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OCEG GRCP GRC Professional Certification Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 212 questions

GRC Professional Certification Exam Questions and Answers

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Question 1

What does it mean for an organization to "reliably achieve objectives" as part of Principled Performance?

Options:

A.

It means achieving short-term goals regardless of the impact on long-term success.

B.

It means having measurable outcomes.

C.

It means achieving mission, vision, and balanced objectives thoughtfully, consistently, dependably, and transparently.

D.

It means always achieving profitability targets and maximizing shareholder value.

Question 2

What is the term used to describe a measure that estimates the likelihood and impact of an event?

Options:

A.

Consequence

B.

Effect

C.

Condition

D.

Cause

Question 3

What is the relationship between the internal context and the culture of an organization within the LEARN component?

Options:

A.

The internal context and culture determine the organization's financial performance.

B.

The internal context and culture describe the capabilities and resources used to meet stakeholder needs.

C.

The internal context and culture define the organization's risk appetite and tolerance levels.

D.

The internal context and culture outline the organization's compliance requirements.

Question 4

How does assurance help management and stakeholders gain confidence?

Options:

A.

It ensures policies and procedures meet regulatory standards

B.

It ensures financial statements are accurate and free from misstatements

C.

It helps identify and mitigate potential risks and threats to the organization

D.

It verifies that what stakeholders believe is happening, is actually happening

Question 5

In the context of assurance activities, what does the term "assurance objectivity" refer to?

Options:

A.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can adhere to industry standards and best practices in performing audits.

B.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can provide accurate and reliable information to stakeholders on which they can form an opinion about the subject matter themselves.

C.

The degree to which an Assurance Provider can be impartial, disinterested, independent, and free to conduct necessary activities to form an opinion about the subject matter.

D.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can minimize costs and maximize efficiency in performing audits.

Question 6

How can an organization ensure that notifications are handled by the right organizational units?

Options:

A.

By establishing a single point for referral regardless of the topic or type

B.

By prioritizing, substantiating, validating, and routing notifications based on topic, type, and severity

C.

By disregarding any notifications that do not meet specific criteria or thresholds so the remainder can be more efficiently routed

D.

By requiring that all notifications be reviewed by the general counsel before any action is taken

Question 7

A statement about what the organization stands for is best labeled as the:

Options:

A.

Values

B.

Vision

C.

Outcome

D.

Mission

Question 8

How is the efficiency of the LEARN component measured in terms of the use of capital?

Options:

A.

By measuring changes in the organization's market share and competitive position.

B.

By evaluating the return on investment from undertaking LEARN activities.

C.

By assessing the efficiency of using financial, physical, human, and information capital to learn.

D.

By analyzing the organization's budget allocation and resource utilization.

Question 9

In the context of GRC, what is the importance of aligning objectives throughout the organization?

Options:

A.

It ensures that superior-level objectives cascade to subordinate units and that subordinate units contribute to the most important objectives and priorities of the organization.

B.

It enables the governing authority to only focus on the highest-level objectives that are tied to financial outcomes.

C.

It frees the organization to focus solely on short-term financial performance.

D.

It eliminates the need for excessive communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization.

Question 10

What is the role of indicators in measuring progress toward objectives?

Options:

A.

Indicators are used to determine if the objectives must be changed in response to changes in the external or internal context.

B.

Indicators measure quantitative or qualitative progress toward an objective.

C.

Indicators are used to evaluate the appropriateness of the organization’s selection of objectives.

D.

Indicators are used to calculate the return on investment for various projects and initiatives.

Question 11

What is the role of assurance actions and controls in the IACM?

Options:

A.

They are focused on identifying and punishing non-compliant behavior within the organization

B.

They are used to evaluate the management and governance controls with regard to achieving financial objectives

C.

They provide additional information beyond management and governance actions and controls to evaluate subject matter

D.

They are limited to financial audits and do not address other aspects of performance, risk, and compliance

Question 12

How are Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), Key Risk Indicators (KRIs), and Key Compliance Indicators (KCIs) used?

Options:

A.

KPIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about performance related to an objective; KRIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about risk related to an objective; KCIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about compliance related to an objective

B.

KPIs are financial metrics, KRIs are operational metrics, and KCIs are customer-related metrics, all of which are used to determine executive bonuses

C.

KPIs are long-term goals, KRIs are short-term goals, and KCIs are intermediate goals, all of which are used to determine what decision-making criteria is required

D.

KPIs are used to measure the efficiency of business processes; KRIs are used to assess the risk assessment processes; and KCIs are used to evaluate the impact of changes, regulations and other obligations

Question 13

What is the difference between a mission and a vision?

Options:

A.

The mission states the organization’s purpose and direction, while the vision is an aspirational objective that states what the organization aspires to be.

B.

The mission is determined by external stakeholders, while the vision is determined by internal stakeholders.

C.

The mission is a short-term financial goal, while the vision is a long-term non-financial goal.

D.

The mission is what a for-profit organization should have, while the vision is for non-profit organizations.

Question 14

In the context of GRC, which is the best description of the role of governance in an organization?

Options:

A.

Developing marketing strategies and driving sales growth to meet objectives established by the governing body

B.

Indirectly guiding, controlling, and evaluating an entity by constraining and conscribing resources

C.

Conducting audits and providing assurance on the effectiveness of controls

D.

Implementing operational processes and overseeing day-to-day activities

Question 15

What is the term used to describe a measure that estimates the consequence of an event?

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Consequence

C.

Likelihood

D.

Cause

Question 16

Why is it important for an organization to balance the needs of diverse stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To prevent stakeholders from forming alliances against the organization.

B.

To ensure that all stakeholders receive equal consideration.

C.

To comply with industry regulations regarding stakeholder management.

D.

To address the requests, wants, or expectations of stakeholders and inform the mission, vision, and objectives of the organization.

Question 17

Why is monitoring important in the context of the REVIEW component?

Options:

A.

Because it generates financial reports for stakeholders.

B.

Because it contributes to employee performance evaluations.

C.

Because it is a required task for external regulatory compliance.

D.

Because it helps management and the governing authority understand progress toward objectives and whether opportunities, obstacles, and obligations are addressed.

Question 18

What are the two dimensions that drive an organization's engagement with stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Compliance and Ethics

B.

Interest and Power

C.

Push and Pull

D.

Internal and External

Question 19

Which category of actions & controls in the IACM includes formal statements and rules about organizational intentions and expectations?

Options:

A.

Information

B.

People

C.

Technology

D.

Policy

Question 20

In the IACM, what is the role of Promote/Enable Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To increase the likelihood of favorable events

B.

To establish clear lines of communication within the organization

C.

To set performance metrics for all actions and controls

D.

To establish and enable controls that mitigate potential security threats

Question 21

What should be done with information and findings obtained from all pathways in the context of inquiry?

Options:

A.

Discarding information that is not directly related to compliance

B.

Focusing solely on findings related to unfavorable events

C.

Sharing all findings with external stakeholders and the public

D.

Analysis of information and findings to identify, prioritize, and route findings to management and stakeholders

Question 22

In the Lines of Accountability Model, what is the role of the Second Line?

Options:

A.

Individuals and Teams who are responsible for financial reporting and budgeting activities within the organization.

B.

Individuals and Teams who establish performance, risk, and compliance programs for the First Line and provide oversight through frameworks, standards, policies, tools, and techniques.

C.

Individuals and Teams who manage external relationships with stakeholders, investors, and regulators.

D.

Individuals and Teams who provide legal advice and support to the organization in case of disputes or litigation.

Question 23

What is the process of validating direction within an organization?

Options:

A.

Conducting a SWOT analysis to identify the organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

B.

Communicating, negotiating, and finalizing direction with other organizational levels/units.

C.

Conducting a comprehensive audit of the organization’s financial records to ensure they are showing movement in the right direction.

D.

Implementing a performance management system to evaluate employee performance and alignment to established direction.

Question 24

What should be avoided to maintain the integrity of the inquiry process?

Options:

A.

Any inquiries that require identification of the respondent

B.

Any automated analysis of information and findings

C.

Any actual or perceived connection between inquiry responses and individual performance appraisals

D.

Any use of technology-based inquiry methods

Question 25

What is the role of compliance management systems and key compliance indicators (KCIs) in an organization?

Options:

A.

To deliver compliance training to employees

B.

To measure the degree to which obligations and requirements are addressed

C.

To ensure adherence to ethical standards and codes of conduct

D.

To monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of internal controls and procedures

Question 26

Which are some considerations to keep in mind when establishing a communication framework?

Options:

A.

Reducing the frequency of communication to avoid information overload.

B.

Selecting the appropriate sender, recipient, intention, message, cadence, and channel.

C.

Ensuring external communications are always formal while most internal communication can be more informal.

D.

Using only one communication channel for all types of messages so that sending and receipt can be tracked.

Question 27

What does it mean for an organization's GRC practices to be at Level 3 in the Maturity Model?

Options:

A.

Practices are formally documented and consistently managed, ensuring that the team follows documented practices and maintains learner records

B.

Practices are measured and managed with data-driven evidence, generating enough data and indicators to judge the effectiveness

C.

Practices are consistently improved over time, with the team demonstrating continuous improvement in GRC capabilities

D.

Practices are improvised, ad hoc, and often chaotic, with no formal documentation but they are similar in design

Question 28

How does the GRC Capability Model define the term "enterprise"?

Options:

A.

The enterprise is the most superior unit that encompasses the entirety of the organization.

B.

The enterprise refers to the organization's sales and distribution channels.

C.

The enterprise refers to the organization's information technology infrastructure and systems.

D.

The enterprise refers to a starship that boldly goes where no man has gone before.

Question 29

What is the purpose of proactively developing communication channels within an organization?

Options:

A.

To ensure that all communication is delivered in written form only.

B.

To ensure that the channels are available before they are needed.

C.

To formalize the process so that employees know that anything they communicate will be kept in records.

D.

To limit communication to a single channel for simplicity and cost savings.

Question 30

What considerations should be taken into account when protecting information associated with notifications?

Options:

A.

Allowing unrestricted access to notification and follow-up information by the notifier so that they can see the organization is responding appropriately

B.

Knowing that any legal or regulatory requirements related to data privacy do not apply to hotline reports

C.

Ensuring pathways comply with mandatory requirements in the locale where the notification originates and the organization operates

D.

Knowing that confidentiality and anonymity rights are the same thing

Question 31

Which of the following is most often responsible for balancing the competing needs of stakeholders and guiding, constraining, and conscribing the organization to achieve objectives reliably, address uncertainty, and act with integrity to meet these needs?

Options:

A.

A risk manager

B.

A general counsel

C.

A compliance unit

D.

A governing board

Question 32

What is the objective of improving actions and controls to address root causes and weaknesses associated with unfavorable events?

Options:

A.

To escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external.

B.

To provide incentives to employees for favorable conduct.

C.

To determine if, when, how, and what to disclose regarding unfavorable events.

D.

To ensure that future events of similar nature are less likely to occur and are less harmful.

Question 33

What is the primary purpose of assurance in an organization?

Options:

A.

To ensure that the organization complies with all industry-specific regulations

B.

To provide confidence to management, governing authorities, and stakeholders by objectively and competently evaluating subject matter

C.

To facilitate communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization

D.

To provide legal protection to the organization in case of disputes or litigation

Question 34

What is the term used to describe a cause that has the potential to eventually result in benefit?

Options:

A.

Venture

B.

Objective

C.

Prospect

D.

Target outcome

Question 35

In the IACM, what is the role of Prevent/Deter Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To decrease the likelihood of unfavorable events

B.

To identify areas in the organization where compliance issues may arise

C.

To promote collaboration and teamwork among employees

D.

To ensure compliance with industry-specific regulations

Question 36

What is the purpose of defining identification criteria?

Options:

A.

To establish the organizational hierarchy for decision-making

B.

To guide, constrain, and conscribe how opportunities, obstacles, and obligations are identified, categorized, and prioritized

C.

To create a list of potential stakeholders for communication purposes

D.

To determine the budget allocation for risk management activities

Question 37

What is the primary objective of Lean as a technique for improvement?

Options:

A.

To maximize profits and shareholder value

B.

To improve communication and collaboration

C.

To eliminate waste and increase efficiency

D.

To enhance customer satisfaction and loyalty

Question 38

What are some systems-based methods for conducting inquiries?

Options:

A.

Coordinating survey efforts throughout the organization

B.

Avoiding any connection between inquiry responses and performance appraisals

C.

Continuous control monitoring, log management, application performance monitoring, management dashboards

D.

Observations, meetings, focus groups, and individual conversations

Question 39

In the IACM, what are the two types of Proactive Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

Reactive Actions & Controls and Passive Actions & Controls

B.

Prevent/Deter Actions & Controls and Promote/Enable Actions & Controls

C.

Centralized Actions & Controls and Decentralized Actions & Controls

D.

Quantitative Actions & Controls and Qualitative Actions & Controls

Question 40

In the Lines of Accountability Model, what is the role of the First Line?

Options:

A.

Individuals and Teams who provide strategic direction and set organizational goals and objectives

B.

Individuals and Teams who own and manage performance, risk, and compliance associated with day-to-day operational activities

C.

Individuals and Teams who conduct audits and assessments to ensure compliance with regulations

D.

Individuals and Teams who oversee the implementation of policies and procedures across the organization

Question 41

How do GRC Professionals apply the concept of ‘maturity’ in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

GRC Professionals apply maturity only to the highest level of the GRC Capability Model.

B.

GRC Professionals apply maturity at all levels of the GRC Capability Model to assess preparedness to perform practices and support continuous improvement.

C.

GRC Professionals use maturity to evaluate the performance of individual employees.

D.

GRC Professionals use maturity to determine the budget allocation for GRC programs.

Question 42

What are key compliance indicators (KCIs) associated with?

Options:

A.

Number of non-compliance events investigated

B.

The level of employee training and understanding of requirements

C.

The impact of environmental and social initiatives

D.

The degree to which obligations and requirementsare addressed

Question 43

What is the purpose of implementing policies within an organization?

Options:

A.

To set clear expectations of conduct for key internal stakeholders and the extended enterprise.

B.

To meet regulatory requirements and establish compliance.

C.

To reduce the need for defined procedures and guidelines within the organization.

D.

To have individual regulation-specific policies instead of a generic Code of Conduct.

Question 44

What are some examples of economic incentives that can be used to encourage favorable conduct?

Options:

A.

Monetary compensation, bonuses, profit-sharing, and gain-sharing.

B.

Employee training, mentorship programs, and skills development.

C.

Flexible work hours, remote work options, and casual dress codes.

D.

Team-building activities, company retreats, and social events.

Question 45

What are beliefs, and how do they influence behavior within an organization?

Options:

A.

Beliefs are ideas and assumptions held by individuals or groups, often shaped by experiences and perceptions, that influence behavior by informing the values and principles that guide actions and decisions.

B.

Beliefs are the organization’s commitments to mandatory and voluntary obligations, and they influence behavior by determining the extent to which individuals fulfill obligations and honor promises.

C.

Beliefs are the organization’s understanding of its mission, vision, and values, and they influence behavior by aligning actions with the organization's higher purpose and long-term goals.

D.

Beliefs are the organization’s perceptions of risk and uncertainty, and they influence behavior by guiding actions and controls to address compliance-related risks.

Question 46

What is the importance of mapping objectives to one another within an organization?

Options:

A.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units shows how they impact one another and how resources may be best allocated

B.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for determining the compensation and bonuses of employees based on their contributions to achieving objectives

C.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for creating a visual representation of the organization’s hierarchy and reporting structure

D.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for identifying redundant objectives and eliminating them from the organization’s strategic plan

Question 47

In the LEARN component, what is the difference between external context and internal context?

Options:

A.

External context includes the organization's risk management policies, while internal context includes its compliance procedures

B.

External context represents the operating environment, while internal context represents capabilities and resources

C.

External context refers to the organization's financial performance, while internal context refers to its governance structure

D.

External context encompasses the organization's mission and vision, while internal context encompasses its values and culture

Question 48

In the Maturity Model, which level indicates that practices are evaluated and managed with data-driven evidence?

Options:

A.

Level 1 – Initial

B.

Level 2 – Managed

C.

Level 3 – Consistent

D.

Level 4 – Measured

Question 49

What practices are involved in analyzing and understanding an organization’s ethical culture?

Options:

A.

Developing a strategic plan to achieve the organization’s long-term goals for improving ethical culture

B.

Conducting a survey of employees every few years on their views about the organization’s commitment to ethical conduct

C.

Implementing a performance appraisal system to evaluate employee performance

D.

Analyzing the climate and mindsets about how the workforce generally demonstrates integrity

Question 50

How can inquiry be conceptualized in terms of information-gathering mechanisms?

Options:

A.

As a "pushing" mechanism where individuals push information to external sources.

B.

As a "pulling" mechanism where individuals pull information from people and systems for follow-up and action.

C.

As a mechanism that relies solely on technology-based tools.

D.

As a centralized process managed by a single department.

Question 51

What is the difference between reasonable assurance and limited assurance?

Options:

A.

Reasonable assurance is provided by external auditors as part of a financial audit and indicates conformity to suitable criteria and freedom from material error, while limited assurance results from reviews, compilations, and other activities performed by competent personnel who are sufficiently objective about the subject matter.

B.

Reasonable assurance is provided by internal auditors as part of a risk assessment, while limited assurance results from external audits and regulatory examinations.

C.

Reasonable assurance is provided by the Board of Directors as part of governance activities, while limited assurance results from employee self-assessments.

D.

Reasonable assurance is provided by management as part of strategic planning, while limited assurance results from operational reviews and performance evaluations.

Question 52

What are some considerations to keep in mind when attempting to influence an organization’s culture?

Options:

A.

Culture change requires long-term commitment, consistent modeling in both words and deeds, and reinforcement by leaders and the workforce.

B.

Culture change is not necessary as long as the organization is meeting its financial targets.

C.

Culture change can be achieved quickly through the implementation of new policies and procedures if there is adequate training provided.

D.

Culture change is solely dependent on the decisions made by the executive leadership team and how they model desired behavior.

Question 53

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to enhance stakeholder confidence and perform assessments?

Options:

A.

Audit & Assurance

B.

Security & Continuity

C.

Governance & Oversight

D.

Strategy & Performance

Question 54

What is the primary purpose of the ALIGN component in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

To coordinate the monitoring and evaluation of the organization's governance, risk, and compliance activities.

B.

To define the direction and objectives of an organization and design an integrated plan to address opportunities, obstacles, and obligations.

C.

To establish communication channels and provide education to stakeholders about how the organization aligns its business operations to their needs.

D.

To review and improve the organization’s policies and controls and ensure they are aligned to the operations of the business.

Question 55

How do organizations address opportunities and obstacles?

Options:

A.

Opportunities are addressed by expanding the product portfolio; obstacles are addressed by changing objectives

B.

Opportunities are addressed through aggressive marketing and sales strategies; obstacles are addressed through cost-cutting measures

C.

Opportunities are addressed using performance management systems and key performance indicators (KPIs); obstacles are addressed using risk management systems and key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Opportunities are addressed through decisions made at the unit or department level; obstacles are addressed at the governing body level

Question 56

How do assurance activities contribute to justified conclusions and confidence about total performance?

Options:

A.

By evaluating subject matter so that information consumers can trust what is stated or claimed

B.

By implementing new technologies and software systems

C.

By conducting market research and analyzing customer feedback

D.

By organizing team-building activities and workshops

Question 57

What does the initialism GRC stand for?

Options:

A.

Governing risk and compliance

B.

Governance, risk, and compliance

C.

Governance, risk, and controls

D.

Government, regulation, and controls

Question 58

How does applying a consistent process for improvement benefit the organization?

Options:

A.

It benefits the internal audit department

B.

It reduces the need for employee training

C.

It helps prioritize and execute across the organization

D.

It is not necessary and has no benefits

Question 59

In the context of the GRC Capability Model, what is culture defined as?

Options:

A.

A formal structure that is established by the leadership of an organization to ensure compliance with requirements, whether they are mandatory or voluntary obligations of the organization.

B.

An emergent property of a group of people caused by the interaction of individual beliefs, values, mindsets, and behaviors, and demonstrated by observable norms and articulated opinions.

C.

A set of written rules and guidelines that dictate the behavior of individuals within an organization.

D.

A collection of artifacts, symbols, and rituals that represent the history of an organization.

Question 60

How does budgeting for regular improvement activities contribute to capability maturation?

Options:

A.

It ensures that resources are available when opportunities to improve arise

B.

It increases the organization’s profitability and revenue

C.

It minimizes the risk of legal disputes and litigation

D.

It reduces the need for external audits and assessments

Question 61

In the context of the Maturity Model, what characterizes practices at Level I?

Options:

A.

Practices are improvised, ad hoc, and often chaotic.

B.

Practices are formally documented and consistently managed.

C.

Practices are measured and managed with data-driven evidence.

D.

Practices are consistently improved over time.

Question 62

In the IACM, what is the role of Correct/Recover Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To assess any damage done to the company from non-compliance

B.

To slow down or decrease the impact of unfavorable events and return the organization to its original, stable, or superior state after harm has occurred

C.

To ensure that all employees adhere to the company's code of conduct

D.

To ensure that unfavorable events do not affect the profitability of the organization

Question 63

What is the difference between an organization that is being "Good" and being a "Principled Performer"?

Options:

A.

An organization must measure up to the Principled Performance definition to be a "Principled Performer," regardless of whether its objectives are subjectively perceived or preferred as "Good" or "Bad."

B.

A "Principled Performer" always pursues objectives that are considered "Good" by society.

C.

There is no difference: "Good" and a "Principled Performer" are synonymous.

D.

A "Principled Performer" is an organization that donates a significant portion of its profits to charity.

Question 64

In the context of GRC, which is the best description of the role of assurance in an organization?

Options:

A.

Allocating financial resources and evaluating their use to manage the organization’s budget better.

B.

Providing the governing body with opinions on how well its objectives are being met based on expertise and experience.

C.

Designing and monitoring the organization’s information technology systems to be accurate and reliable so management can be assured of meeting established objectives.

D.

Objectively and competently evaluating subject matter to provide justified conclusions and confidence.

Question 65

The Critical Disciplines skills of Audit & Assurance help organizations through which of the following?

Options:

A.

Managing mergers and acquisitions, evaluating investment opportunities, conducting due diligence, and integrating acquired businesses

B.

Setting direction, setting objectives and indicators, identifying opportunities, aligning strategies, and managing systems

C.

Prioritizing assurance activities, planning and performing assessments, using testing techniques, and communicating to enhance confidence

D.

Identifying critical physical and digital assets, assessing related risks, addressing related risks, measuring and monitoring risks, and performing crisis response

Question 66

What is the purpose of implementing ongoing and periodic review activities?

Options:

A.

To eliminate the need for external audits.

B.

To reduce the overall cost of operations.

C.

To gauge the effectiveness, efficiency, responsiveness, and resilience of actions and controls.

D.

To have documentation for use in defending against enforcement or legal actions.

Question 67

In the context of uncertainty, what is the difference between likelihood and impact?

Options:

A.

Likelihood is the chance of an event occurring after controls are put in place, while impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences of the event

B.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact is the category or type of risk or reward from the event

C.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact is the location of the event within the organization

D.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences of the event

Question 68

What is the significance of ensuring the visibility of objectives across different levels of the organization?

Options:

A.

It showcases the achievements of the organization's leadership team

B.

It creates a competitive environment among different units within the organization

C.

It identifies underperforming employees and takes corrective action

D.

It allows for the coordination of activities

Question 69

What are the four aspects of Total Performance that should be considered in monitoring activities?

Options:

A.

Effective (Sound), Efficient (Lean), Responsive (Agile), Resilient (Antifragile)

B.

Revenue, Profit, Market Share, Growth

C.

Quality, Quantity, Timeliness, Accuracy

D.

Leadership, Communication, Collaboration, Innovation

Question 70

How do mission, vision, and values work together to describe an organization's highest purpose?

Options:

A.

The mission describes the organization's reason for existing; the vision describes the organization's plans for the next few years; and values describe the organization's performance evaluation criteria.

B.

The mission describes who the organization serves, what it does, and its goals; the vision describes what the organization aspires to be and why it matters; and values describe what the organization believes and stands for. Together, they define the organization's highest purpose.

C.

The mission describes the organization's financial targets, the vision describes the organization's marketing strategy, and the values describe the organization's pricing model.

D.

The mission outlines the organization's legal obligations, the vision outlines the organization's ideas about meeting those obligations, and the values outline the organization's code of conduct.

Question 71

What are leading indicators and lagging indicators?

Options:

A.

Leading indicators are types of input from leaders in each unit of the organization, while lagging indicators are views provided by departing employees during exit interviews.

B.

Leading indicators are financial metrics, while lagging indicators are non-financial metrics.

C.

Leading indicators are qualitative measures, while lagging indicators are quantitative measures.

D.

Leading indicators provide information about future events or conditions, while lagging indicators provide information about past events or conditions.

Question 72

In which organizational departments do Protectors typically advise and work?

Options:

A.

Supply chain, logistics, and procurement

B.

Research and development, engineering, and production

C.

Board, strategy, risk, compliance, ethics, human resources, legal, security, quality, internal control, and audit

D.

Sales, marketing, finance, and customer service

Question 73

In the context of assurance activities, what is meant by the term "subject matter"?

Options:

A.

Financial statements and accounting records

B.

Identifiable statements, conditions, events, or activities for which there is evidence

C.

Policies, procedures, and guidelines

D.

Training programs, workshops, and seminars

Question 74

Who are key external stakeholders that may significantly influence an organization?

Options:

A.

Distributors, resellers, and franchisees.

B.

Competitors, employees, and board members.

C.

Marketing agencies, legal advisors, and auditors.

D.

Customers, shareholders, creditors and lenders, government, and non-governmental organizations.

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Total 212 questions