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PMI CA0-001 Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Exam Practice Test

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Total 525 questions

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Which one of the following comes first in the project plan?

Options:

A.

Scope Statement

B.

Quality Plan

C.

WBS

D.

Development Plan

Question 2

You are the project manager of a project and budgeted money to provide cash awards to team members that exceed expectations. A project team member that is motivated by the chance to earn cash reward can most accurately be explained by which theory

Options:

A.

Hierarchy of needs

B.

Expectancy theory

C.

Achievement theory

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 3

__________ is providing detailed plans for tasks that are about to start in the near future using the most current information and revisiting future activities when they near their starting dates.

Options:

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Progressive elaboration

C.

Milestone detail planning

D.

Expert judgment

Question 4

Which of the following is an output of Verify Scope?

Options:

A.

Formal acceptance

B.

WBS template

C.

sow acceptance

D.

Rework

Question 5

The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.

Options:

A.

Assign the project manager to the project

B.

Formally describe the project

C.

Produce the project charter

D.

Formally authorize the project

Question 6

The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.

Options:

A.

Assign the project manager to the project

B.

Formally describe the project

C.

Produce the project charter

D.

Formally authorize the project

Question 7

Which monitoring or controlling activities would not result in preventive action being applied?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Manage project team

C.

Quality control

D.

Manage Scope statement

Question 8

Collect Requirements process starts in Project Planning Phase and uses the outputs of the __________.

Options:

A.

Initiation Process

B.

Project closer Process

C.

Estimation Process

D.

Closing process

Question 9

Administrative Closure should occur ___________.

Options:

A.

At the end of each phase of the project

B.

At the end of the whole project

C.

At the end of 50% of the project

D.

At the end of 100% of the project

Question 10

Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps to prevent further occurrence?

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis

B.

Quality audits

C.

Project audits

D.

Risk audits

Question 11

You are the project manager of a project that just went into extinction mode. This means that your project __________.

Options:

A.

Has ended before its stated objective

B.

's st'" cunning but missing resources

C.

Will be closed due to lack of resources

D.

None of the above

Question 12

A contract cannot contain _____________.

Options:

A.

Illegal activities

B.

deadline for the completion of the work

C.

Penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 13

_________ is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined.

Options:

A.

Cost plus incentive fee

B.

F'xed P|ice

C.

Time and material

D.

"'s^ 's nc* 'elated to price

Question 14

If a project with a SPI of 1.8, what you tell?

Options:

A.

The project is running ahead of the schedule

B.

The project is running behind of the schedule

C.

Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units

D.

None

Question 15

Which of the following is conflict resolution technique?

Options:

A.

Compromise

B.

Smoothing

C.

Foimal

D.

Coercive

Question 16

ISO Stands for __________.

Options:

A.

International Organization for Standardization

B.

International Standardized Organization

C.

'n Standardized Organization

D.

Indiana Standardized Organization

Question 17

Create Procurement document is done in _______.

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Question 18

Which document formally authorizes a project?

Options:

A.

The project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

The P'oject contract

D.

Project closing document

Question 19

If a project with a CPI of 1.2, what you tell?

Options:

A.

The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated

B.

The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.

C.

The project is falling behind.

D.

The project is running ahead of schedule.

Question 20

Project success can be achieved only if:

Options:

A.

There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the business strategy.

B.

The project sponsor leads the initiatives.

C.

The project manager is an expert in managing resources.

D.

Team members like project manager.

Question 21

You are managing a project that will implement a new Insurance software package. Two project team members have difficulty working together. They come to you, for help resolving the issues. You immediately set up a meeting that includes the functional manager. After the meeting you and the functional manager discuss the issues and agree on a solution. What type of organizational structure you are working in?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Balanced matrix

C.

Piojectized

D.

Strong Matrix

Question 22

What are the inputs for Initiation process?

Options:

A.

Product description and Strategic plan

B.

Selection criteria

C.

Historical information

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 23

Function of the __________ is to make sure that changes to anything in the project are recorded and agreed to by the stakeholders.

Options:

A.

Project Manager

B.

Sponsor

C.

Team Lead

D.

Management

Question 24

When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose to add the individual estimates for the activities that comprise each phase. What type of estimation method are you using?

Options:

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Bottom-up estimating

C.

Top-down estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

Question 25

During the planning phase of your project, your project team members have discovered another way to complete a portion of the project scope. This method is safer for the project team, but may cost more for the customer. This is an example of _______.

Options:

A.

Alternative identification

B.

"'s^ assessment

C.

Alternative selection

D.

Product analysis

Question 26

Acceptance of the product should be ________.

Options:

A.

Formal

B.

Consistent

C.

Personal

D.

Verbal

Question 27

A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?

Options:

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages

B.

Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment

C.

Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects

Question 28

Which knowledge area employs the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

Options:

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Communications Management

D.

Project Quality Management

Question 29

Which contract type is typically used whenever the seller's performance period spans a considerable period of years?

Options:

A.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee contracts (FPIF)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment contracts (FP-EPA)

C.

Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contracts (CPFF)

D.

Time and Material contracts (T&M)

Question 30

What is the first step in preparing the risk register?

Options:

A.

Qualitative risk analysis

B.

Quantitative risk analysis

C.

Risk response planning

D.

Risk identification

Question 31

The Monitoring and Controlling process group contains which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Plan Quality

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Perform Quality Control

D.

Identify Stakeholders

Question 32

Company A bought a well-defined project deliverable from Company B. Company A will pay a fixed total price plus a percentage premium for the schedule target achieved.

For which type of contract have they subscribed?

Options:

A.

Fixed-price-incentive-fee contracts (FPIF)

B.

Firm-fixed-price-contracts (FFP)

C.

Fixed price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA)

D.

Time and material contracts (T&M)

Question 33

What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Risk registry

C.

Risk response planning

D.

Interviewing

Question 34

Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

Question 35

When managing a project team, what helps to reduce the amount of conflict?

Options:

A.

Clear role definition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Risk response planning

D.

Team member replacement

Question 36

What is a technique used in the performance reporting process?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

Question 37

A project manager needs the project team to make a group decision. Which of the following is a method that can be used to reach a group decision?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Majority

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Brainstorming

Question 38

Which of the following outputs from the Schedule Control process aids in the communication of SV, SPI or any performance status to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Performance measurements

D.

Change requests

Question 39

Which of the following equations is used to calculate cost variance?

Options:

A.

EV-AC

B.

AC-EV

C.

AC+EV

D.

AC/EV

Question 40

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

Options:

A.

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.

Design of experiments

C.

Quality checklist

D.

Risk analysis

Question 41

Given the following values, what is the calculated expected activity cost (CE) when using PERT?

CO = $7,000

CM = $10,500

CP = $11,000

Options:

A.

$ 4,750

B.

$ 9,500

C.

$10,000

D.

$11,500

Question 42

What is a cost of nonconformance?

Options:

A.

Rework

B.

Inspections

C.

Training

D.

Testing

Question 43

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project management plan

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Product analysis

Question 44

The degree of risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

Options:

A.

contract type.

B.

sponsors.

C.

project manager.

D.

stakeholders.

Question 45

How many knowledge areas are there according to PMBOK Guide?

Options:

A.

5

B.

8

C.

9

D.

12

Question 46

In which tool and technique is it possible to find a correlation between dependent and independent variables?

Options:

A.

Fishbone diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Scatter diagram

Question 47

If the Schedule Variance (SV) =$55, and the Planned Value (PV) =$11, what is the Earned Value (EV)?

Options:

A.

$0.2

B.

$5

C.

$44

D.

$66

Question 48

The project management information system is used as tools and techniques in which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Charter

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

Question 49

In which of the following team development stages does the team begin to work together, develop trust, and adjust to the work habits and behavior?

Options:

A.

Norming

B.

Forming

C.

Storming

D.

Performing

Question 50

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

Question 51

If the earned value (EV) is $1000, actual cost (AC) is $800, and planned value (PV) is $1500, what would be the cost performance index (CPI)?

Options:

A.

0.66

B.

0.8

C.

1.25

D.

1.5

Question 52

An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is:

Options:

A.

Organizational Structure

B.

Organizational Process Assets

C.

Organizational Matrix

D.

Organizational Breakdown Structures

Question 53

Which of the following is NOT an input of Estimate Costs?

Options:

A.

Earn Value Analysis

B.

Scope Baseline

C.

P'sk Register

D.

Human Resource Plan

Question 54

Your project has a budget of $240,000 and is expect to last for 1 year, with the work and budget spread evenly across all months. The project is now in the fourth month, the work is on schedule, but you have spent $120,000 of the project budget. What is your COST Variance percentage in this case?

Options:

A.

-50%

B.

50%

C.

40%

D.

20%

Question 55

A process that is not part of a Project Risk Management is:

Options:

A.

Identification

B.

Solicitation

C.

Quantification

D.

Response Development

Question 56

If a project with a CPI of 1.6, what you tell?

Options:

A.

The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated

B.

The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.

C.

The project is falling behind.

D.

The project is running ahead of schedule.

Question 57

Which is the most risky phase of a project?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Execution

D.

Control

Question 58

You are project manager of a project and you are offering an estimate that you know will be changed after the contract is signed is ___________.

Options:

A.

Bad practice

B.

Unprofessional practice

C.

Bacl f°r both tne buyer and seller

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 59

You are the project manager and you have created a contract for your customer. The contract must have ________.

Options:

A.

Offer and consideration

B.

Start date and acceptance of start date

C.

Signatures and the stamp of a notary public

D.

Signatures of all stakeholders

Question 60

Purchasing insurance is an example of __________.

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Acceptances

C.

Mitigation

D.

Contingency

Question 61

What are common types of cost-reimbursable contracts?

Options:

A.

CPF

B.

CPFF

C.

CPIF

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 62

Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?

Options:

A.

Gantt chart

B.

Milestone chart

C.

fishbone diagram

D.

network diagram

Question 63

You are the project manager of a project. Your project just went into integration mode. This means that your project __________.

Options:

A.

Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client

B.

Will be closed due to lack of resources

C.

Resources are being assigned to other areas of the business

D.

None of the above

Question 64

In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?

Options:

A.

Projectized organization

B.

Balanced Matrix organization

C.

Strong Matrix

D.

Weak Matrix organization

Question 65

Customer formally accepts the deliverables of each project phase. This process is known as ________.

Options:

A.

Verify Scope

B.

Quality Assurance

C.

Quality Control

D.

Quality Measurement

Question 66

Which document formally authorizes a project?

Options:

A.

The project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

The P'oject contract

D.

Project closing document

Question 67

What is the purpose of the WBS?

Options:

A.

To show which work elements have been assigned to organizational units.

B.

To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common framework.

C.

To show the organizational structure of a program.

D.

all of the above

Question 68

Which is not included in Performance improvements :

Options:

A.

Improvements in amount of overtime worked

B.

Improvements in individual skills

C.

Improvements in team behaviours

D.

Improvements in team capabilities

Question 69

The activity that is most concerned with the current status of the project schedule is called ___________.

Options:

A.

Project time management

B.

Control Schedule

C.

Monitoring and controlling

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 70

What are the outputs of Initiation process?

Options:

A.

Project charter and PM assigned

B.

Constraints

C.

Assumptions

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 71

A Project Scope Management includes :

Options:

A.

Initiation

B.

Project Plan Execution

C.

Overall Change Control

D.

Report Performance

Question 72

Which of the following is ensuring that all features and functions are included in a product or service

Options:

A.

Project scope

B.

Project verification

C.

Project control

D.

Product scope

Question 73

Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days, what is the PERT weighted average?

Options:

A.

6

B.

4

C.

6.3

D.

6.1

Question 74

You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next?

Options:

A.

Create WBS

B.

Vei*

C.

Value analysis

D.

Control Scope

Question 75

When should a project manager be assigned to a project?

Options:

A.

As early in the project as feasible.

B.

Preferably before much project planning has been done.

C.

At least prior to the start of project plan execution.

D.

All of the above.

Question 76

In which phase you define the final deliverable?

Options:

A.

Closing

B.

Execution

C.

Planning

D.

Initiation

Question 77

In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?

Options:

A.

Projectized organization

B.

Balanced Matrix organization

C.

Strong Matrix

D.

Weak Matrix organization

Question 78

A Project Cost Management plan is created as a part of:

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan process

B.

Control Costs process

C.

Determine Budget process

D.

Estimate Costs process

Page: 1 / 53
Total 525 questions