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Paloalto Networks Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Exam Practice Test

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Total 227 questions

Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Questions and Answers

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Question 1

How does adopting a serverless model impact application development?

Options:

A.

costs more to develop application code because it uses more compute resources

B.

slows down the deployment of application code, but it improves the quality of code development

C.

reduces the operational overhead necessary to deploy application code

D.

prevents developers from focusing on just the application code because you need to provision the underlying infrastructure to run the code

Question 2

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?

Options:

A.

dynamic computing

B.

identity security

C.

compute security

D.

network protection

Question 3

What are three benefits of SD-WAN infrastructure? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Improving performance of SaaS applications by requiring all traffic to be back-hauled through the corporate headquarters network

B.

Promoting simplicity through the utilization of a centralized management structure

C.

Utilizing zero-touch provisioning for automated deployments

D.

Leveraging remote site routing technical support by relying on MPLS

E.

Improving performance by allowing efficient access to cloud-based resources without requiring back-haul traffic to a centralized location

Question 4

What is a reason IoT devices are more susceptible to command-and-control (C2) attacks?

Options:

A.

Decreased connection quality within a local area network

B.

Increased sharing of data through the internet

C.

Higher attack surface due to mobility

D.

Limited batten/ life preventing always-on security

Question 5

What is used to orchestrate, coordinate, and control clusters of containers?

Options:

A.

Kubernetes

B.

Prisma Saas

C.

Docker

D.

CN-Series

Question 6

What does SIEM stand for?

Options:

A.

Security Infosec and Event Management

B.

Security Information and Event Management

C.

Standard Installation and Event Media

D.

Secure Infrastructure and Event Monitoring

Question 7

What is the key to “taking down” a botnet?

Options:

A.

prevent bots from communicating with the C2

B.

install openvas software on endpoints

C.

use LDAP as a directory service

D.

block Docker engine software on endpoints

Question 8

In an IDS/IPS, which type of alarm occurs when legitimate traffic is improperly identified as malicious traffic?

Options:

A.

False-positive

B.

True-negative

C.

False-negative

D.

True-positive

Question 9

You have been invited to a public cloud design and architecture session to help deliver secure east west flows and secure Kubernetes workloads.

What deployment options do you have available? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

PA-Series

B.

VM-Series

C.

Panorama

D.

CN-Series

Question 10

Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes?

Options:

A.

Expedition

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMeld

D.

Cortex XDR

Question 11

Which technique uses file sharing or an instant messenger client such as Meebo running over Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)?

Options:

A.

Use of non-standard ports

B.

Hiding within SSL encryption

C.

Port hopping

D.

Tunneling within commonly used services

Question 12

Which type of system collects data and uses correlation rules to trigger alarms?

Options:

A.

SIM

B.

SIEM

C.

UEBA

D.

SOAR

Question 13

Which security component can detect command-and-control traffic sent from multiple endpoints within a corporate data center?

Options:

A.

Personal endpoint firewall

B.

Port-based firewall

C.

Next-generation firewall

D.

Stateless firewall

Question 14

Which Palo Alto Networks subscription service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next- generation firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites hosting malware and phishing pages?

Options:

A.

Threat Prevention

B.

DNS Security

C.

WildFire

D.

URL Filtering

Question 15

What are two functions of User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) data in Prisma Cloud CSPM? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Assessing severity levels

B.

Identifying misconfigurations

C.

Unifying cloud provider services

D.

Detecting and correlating anomalies

Question 16

Which product functions as part of a SASE solution?

Options:

A.

Cortex

B.

Prisma Cloud

C.

Kubernetes

D.

Prisma SD-WAN

Question 17

Which scenario highlights how a malicious Portable Executable (PE) file is leveraged as an attack?

Options:

A.

Setting up a web page for harvesting user credentials

B.

Laterally transferring the file through a network after being granted access

C.

Embedding the file inside a pdf to be downloaded and installed

D.

Corruption of security device memory spaces while file is in transit

Question 18

Which aspect of a SaaS application requires compliance with local organizational security policies?

Options:

A.

Types of physical storage media used

B.

Data-at-rest encryption standards

C.

Acceptable use of the SaaS application

D.

Vulnerability scanning and management

Question 19

Which NGFW feature is used to provide continuous identification, categorization, and control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications?

Options:

A.

User-ID

B.

Device-ID

C.

App-ID

D.

Content-ID

Question 20

What are two characteristics of an advanced persistent threat (APT)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Multiple attack vectors

B.

Repeated pursuit of objective

C.

Reduced interaction time

D.

Tendency to isolate hosts

Question 21

On which security principle does virtualization have positive effects?

Options:

A.

integrity

B.

confidentiality

C.

availability

D.

non-repudiation

Question 22

What is a key method used to secure sensitive data in Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) applications?

Options:

A.

Allow downloads to managed devices but block them from unmanaged devices.

B.

Allow downloads to both managed and unmanaged devices.

C.

Leave data security in the hands of the cloud service provider.

D.

Allow users to choose their own applications to access data.

Question 23

Which tool's analysis data gives security operations teams insight into their environment's risks from exposed services?

Options:

A.

IIDP

B.

IAM

C.

SIM

D.

Xpanse

Question 24

In which step of the cyber-attack lifecycle do hackers embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files?

Options:

A.

weaponization

B.

reconnaissance

C.

exploitation

D.

delivery

Question 25

Organizations that transmit, process, or store payment-card information must comply with what standard?

Options:

A.

HIPAA

B.

CISA

C.

GDPR

D.

PCI DSS

Question 26

Which three layers of the OSI model correspond to the Application Layer (L4) of the TCP/IP model?

Options:

A.

Session, Transport, Network

B.

Application, Presentation, and Session

C.

Physical, Data Link, Network

D.

Data Link, Session, Transport

Question 27

What are the two most prominent characteristics of the malware type rootkit? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It encrypts user data.

B.

It cannot be detected by antivirus because of its masking techniques.

C.

It takes control of the operating system.

D.

It steals personal information.

Question 28

Which core component is used to implement a Zero Trust architecture?

Options:

A.

VPN Concentrator

B.

Content Identification

C.

Segmentation Platform

D.

Web Application Zone

Question 29

Which characteristic of serverless computing enables developers to quickly deploy application code?

Options:

A.

Uploading cloud service autoscaling services to deploy more virtual machines to run their application code based on user demand

B.

Uploading the application code itself, without having to provision a full container image or any OS virtual machine components

C.

Using cloud service spot pricing to reduce the cost of using virtual machines to run their application code

D.

Using Container as a Service (CaaS) to deploy application containers to run their code.

Question 30

Which network firewall operates up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintains information about the communication sessions which have been established between hosts on trusted and untrusted networks?

Options:

A.

Group policy

B.

Stateless

C.

Stateful

D.

Static packet-filter

Question 31

Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Services

B.

/etc/shadow files

C.

Users

D.

Terminal shell types on endpoints

Question 32

Which model would a customer choose if they want full control over the operating system(s) running on their cloud computing platform?

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

DaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

IaaS

Question 33

Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?

Options:

A.

STIX

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

WildFire

D.

AutoFocus

Question 34

What is required for a SIEM to operate correctly to ensure a translated flow from the system of interest to the SIEM data lake?

Options:

A.

connectors and interfaces

B.

infrastructure and containers

C.

containers and developers

D.

data center and UPS

Question 35

How does Prisma SaaS provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications?

Options:

A.

Prisma SaaS connects to an organizations internal print and file sharing services to provide protection and sharing visibility

B.

Prisma SaaS does not provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications because they are secure

C.

Prisma access uses Uniform Resource Locator (URL) Web categorization to provide protection and sharing visibility

D.

Prisma SaaS connects directly to sanctioned external service providers SaaS application service to provide protection and sharing visibility

Question 36

Which option describes the “selective network security virtualization” phase of incrementally transforming data centers?

Options:

A.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled

B.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is forwarded to a Web proxy server

C.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is encapsulated and encrypted using the IPSEC protocol

D.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is load balanced

Question 37

Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?

Options:

A.

192.168.19.0

B.

192.168.19.16

C.

192.168.19.64

D.

192.168.19.32

Question 38

What are three benefits of the cloud native security platform? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Increased throughput

B.

Exclusivity

C.

Agility

D.

Digital transformation

E.

Flexibility

Question 39

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Management

C.

Cloud

D.

Security

Question 40

What is the function of an endpoint detection and response (EDR) tool?

Options:

A.

To provide organizations with expertise for monitoring network devices

B.

To ingest alert data from network devices

C.

To monitor activities and behaviors for investigation of security incidents on user devices

D.

To integrate data from different products in order to provide a holistic view of security posture

Question 41

Which technology grants enhanced visibility and threat prevention locally on a device?

Options:

A.

EDR

B.

IDS

C.

SIEM

D.

DLP

Question 42

What are two capabilities of identity threat detection and response (ITDR)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Securing individual devices

B.

Matching risks to signatures

C.

Scanning for excessive logins

D.

Analyzing access management logs

Question 43

Which type of malware takes advantage of a vulnerability on an endpoint or server?

Options:

A.

technique

B.

patch

C.

vulnerability

D.

exploit

Question 44

What is a characteristic of the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) defined cloud computing model?

Options:

A.

requires the use of only one cloud service provider

B.

enables on-demand network services

C.

requires the use of two or more cloud service providers

D.

defines any network service

Question 45

Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by implementing a “ports first” data security solution in a traditional data center?

Options:

A.

You may have to use port numbers greater than 1024 for your business-critical applications.

B.

You may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter.

C.

You may not be able to assign the correct port to your business-critical applications.

D.

You may not be able to open up enough ports for your business-critical applications which will increase the attack surface area.

Question 46

Which tool automates remediation of a confirmed cybersecurity breach?

Options:

A.

SIEM

B.

EDR

C.

SOAR

D.

ISIM

Question 47

Which statement is true about advanced persistent threats?

Options:

A.

They use script kiddies to carry out their attacks.

B.

They have the skills and resources to launch additional attacks.

C.

They lack the financial resources to fund their activities.

D.

They typically attack only once.

Question 48

During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?

Options:

A.

Frame

B.

Segment

C.

Packet

D.

Data

Question 49

Which service is encompassed by serverless architecture?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

B.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

C.

Security as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Authentication as a Service

Question 50

Which type of firewall should be implemented when a company headquarters is required to have redundant power and high processing power?

Options:

A.

Cloud

B.

Physical

C.

Virtual

D.

Containerized

Question 51

Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability.

Options:

Question 52

In which phase of the cyberattack lifecycle do attackers establish encrypted communication channels back to servers across the internet so that they can modify their attack objectives and methods?

Options:

A.

exploitation

B.

actions on the objective

C.

command and control

D.

installation

Question 53

Which two statements describe the Jasager attack? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

□ The victim must manually choose the attacker s access point

B.

□ It actively responds to beacon reguests.

C.

□ It tries to get victims to conned at random.

D.

□ The attacker needs to be wilhin close proximity of the victim.

Question 54

Which type of attack obscures its presence while attempting to spread to multiple hosts in a network?

Options:

A.

Advanced malware

B.

Smishing

C.

Reconnaissance

D.

Denial of service

Question 55

What is a dependency for the functionality of signature-based malware detection?

Options:

A.

Frequent database updates

B.

Support of a DLP device

C.

API integration with a sandbox

D.

Enabling quality of service

Question 56

Which two statements apply to SaaS financial botnets? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They are larger than spamming or DDoS botnets.

B.

They are sold as kits that allow attackers to license the code.

C.

They are a defense against spam attacks.

D.

They are used by attackers to build their own botnets.

Question 57

Which of the Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) will detect zero-day malware by using inline cloud machine learning (ML) and sandboxing?

Options:

A.

DNS security

B.

Advanced WildFire

C.

loT security

D.

Advanced Threat Prevention

Question 58

What is a key benefit of Cortex XDR?

Options:

A.

It acts as a safety net during an attack while patches are developed.

B.

It secures internal network traffic against unknown threats.

C.

It manages applications accessible on endpoints.

D.

It reduces the need for network security.

Question 59

Which internet of things (loT) connectivity technology operates on the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands, as well as all bands between 1 and 6GHz when they become available for 802.11 use. at ranges up to 11 Gbit/s?

Options:

A.

3G

B.

Z-wave

C.

802.11ax

D.

C-band

Question 60

Which two processes are critical to a security information and event management (SIEM) platform? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Detection of threats using data analysis

B.

Automation of security deployments

C.

Ingestion of log data

D.

Prevention of cvbersecurity attacks

Question 61

Which security tool provides policy enforcement for mobile users and remote networks?

Options:

A.

Service connection

B.

Prisma Access

C.

Prisma Cloud

D.

Digital experience management

Question 62

When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to provide protection? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

decrypt the infected file using base64

B.

alert system administrators

C.

quarantine the infected file

D.

delete the infected file

E.

remove the infected file’s extension

Question 63

What differentiates knowledge-based systems from behavior-based systems?

Options:

A.

Behavior-based systems find the data that knowledge-based systems store.

B.

Knowledge-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes “bad”. C. Knowledge-based systems try to find new, distinct traits to find “bad” things.

C.

Behavior-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes “bad”.

Question 64

A doctor receives an email about her upcoming holiday in France. When she clicks the URL website link in the email, the connection is blocked by her office firewall because it's a known malware website. Which type of attack includes a link to a malware website in an email?

Options:

A.

whaling

B.

phishing

C.

pharming

D.

spam

Question 65

What type of attack redirects the traffic of a legitimate website to a fake website?

Options:

A.

Watering hole

B.

Pharming

C.

Spear phishing

D.

Whaling

Question 66

Which three services are part of Prisma SaaS? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Data Loss Prevention

B.

DevOps

C.

Denial of Service

D.

Data Exposure Control

E.

Threat Prevention

Question 67

Identify a weakness of a perimeter-based network security strategy to protect an organization's endpoint systems.

Options:

A.

It cannot identify command-and-control traffic

B.

It assumes that all internal devices are untrusted

C.

It assumes that every internal endpoint can be trusted

D.

It cannot monitor all potential network ports

Question 68

Match the Palo Alto Networks WildFire analysis verdict with its definition.

Options:

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Total 227 questions