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Paloalto Networks Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Exam Practice Test

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Total 227 questions

Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Questions and Answers

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Question 1

What are three benefits of SD-WAN infrastructure? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Improving performance of SaaS applications by requiring all traffic to be back-hauled through the corporate headquarters network

B.

Promoting simplicity through the utilization of a centralized management structure

C.

Utilizing zero-touch provisioning for automated deployments

D.

Leveraging remote site routing technical support by relying on MPLS

E.

Improving performance by allowing efficient access to cloud-based resources without requiring back-haul traffic to a centralized location

Question 2

Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?

Options:

A.

Credit card number

B.

Trade secret

C.

National security information

D.

A symmetric encryption key

Question 3

Which Palo Alto Networks solution has replaced legacy IPS solutions?

Options:

A.

Advanced DNS Security

B.

Advanced WildFire

C.

Advanced Threat Prevention

D.

Advanced URL Filtering

Question 4

The seventy of an attack needs to be escalated.

What needs to be in place in order for the security operations team to properly inform various units within the enterprise of the issue?

Options:

A.

Interface Agreement

B.

FAO Incident Site —

C.

Corporate Executive Listserv

D.

Security Breach Blog

Question 5

Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?

Options:

A.

4G/LTE

B.

VLF

C.

L-band

D.

2G/2.5G

Question 6

What is a function of SSL/TLS decryption?

Options:

A.

It applies to unknown threat detection only.

B.

It reveals malware within web-based traffic.

C.

It protects users from social engineering.

D.

It identifies loT devices on the internet.

Question 7

Which technology grants enhanced visibility and threat prevention locally on a device?

Options:

A.

EDR

B.

IDS

C.

SIEM

D.

DLP

Question 8

Which of the following is a Routed Protocol?

Options:

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

C.

Internet Protocol (IP)

D.

Domain Name Service (DNS)

Question 9

Which tool's analysis data gives security operations teams insight into their environment's risks from exposed services?

Options:

A.

IIDP

B.

IAM

C.

SIM

D.

Xpanse

Question 10

Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability.

Options:

Question 11

What should a security operations engineer do if they are presented with an encoded string during an incident investigation?

Options:

A.

Save it to a new file and run it in a sandbox.

B.

Run it against VirusTotal.

C.

Append it to the investigation notes but do not alter it.

D.

Decode the string and continue the investigation.

Question 12

Match the Palo Alto Networks WildFire analysis verdict with its definition.

Options:

Question 13

What is a key method used to secure sensitive data in Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) applications?

Options:

A.

Allow downloads to managed devices but block them from unmanaged devices.

B.

Allow downloads to both managed and unmanaged devices.

C.

Leave data security in the hands of the cloud service provider.

D.

Allow users to choose their own applications to access data.

Question 14

Which type of portable architecture can package software with dependencies in an isolated unit?

Options:

A.

Containerized

B.

Serverless

C.

Air-gapped

D.

SaaS

Question 15

When does a TLS handshake occur?

Options:

A.

Before establishing a TCP connection

B.

Only during DNS over HTTPS queries

C.

After a TCP handshake has been established

D.

Independently of HTTPS communications

Question 16

What differentiates Docker from a bare metal hypervisor?

Options:

A.

Docker lets the user boot up one or more instances of an operating system on the same host whereas hypervisors do not

B.

Docker uses more resources than a bare metal hypervisor

C.

Docker is more efficient at allocating resources for legacy systems

D.

Docker uses OS-level virtualization, whereas a bare metal hypervisor runs independently from the OS

Question 17

Which of the Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) will detect zero-day malware by using inline cloud machine learning (ML) and sandboxing?

Options:

A.

DNS security

B.

Advanced WildFire

C.

loT security

D.

Advanced Threat Prevention

Question 18

In an IDS/IPS, which type of alarm occurs when legitimate traffic is improperly identified as malicious traffic?

Options:

A.

False-positive

B.

True-negative

C.

False-negative

D.

True-positive

Question 19

Which component of the AAA framework regulates user access and permissions to resources?

Options:

A.

Authorization

B.

Allowance

C.

Accounting

D.

Authentication

Question 20

Which technique uses file sharing or an instant messenger client such as Meebo running over Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)?

Options:

A.

Use of non-standard ports

B.

Hiding within SSL encryption

C.

Port hopping

D.

Tunneling within commonly used services

Question 21

Which option describes the “selective network security virtualization” phase of incrementally transforming data centers?

Options:

A.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled

B.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is forwarded to a Web proxy server

C.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is encapsulated and encrypted using the IPSEC protocol

D.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is load balanced

Question 22

Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?

Options:

A.

STIX

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

WildFire

D.

AutoFocus

Question 23

Which two descriptions apply to an XDR solution? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It employs machine learning (ML) to identity threats.

B.

It is designed for reporting on key metrics for cloud environments.

C.

It ingests data from a wide spectrum of sources.

D.

It is focused on single-vector attacks on specific layers of defense.

Question 24

Which next-generation firewall (NGFW) deployment option provides full application visibility into Kubernetes environments?

Options:

A.

Virtual

B.

Container

C.

Physical

D.

SASE

Question 25

Which type of attack includes exfiltration of data as a primary objective?

Options:

A.

Advanced persistent threat

B.

Denial-of-service (DoS)

C.

Watering hole attack

D.

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

Question 26

Which architecture model uses virtual machines (VMs) in a public cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Kubernetes

B.

Serverless

C.

Docker

D.

Host-based

Question 27

What type of area network connects end-user devices?

Options:

A.

Wide Area Network (WAN)

B.

Campus Area Network (CAN)

C.

Local Area Network (LAN)

D.

Personal Area Network (PAN)

Question 28

Which two processes are critical to a security information and event management (SIEM) platform? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Detection of threats using data analysis

B.

Automation of security deployments

C.

Ingestion of log data

D.

Prevention of cvbersecurity attacks

Question 29

Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?

Options:

A.

Lateral movement within a cloud or data center

B.

An internal three-tier application

C.

Client-server interactions that cross the edge perimeter

D.

Traffic between an internal server and internal user

Question 30

In which type of Wi-Fi attack does the attacker intercept and redirect the victim’s web traffic to serve content from a web server it controls?

Options:

A.

Evil Twin

B.

Emotet

C.

Meddler-in-the-middle

D.

Jasager

Question 31

Which attacker profile acts independently or as part of an unlawful organization?

Options:

A.

cybercriminal

B.

cyberterrorist

C.

state-affiliated group

D.

hacktivist

Question 32

Which capability does Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) provide for threat detection within Prisma Cloud?

Options:

A.

Real-time protection from threats

B.

Alerts for new code introduction

C.

Integration with threat feeds

D.

Continuous monitoring of resources

Question 33

Which action is unique to the security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR) platforms?

Options:

A.

Prioritizing alerts

B.

Enhancing data collection

C.

Using predefined workflows

D.

Correlating incident data

Question 34

Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?

Options:

A.

ransomware

B.

Trojan horse

C.

virus

D.

worm

Question 35

An administrator finds multiple gambling websites in the network traffic log.

What can be created to dynamically block these websites?

Options:

A.

URL category

B.

Custom signatures

C.

Decryption policy

D.

Application group

Question 36

Which two statements apply to SaaS financial botnets? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They are larger than spamming or DDoS botnets.

B.

They are sold as kits that allow attackers to license the code.

C.

They are a defense against spam attacks.

D.

They are used by attackers to build their own botnets.

Question 37

Layer 4 of the TCP/IP Model corresponds to which three Layer(s) of the OSI Model? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Application

C.

Session

D.

Transport

E.

Presentation

Question 38

Which feature is part of an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

Options:

A.

API-based coverage of apps

B.

Automated security actions

C.

Protection of data at rest

D.

Real-time web filtering

Question 39

You have been invited to a public cloud design and architecture session to help deliver secure east west flows and secure Kubernetes workloads.

What deployment options do you have available? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

PA-Series

B.

VM-Series

C.

Panorama

D.

CN-Series

Question 40

In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?

Options:

A.

Cortex XDR

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMild

D.

Cortex XSOAR

Question 41

What are two advantages of security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Completely isolated system

B.

Scripting of manual tasks

C.

Consistent incident handling

D.

Long-term retention of logs

Question 42

Which statement describes the process of application allow listing?

Options:

A.

It allows only trusted files, applications, and processes to run.

B.

It creates a set of specific applications that do not run on the system.

C.

It encrypts application data to protect the system from external threats.

D.

It allows safe use of applications by scanning files for malware.

Question 43

Which security component can detect command-and-control traffic sent from multiple endpoints within a corporate data center?

Options:

A.

Personal endpoint firewall

B.

Port-based firewall

C.

Next-generation firewall

D.

Stateless firewall

Question 44

Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology.

Options:

Question 45

What type of DNS record maps an IPV6 address to a domain or subdomain to another hostname?

Options:

A.

SOA

B.

NS

C.

AAAA

D.

MX

Question 46

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?

Options:

A.

dynamic computing

B.

identity security

C.

compute security

D.

network protection

Question 47

If an endpoint does not know how to reach its destination, what path will it take to get there?

Options:

A.

The endpoint will broadcast to all connected network devices.

B.

The endpoint will not send the traffic until a path is clarified.

C.

The endpoint will send data to the specified default gateway.

D.

The endpoint will forward data to another endpoint to send instead.

Question 48

How can local systems eliminate vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Patch systems and software effectively and continuously.

B.

Create preventative memory-corruption techniques.

C.

Perform an attack on local systems.

D.

Test and deploy patches on a focused set of systems.

Question 49

What are two functions of User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) data in Prisma Cloud CSPM? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Assessing severity levels

B.

Identifying misconfigurations

C.

Unifying cloud provider services

D.

Detecting and correlating anomalies

Question 50

What is the definition of a zero-day threat?

Options:

A.

The amount of time it takes to discover a vulnerability and release a security fix

B.

The period between the discovery of a vulnerability and development and release of a patch

C.

The day a software vendor becomes aware of an exploit and prevents any further hacking

D.

A specific day during which zero threats occurred

Question 51

What are two key characteristics of a Type 1 hypervisor? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

is hardened against cyber attacks

B.

runs without any vulnerability issues

C.

runs within an operating system

D.

allows multiple, virtual (or guest) operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical host computer

Question 52

Which network analysis tool can be used to record packet captures?

Options:

A.

Smart IP Scanner

B.

Wireshark

C.

Angry IP Scanner

D.

Netman

Question 53

In which phase of the cyberattack lifecycle do attackers establish encrypted communication channels back to servers across the internet so that they can modify their attack objectives and methods?

Options:

A.

exploitation

B.

actions on the objective

C.

command and control

D.

installation

Question 54

Which of the following is a CI/CD platform?

Options:

A.

Github

B.

Jira

C.

Atom.io

D.

Jenkins

Question 55

Which Palo Alto Networks subscription service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next- generation firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites hosting malware and phishing pages?

Options:

A.

Threat Prevention

B.

DNS Security

C.

WildFire

D.

URL Filtering

Question 56

Which characteristic of serverless computing enables developers to quickly deploy application code?

Options:

A.

Uploading cloud service autoscaling services to deploy more virtual machines to run their application code based on user demand

B.

Uploading the application code itself, without having to provision a full container image or any OS virtual machine components

C.

Using cloud service spot pricing to reduce the cost of using virtual machines to run their application code

D.

Using Container as a Service (CaaS) to deploy application containers to run their code.

Question 57

Match the Identity and Access Management (IAM) security control with the appropriate definition.

Options:

Question 58

Based on how much is managed by the vendor, where can CaaS be situated in the spread of cloud computing services?

Options:

A.

between PaaS and FaaS

B.

between IaaS and PaaS

C.

between On-Prem and IaaS

D.

between FaaS and Serverless

Question 59

Which statement describes a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS)?

Options:

A.

It analyzes network traffic to detect unusual traffic flows and new malware.

B.

It scans a Wi-Fi network for unauthorized access and removes unauthorized devices.

C.

It is placed as a sensor to monitor all network traffic and scan for threats.

D.

It is installed on an endpoint and inspects the device.

Question 60

In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Initial Research

B.

Change Control

C.

Content Engineering

D.

Breach Response

Question 61

Which methodology does Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR) use?

Options:

A.

Behavior analysis

B.

Comparison of alerts to signatures

C.

Manual inspection of user activities

D.

Rule-based activity prioritization

Question 62

Which network device breaks networks into separate broadcast domains?

Options:

A.

Hub

B.

Layer 2 switch

C.

Router

D.

Wireless access point

Question 63

Which NGFW feature is used to provide continuous identification, categorization, and control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications?

Options:

A.

User-ID

B.

Device-ID

C.

App-ID

D.

Content-ID

Question 64

Which two services does a managed detection and response (MDR) solution provide? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Improved application development

B.

Incident impact analysis

C.

Periodic firewall updates

D.

Proactive threat hunting

Question 65

What does SOAR technology use to automate and coordinate workflows?

Options:

A.

algorithms

B.

Cloud Access Security Broker

C.

Security Incident and Event Management

D.

playbooks

Question 66

Which statement describes DevOps?

Options:

A.

DevOps is its own separate team

B.

DevOps is a set of tools that assists the Development and Operations teams throughout the softwaredelivery process

C.

DevOps is a combination of the Development and Operations teams

D.

DevOps is a culture that unites the Development and Operations teams throughout the software delivery process

Question 67

Which two workflows are improved by integrating SIEMs with other security solutions? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Hardware procurement

B.

Log normalization

C.

Initial security team training

D.

Incident response

Question 68

What differentiates knowledge-based systems from behavior-based systems?

Options:

A.

Behavior-based systems find the data that knowledge-based systems store.

B.

Knowledge-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes “bad”. C. Knowledge-based systems try to find new, distinct traits to find “bad” things.

C.

Behavior-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes “bad”.

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Total 227 questions