plan

D.

the stakeholder register

Question 58

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

Options:

A.

triangular distribution

B.

tornado diagram

C.

beta distribution

D.

fishbone diagram

Question 59

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question 60

One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:

Options:

A.

outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.

B.

establishes project roles and responsibilities.

C.

improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.

D.

provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.

Question 61

Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Inspection

C.

Project analysis

D.

Document analysis

Question 62

Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?

Options:

A.

Power/influence grid

B.

Power/interest grid

C.

Influence/impact grid

D.

Salience model

Question 63

Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?

Options:

A.

The customer and functional managers

B.

The risk owners and stakeholders

C.

The sponsors and stakeholders

D.

The project management team

Question 64

Which tool and technique of quality planning involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

Options:

A.

Histogram

B.

Quality audits

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Performance measurement analysis

Question 65

Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

Question 66

Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?

Options:

A.

Product

B.

Cost benefit

C.

Stakeholder

D.

Research

Question 67

An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:

Options:

A.

Cost estimates.

B.

Resource calendars,

C.

The project charter,

D.

The risk register.

Question 68

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

Options:

A.

dictionary.

B.

chart.

C.

report.

D.

register.

Question 69

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

Question 70

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

Options:

A.

Communications management plan

B.

Human resource plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Procurement management plan

Question 71

In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?

Options:

A.

Start-to-start (SS)

B.

Start-to-finish (SF)

C.

Rnish-to-finish (FF)

D.

Finish-to-start (FS)

Question 72

What defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

Options:

A.

Procurement management plan

B.

Evaluation criteria

C.

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

D.

Contract Statement of Work (SOW)

Question 73

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration?

Options:

A.

Critical path

B.

Rolling Wave

C.

PDM

D.

Para metric

Question 74

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Activity resource requirements

C.

Resource calendar

D.

Project staff assignments

Question 75

The Create WBS process is in which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

Question 76

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

Options:

A.

3

B.

5

C.

7

D.

9

Question 77

Which of the following lists contain processes that are included within Project Procurement Management?

Options:

A.

Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select sellers

B.

Plan purchases and acquisitions, request seller responses, select sellers, schedule control

C.

Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, request seller responses, select sellers

D.

Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, contract approval, select sellers

Question 78

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

Options:

A.

expert judgment.

B.

rolling wave planning.

C.

work performance information.

D.

specification.

Question 79

When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?

Options:

A.

Before the Define Activities process

B.

During the Define Activities process

C.

Before the Sequence Activities process

D.

During the Sequence Activities process

Question 80

Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

Options:

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Staffing management plan

C.

Project organizational chart

D.

Scope management plan

Question 81

Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.

Influence/impact grid

B.

Power/influence grid

C.

Power/interest grid

D.

Salience model

Question 82

Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Communications Management

C.

Project Information Management System (PIMS)

D.

Project Scope Management

Question 83

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

Options:

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

Question 84

Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:

Options:

A.

requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication methods.

B.

methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models.

C.

requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication methods.

D.

management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication requirements analysis.

Question 85

Ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation is a focus of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Project management

B.

Program management

C.

Portfolio management

D.

Relationship management

Question 86

The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:

Options:

A.

Work performance information.

B.

Inspections and audits.

C.

Payment systems.

D.

Procurement performance reviews.

Question 87

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

Options:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Plan Scope Management.

C.

Control Scope.

D.

Define Scope.

Question 88

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

Question 89

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

Options:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

Question 90

Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?

Options:

A.

Facilitated workshops

B.

Interviews

C.

Inspection

D.

Meetings

Question 91

Which knowledge area employs the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

Options:

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Communications Management

D.

Project Quality Management

Question 92

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

Options:

A.

resource calendar.

B.

activity list.

C.

risk management plan.

D.

organizational process assets.

Question 93

Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

Question 94

Which of the following outputs from the Schedule Control process aids in the communication of SV, SPI or any performance status to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Performance measurements

D.

Change requests

Question 95

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

Options:

A.

risk data quality assessment.

B.

variance and trend analysis.

C.

data gathering and representation techniques.

D.

risk audits.

Question 96

Schedule milestones and a predefined budget are examples of:

Options:

A.

Project constraints.

B.

Requirements documentation.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Activity cost estimates.

Question 97

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

Question 98

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

Options:

A.

establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.

B.

influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented.

C.

monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline.

D.

observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.

Question 99

Cost of quality (COQ) refers to total cost of/to:

Options:

A.

All efforts related to quality.

B.

Product inspection activities.

C.

Maintain plan quality.

D.

Perform quality control.

Question 100

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

Options:

A.

Functional managers

B.

Business partners

C.

Customers or sponsors

D.

Subject matter experts

Question 101

Cost variance (CV) is equal to earned value:

Options:

A.

Minus actual cost [EV - AC].

B.

Minus planned value [EV - PV].

C.

Divided by actual cost [EV/AC].

D.

Divided by planned value [EV/PV].

Question 102

What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?

Options:

A.

Scope

B.

Quality

C.

Specification

D.

Grade

Question 103

A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:

Options:

A.

Product analysis.

B.

Variance analysis.

C.

Document analysis,

D.

Decomposition.

Question 104

Which term describes an assessment of correctness?

Options:

A.

Accuracy

B.

Precision

C.

Grade

D.

Quality

Question 105

Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:

Options:

A.

Performance measurement baseline.

B.

Analysis of project forecasts,

C.

Summary of changes approved in a period,

D.

Analysis of past performance.

Question 106

Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?

Options:

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) update

C.

Project schedule network diagram

D.

Mandatory dependencies list

Question 107

The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:

Options:

A.

Methodology

B.

Risk category

C.

Risk attitude

D.

Assumption analysis

Question 108

A tool or technique used during the Administer Procurements process is:

Options:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Bidder conference.

C.

Procurement negotiation.

D.

Performance reporting.

Question 109

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Control Costs

D.

Determine Budget

Question 110

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Internal

C.

Mandatory

D.

Discretionary

Question 111

On what is project baseline development established?

Options:

A.

Approved product requirements

B.

Estimated project cost and schedule

C.

Actual project cost and schedule

D.

Revised project cost and schedule

Question 112

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500. What is the actual cost of the project?

Options:

A.

US$158,700

B.

US$172,500

C.

US$187,500

D.

US$245,600

Question 113

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

Options:

A.

Resource leveling and fast tracking

B.

Fast tracking and crashing

C.

Crashing and applying leads and lags

D.

Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

Question 114

Which of the following is a component of three-point estimates?

Options:

A.

Probabilistic

B.

Most likely

C.

Expected

D.

Anticipated

Question 115

Your project has an EV of 100 work-days, an AC of 120 work-days, and a PV of 80 work days. What should be your concern?

Options:

A.

There is a cost under run.

B.

There is a cost overrun.

C.

May not meet deadline.

D.

The project is 20 days behind schedule.

Question 116

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

Options:

A.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.

B.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.

D.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

Question 117

The three types of estimates that PERT uses to define an approximate range for an activity’s cost are:

Options:

A.

Parametric, most likely, and analogous.

B.

Least likely, analogous, and realistic.

C.

Parametric, optimistic, and pessimistic.

D.

Most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic.

Question 118

What is the lowest level in the Work Breakdown Structure called?

Options:

A.

Work Packages

B.

Activities

C.

Schedules

D.

Tasks

Question 119

Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

Options:

A.

Cost of changes

B.

Stakeholder influences

C.

Risk

D.

Uncertainty

Question 120

Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?

Options:

A.

Ground rules

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Team-building activities

D.

Interpersonal skills

Question 121

Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Only once, at the beginning

B.

At the beginning and the end

C.

Once during each phase

D.

Repeatedly

Question 122

Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Initiating

Question 123

An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:

Options:

A.

The project management plan.

B.

The stakeholder register.

C.

Procurement documents.

D.

Stakeholder analysis.

Question 124

What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements

B.

Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

C.

Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements

D.

Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

Question 125

A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

Options:

A.

state the guiding principles of the organization.

B.

identify alternatives to generate different approaches.

C.

state what is out of scope.

D.

outline the results of the Delphi technique.

Question 126

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

Options:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

Question 127

In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?

Options:

A.

Performing

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Forming

Question 128

Who is responsible for developing the project management plan and all related component plans?

Options:

A.

Project team

B.

Portfolio manager

C.

Project manager

D.

Project management office

Question 129

The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team.

B.

Plan Human Resource Management.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

Question 130

Inputs to the Define Activities process include:

Options:

A.

Project scope statement, resource calendars, and work performance information.

B.

Scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

C.

Project scope statement, approved change requests, and WBS dictionary.

D.

Scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates.

Question 131

A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is:

Options:

A.

quality audits.

B.

process analysis.

C.

benchmarking.

D.

inspection.

Question 132

Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

Options:

A.

Procurement management plan

B.

Evaluation criteria

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Procurement statement of work

Question 133

A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is relying on:

Options:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Stakeholder participation.

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Enterprise environmental factors.

Question 134

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Performance reports

B.

Project charter

C.

Outputs from planning processes

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question 135

Based on the following metrics: EV=$20,000, AC=$22,000, and PV=$28,000, what is the project CV?

Options:

A.

-8000

B.

-2000

C.

2000

D.

8000

Question 136

Which of the following processes are within the Initiating Process Group?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan and Identify Stakeholders

B.

Develop Project Management Plan and Plan Communications

C.

Develop Project Charter and Identify Stakeholders

D.

Develop Project Charter and Develop Project Scope Statement

Question 137

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

Options:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

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Total 918 questions