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Nokia 4A0-C02 Nokia SRA Composite Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 639 questions

Nokia SRA Composite Exam Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Which of the following regarding BGP Path Identifier is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Path-ID is a four-octet identifier pre-pended to the NLRI field of a BGP update.

B.

Path-ID is an optional transitive attribute used to advertise multiple paths.

C.

Path-ID uniquely identifies each path advertised to a neighbor.

D.

A BGP speaker that re-advertises a route must generate its own Path-ID.

Question 2

Which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

There can only be one community associated with a route.

B.

Community is an optional non-transitive attribute.

C.

Community is an optional transitive attribute.

D.

Community is a well-known discretionary attribute.

Question 3

Click the exhibit.

Assuming router A is configured with "next-hop-self", what does the BGP update for prefix 192.168.0.1/27 contain when it arrives at router B?

Options:

A.

AS Path of 65200 65100, Next Hop of router A.

B.

AS Path of 65200 65100, Next Hop of router E.

C.

AS Path of 65100, Next Hop of router A.

D.

AS Path of 65100, Next Hop of router E.

Question 4

Click the exhibit.

Router R1 is a route reflector with clients R2, R5 and R6. Prefixes advertised by router R5 have a local preference of 200. Router R3 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R5 and R6.

Assuming that router R6 is configured with "advertise-external", what is the expected output of "show router bgp routes" when executed on router R5?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 5

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a route from an eBGP peer without a MED. What MED value is sent to iBGP peers?

Options:

A.

100

B.

250

C.

The IGP cost

D.

None

Question 6

Which of the following is TRUE if the state of one BGP neighbor shows Active?

Options:

A.

The neighbor will send a Keepalive message.

B.

The router is trying to initiate a TCP connection to that neighbor.

C.

The router received an Open message with the correct parameters.

D.

The router is actively exchanging updates with that neighbor.

Question 7

Which of the following is NOT a BGP message type?

Options:

A.

Route-Refresh

B.

OpenSent

C.

Notification

D.

Update

E.

Keepalive

Question 8

Which of the following regarding the TTL of a BGP message is TRUE?

Options:

A.

TTL is a well-known mandatory BGP attribute.

B.

The default TTL value of an eBGP message is 1, and 64 for an iBGP message.

C.

The default TTL value of an iBGP message can be modified using the multihop command.

D.

The default TTL value of an eBGP message can be modified using the "ttl-security" command.

Question 9

Which of the following is the minimum requirement for an AS to be considered multi-homed?

Options:

A.

A single connection to a single service provider.

B.

Two connections to a single service provider.

C.

Two connections to two different service providers.

D.

Multiple connections to different service providers.

Question 10

Which of the following commands would correctly configure the confederation AS number as 65200 with a member AS of 65202?

Options:

A.

config>router- confederation 65200 members 65202

B.

config>router>bgp= confederation 65200 members 65202

C.

config>router= confederation 65202 members 65200

D.

config>router>bgp= confederation 65202 members 65200

Question 11

Consider two Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SRs in AS 65540. Router R1 has system address 10.10.10.1, and router R2 has system address 10.10.10.2. Which of the following configurations on router R2 can establish a BGP session with router R1?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 12

Click the exhibit.

If router A originates a BGP route for prefix 192.168.0.1/27, what will the update contain when it reaches router B?

Options:

A.

AS Path of 65200, Next Hop of router A, Origin of IGP.

B.

AS Path of 65200, Next Hop of router A, Origin of incomplete.

C.

Null AS Path, Next Hop of router A, Origin of IGP.

D.

Null AS Path, Next Hop of router A, Origin of incomplete.

Question 13

Click the exhibit.

Routers RR1 are RR2 are redundant route reflectors for clients R3 and R4. Which of the following is a valid configuration on router RR1?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 14

Click the exhibit.

Over which BGP session will router B learn the 10.1.1.0/24 prefix?

Options:

A.

The session between router A and router B.

B.

The session between router C and router B.

C.

The session between router D and router B.

D.

Router B will learn the prefix over all of the sessions, then it will choose the best route.

Question 15

When implementing a BGP policy on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which of the following types of address space would a typical address plan need to cover?

Options:

A.

RIR assigned CIDR space.

B.

External client address space.

C.

Loopback or link addresses.

D.

External link addresses.

E.

All of the above.

Question 16

What kind of BGP attribute is the Local Preference?

Options:

A.

Optional transitive attribute.

B.

Optional non-transitive attribute.

C.

Well-known mandatory attribute.

D.

Well-known discretionary attribute.

Question 17

Which of the following is considered a best practice for BGP address planning?

Options:

A.

Advertising external networks into IGP.

B.

Using system addresses for setting up iBGP sessions.

C.

Exporting the networks associated with the external links of eBGP peers into BGP.

D.

Optimizing BGP route table by exporting IGP routes into BGP.

Question 18

Click the exhibit.

Router R3 is configured with an import policy to reject updates with an AS Path matching the regular expression ".+ 65540". Which of the following regarding updates originating in AS 65540 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Router R3 rejects all updates originating in AS 65540.

B.

Router R3 accepts updates received from router R1 and rejects updates transited through router R2.

C.

Router R3 accepts updates transited through router R2 and rejects updates received from router R1.

D.

Router R3 accepts updates from both routers R1 and R2.

Question 19

Click the exhibit.

AS 65100 is advertising 192.168.1.0/27 into BGP. Which of the following AS Paths would the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 contain when viewed on router R7?

Options:

A.

65206 65202 65100

B.

(65206 65202)65100

C.

(65204 65206 65202) 65100

D.

(65200) 65100

Question 20

Click the exhibit.

Router R1 is a route reflector with clients R2, R5 and R6. Prefixes advertised by router R5 have a local preference of 200. Router R3 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R5 and R6.

Assuming that none of the routers in AS 65540 is configured with "advertise-external", what is the expected output of "show router bgp routes" on router R5?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 21

Which of the following statements regarding BGP Fast Reroute is FALSE?

Options:

A.

BGP Fast Reroute is triggered by IGP events.

B.

The backup path is pre-computed and installed in the FIB.

C.

BGP Fast Reroute is independent of number of affected prefixes.

D.

BGP Fast Reroute uses the optimal path to the destination.

Question 22

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is configured with a policy to export directly-connected networks to BGP. Which of the following commands verifies that the export was successful?

Options:

A.

show router route-table

B.

show router bgp routes

C.

show router bgp routes hunt

D.

show router bgp neighbor received-routes

Question 23

Click the exhibit.

Router R1 is a route reflector with clients R2, R5 and R6. Prefixes advertised by router R5 have a local preference of 200. Router R3 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R5 and R6.

Assuming that router R6 is configured with "advertise-external", what is the expected output of "show router bgp routes" when executed on router R1?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 24

Which of the following regarding BGP confederations is FALSE?

Options:

A.

A confederation is a collection of Autonomous Systems advertised as a single AS number to BGP speakers outside the confederation.

B.

Each member AS must either maintain a full mesh of iBGP sessions, or use route reflection.

C.

Confederations can be used to subdivide ASs that have a large number of BGP speakers into smaller domains.

D.

A full mesh of intra-confederation eBGP sessions is required between the member ASs.

Question 25

How does the IEEE 802.1ag loopback function differently from the loopback feature in 802.3ah? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

Theloopbackfuntionin802.1ag is an intrusive test that will stop customer data.

B.

The loopback function of 802.lag is a non-intrusive "ping" sent from a MEP to a remote MEP or MIP.

C.

The loopback function in 802.3ah is an intrusive test that will loop customer data.

D.

The loopback function of 802.lag is an intrusive test that will "loop" all customer data back to the original sender.

Question 26

Click on the exhibit below.

Which port will become the alternate port?

Options:

A.

Bridge B 1/1/3

B.

Bridge B 1/1/2

C.

Bridge C 1/1/2

D.

Bridge C 2/1/1

E.

Bridge D 1/1/1

F.

Bridge D 1/1/3

G.

Bridge E 1/1/1

Question 27

What of the following is a key benefit of Active/Standby pseudowires?

Options:

A.

The MDU does not need to support MPLS.

B.

Can be used in ring networks of 4 or more nodes

C.

Does not require the use of a layer 2 loop prevention protocol such as RSTP

D.

The MDU does not have to be aware of the active/standby configuration

Question 28

Click on the exhibit below.

Given the following output what is the most likely reason the SDP binding is operationally down? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

The sdp id is different on the far-end.

B.

LDP is disabled on the far-end.

C.

The vc-id is different on the far-end.

D.

The mesh-sdp is missing on the far-end.

E.

The mesh-sdp is administratively shutdown on PEL

F.

There is an MTU mismatch.

Question 29

Click on the exhibit below.

The SAP on PE-A has been configured with dot1q encapsulation. The SAP on PE-B has been configured with qinq encapsulation. CE-A sends frames with a single tag of 100. The VLAN tag from CE-A must be passed transparently. CE-B is expecting a frame with a top tag of 200 and bottom tag of 100. Which of the following is the correct SAP id for PE-B?

Options:

A.

sap 1/1/1:200.100

B.

sap 1/1/1:200*

C.

sap 1/1/1:*

D.

sap 1/1/1:0*

Question 30

Which of the following functions must a PE router support when participating in a VPLS service? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

MAC learning

B.

Frame replication

C.

Frame fragmentation

D.

Frame forwarding

E.

Must discard frames with an unknown destination MAC

F.

MSTP

Question 31

Which of the following best describes the difference between VPWS and VPLS?

Options:

A.

Unlike VPLS. VPWS appears as a multi-hop network to the customers.

B.

Unlike VPLS, VPWS allows CEs that are member of the same service instance to communicate with each other as if they are connected via a bridged LAN.

C.

Unlike VPWS, VPLS allows customers to view the network as a routed network.

D.

Unlike VPWS, VPLS is a service where customer MAC addresses are learned.

Question 32

An l-VPLS is configured with a service id of 511. What will the value of the l-SID be assuming a default configuration?

Options:

A.

The 1-SID must be explicitly configured.

B.

The 1-SID only supports a range from 1 to 255.

C.

The 1-SID will default to 511 .the value of the service-id.

D.

Thel"SIDwilldefaultto131582, the value of the service-id + 131071.

Question 33

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the IEEE 802.3ah EFM standard?

Options:

A.

Discovery and auto-negotiation of OAM capabilities.

B.

Link monitoring via event notifications.

C.

Remote failure indication (RFI).

D.

Remote Loopback

E.

Latency and jitter across a service.

Question 34

Which OAM tool can be used to dynamically learn the MAC address of a CE device connected to a SAP within a VPLS service?

Options:

A.

oam mac-populate

B.

oam mac-ping

C.

oam mac-trace

D.

oam svc-ping

E.

oam cpe-ping

Question 35

What function in IEEE 802.1 ah helps to limit the amount of MAC addresses learned in the core?

Options:

A.

I-VPLS is configured in the core of the network with an l-MAC address. This l-MAC address is the only MAC learned in the core

B.

The B-VPLS and l-VPLS are configured in the edge. The B-VPLS is configured with a Backbone MAC and is the only MAC learned in the core

C.

Each SDP is configured with a Backbone MAC to hide customer MAC addresses in the core

D.

Each SAP is associated with a common l-MAC to hide customer MAC addresses in the core

Question 36

What action will be taken when an MPLS router receives a frame with a label that does not exist in the LFIB?

Options:

A.

The frame will be flooded.

B.

The frame will be discarded.

C.

The frame will be fragmented.

Question 37

Click on the exhibit below.

Which ports will become root ports? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

Bridge B 1/1/3

B.

Bridge B 1/1/2

C.

Bridge C 1/1/2

D.

Bridge C 2/1/1

E.

Bridge D 1/1/1

F.

Bridge D 1/1/3

G.

Bridge E 1/1/1

Question 38

The service mtu of a VPLS is set to 9100. What is the recommended MTU value that can be set for the access port assuming dot1q encapsulation?

Options:

A.

9100

B.

9104

C.

9108

D.

9122

E.

9126

Question 39

In Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol, a Backup Port is on the same switch as a Designated Port?

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 40

Which of the following features can be enabled to eliminate MAC instability when using policy-based forwarding to redirect traffic to a Layer 2 DPI device?

Options:

A.

discard-unknown

B.

mac-move

C.

disable-learning

D.

enable-mac-stability

Question 41

Click on the exhibit below.

Assume the port on CE-A is sending two tags, a top tag of 100 and a bottom tag of 500. PE-A is configured with a SAP id of 1/1/1:100.*. How should PE-B be configured if CE-B is expecting a top tag of 200 and a bottom tag of 500?

Options:

A.

PE-B will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:500*".

B.

PE-B will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:100*".

C.

PE-B will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:500.200".

D.

PE-B will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:200*".

Question 42

What is the MTU impact on the SDP path-mtu if fast reroute facilities-mode is implemented on the LSP?

Options:

A.

There will be no impact on the path-mtu.

B.

The path-mtu will decrease by4 bytes.

C.

The path-mtu will increase by 4 bytes.

D.

The path-mtu will decrease by 8 bytes.

E.

The path-mtu will increase by 8 bytes.

Question 43

Which of the following statements about Spanning Tree Protocol is true?

Options:

A.

The switch with the lowest priority becomes the root.

B.

The switch with the highest priority becomes the root.

C.

The switch with the lowest MAC address always becomes the root.

D.

The switch with the highest MAC address always becomes the root.

Question 44

Which of the following are required for an operational mesh-sdp binding for bidirectional traffic when signaling is enabled within the SDP? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

LDP must be enabled.

B.

RSVP must be enabled.

C.

An SDP must be configured on the far-end.

D.

Service MTU must match.

E.

SDP ID must match.

Question 45

MC-LAG provides link and node protection from an MDU to 3 or more PE devices.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 46

MAC explosion is best described as a large amount of MAC addresses being withdrawn and relearned?

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 47

Why is MAC explosion a factor to be considered when designing a large VPLS network? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

The time to relearn thousands of MAC addresses may result in excessive flooding or loss of packets.

B.

If the FDB reaches the limit, the router will discard frames.

C.

Discarding frames when the FDB limit is reached could deny SLA guarantees.

D.

It could take several seconds to relearn thousands of MAC addresses denying QoS/SLA guarantees.

Question 48

If a management VPLS is administratively disabled what will be the status of the associated user VPLS SAPs?

Options:

A.

Regular semantics will apply. It will be as if the SAP doesn't belong to a management VPLS.

B.

All user VPLS SAPs will be disabled/pruned.

C.

It is not possible to administratively disable a management VPLS.

D.

Spanning tree will be automatically enabled on the user VPLS SAPs.

Question 49

Click the exhibit.

The headquarter sites of VPRN 10 and VPRN 20 are part of an extranet VPRN. Which route targets should be exported under the VPRN 20 service on router R1?

Options:

A.

Target:65100:2 and target:65100:3

B.

Target:65100:1 and target:65100:2

C.

Target:65100:1 and target:65100:3

D.

Target:65100:1, target:65100:2 and target:65100:3

Question 50

Which method does the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR use for the allocation of VPRN labels?

Options:

A.

One label per route

B.

One label per next-hop

C.

One label per VRF

D.

One label per prefix

E.

One label per tunnel

Question 51

When configuring BGP as the PE-CE protocol on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, the configuration on the CE is done under the ____________ context and the PE configuration is under the ____________ context.

Options:

A.

Global, router

B.

Router, router

C.

Service, router

D.

Router, service

E.

Service, service

F.

Router, global

Question 52

Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the inner label is used to _______________.

Options:

A.

Identify the customer network on the egress PE

B.

Establish the LSPs between PE devices

C.

Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain

D.

Identify the customer network on the ingress PE

Question 53

Click the exhibit.

For the Inter-AS model B VPRN, which of the following about the inter-as-label output on ASBR1 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

ASBR1 includes label 131069 in the route update sent to ASBR2.

B.

ASBR1 includes label 131068 in the route update sent to ASBR2.

C.

ASBR1 includes label 131068 in the route update sent to PEL

D.

ASBR1 includes labels 131068 and 131069 in the route update sent to ASBR2.

Question 54

Click the exhibit.

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is to be configured as a core router that supports VPRNs using LDP as the transport protocol. Which of the following best describes this configuration?

Options:

A.

This configuration is correct and complete.

B.

This configuration is correct, but the interfaces must also be configured in the "configure router mpls" context.

C.

There is no configuration required for LDP in the core network.

D.

This configuration is correct but Targeted-LDP is also required.

Question 55

Which of the following is a characteristic of inter-AS model C VPRN?

Options:

A.

A data packet destined to a remote AS is encapsulated with three labels within the originating AS.

B.

The ASBR redistributes VPN-IPv4 updates to its ASBR eBGP peers.

C.

PE routers in different ASes exchange IPv4 routes directly between each other using eBGP.

D.

The advertising ASBR assigns a new label to the route before sending it via an MP-eBGP update to its ASBR peer.

Question 56

When a Service Provider offers VPRN services to its customers, which of the following functions are expected to be the responsibility of the Service Provider? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Distributing the customer generated labels between sites

B.

Distributing the customer routing information between

C.

Forwarding the customer originated data packets to the appropriate destination

D.

Forwarding the provider originated data packets to the appropriate customer site

E.

Providing secure layer 3 routing exchange between sites

Question 57

What are the two primary problems the service provider must consider when providing traditional Layer 3 VPN services using only a single common routing table in the provider core? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Memory exhaustion in the provider core

B.

Route leaking between the customer networks

C.

CPU utilization for route processing

D.

Unwanted packet forwarding between customer networks

Question 58

The policies shown below from the configuration of an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR have been created to implement an Extranet VPRN between the main sites of two separate VPRNs. How should these policies be applied?

Options:

A.

ample Policy should be applied as an export policy on the PE connected to the main site of Customer 1

B.

ample Policy 3 should be applied as an export policy on the PE connected to the main site of Customer 2

C.

ample Policy 3 should be applied as an export policy on both PEs connected to the main site of Customer 1 and the main site of Customer 2

D.

ample Policy should be applied as an export policy on both PEs connected to the main site of Customer 1 and the main site of Customer 2

E.

ample Policy should be applied as an export policy on all PEs connected to sites of Customer 1

Question 59

Click the exhibit.

According to the display, a BGP loop is detected for route 192.168.1.0/27. On which router is this command executed?

Options:

A.

CE1

B.

CE2

C.

PE1

D.

PE2

Question 60

Click the exhibit.

The displayed output is from an ASBR supporting an inter-AS model A VPRN. Which of the following statements about this output is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The neighbor shown is an ASBR router.

B.

The address family between the peers should be VPN-IPv4 instead of IPv4.

C.

The neighbor address cannot be the interface address 10.3.4.4.

D.

The omitted AS number under "BGP summary" must be equal to 64496.

Question 61

Click the exhibit.

For the PE hub and spoke VPRN, which communities should be imported under the VPRN service on PE2?

Options:

A.

"Spoke.Sites" and "Hub_Site"

B.

"Hub_Site"

C.

"Spoke_Sites"

D.

No communities should be imported

Question 62

Click the exhibit.

AS-override is configured on PE1 to eliminate the BGP loops. What is the expected AS-Path in the VPN-IPv4 route 64496:10:192.168.2.0/27 received by PE1?

Options:

A.

64496 64497

B.

64496

C.

64497

D.

64497 64497

Question 63

Click the exhibit.

All sites in the displayed network require Internet access. Route reflector 1(RR1) is used for Internet routes only and route reflector 2(RR2) is used for VPN routes only. Which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

BGP sessions between RR1 and PE routers support only the IPv4 address family.

B.

BGP sessions between RR2 and PE routers support only the VPN-IPv4 address family.

C.

RR2 establishes BGP sessions with PEL PE2 and PE3.

D.

RR1 establishes BGP sessions only with PE1 and PE2.

Question 64

Click the exhibit.

Which of the following best describes the output from the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

RSVP-TE has signaled a VPRN label.

B.

RSVP-TE has signaled both VPRN and LSP labels.

C.

MP-BGP has signaled both VPRN and LSP labels.

D.

MP-BGP has signaled a VPRN label.

Question 65

Click the exhibit.

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is to be configured as a PE router that supports VPRNs using LDP as the transport protocol. Which of the following best describes this configuration?

Options:

A.

This configuration is correct and complete.

B.

This configuration is correct, except that the system interface must be added.

C.

This configuration is correct, except that the interfaces facing the CE routers must be added.

D.

MPLS configuration is not required.

Question 66

Which command will display the Route Target associated to a specific prefix on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Show router bgp routes

B.

Show router bgp routes detail

C.

Show router route-table

D.

Show router route-table

E.

Either (b) or (d)

Question 67

Which command is required in the blank line to complete the configuration shown below on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Sap 1/1/1 create

B.

Sap 1/1/1 customer 10 create

C.

No shutdown

D.

Neighbor 192.168.1.2

Question 68

AVPLS spoke SDP is terminated on a VPRN service. The remote side of the spoke SDP is operationally * Down' with a flag of ' Service MTU Mismatch'. Which command can you use on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR to show the signaled operational VC-MTU?

Options:

A.

show service id base

B.

show router Idp bindings

C.

show service id sdp detail

D.

show service id vc-mtu

Question 69

Which of the following statements is true? Choose the best answer.

Options:

A.

A P router may forward customer packets to their destination without the presence of a route to that destination

B.

The ingress PE router may forward customer packets to their destination without the presence of a route to that destination

C.

The egress PE router may forward customer packets to their destination without the presence of a route to that destination

D.

Any provider core router (P or PE) may forward customer packets to their destination without the presence of a route to that destination

Question 70

A service provider core consists of 6 PE and 4 P routers. Assuming route reflection is not used, how many internal BGP sessions are required in the service provider network for a correct operation of VPRN services?

Options:

A.

1

B.

5

C.

15

D.

30

E.

45

Question 71

Click the exhibit.

For the inter-AS model B VPRN, which of the following is FALSE when CE2 sends an IP packet to 192.168.1.1?

Options:

A.

PE2 pushes one label on the IP packet and forwards it to ASBR2.

B.

ASBR2 forwards the IP packet with one label to ASBR1.

C.

ASBR1 forwards the IP packet with two labels to PEL

D.

PE1 forwards an unlabeled IP packet to CE1.

Question 72

Which of the following statements best describes the output from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR shown below?

Options:

A.

The BGP session from PE to P is not operational

B.

The BGP session between PEs is operational

C.

The BGP session between PE and CE is not operational

D.

The BGP session from PE to CE is operational

E.

The BGP session between PEs is not operational

Question 73

A service provider is using GRE for his transport tunnel on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR. How can traffic be marked as it traverses the service provider's network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Using dot1p bits of the 802.1q Ethernet frame header

B.

Using DSCP bits within the ToS field of the IP packet header.

C.

Using the IP precedence bits within the ToS field of the IP packet header.

D.

Using the CLP bit of the ATM cell header.

E.

Using the EXP bits of the MPLS transport label header.

Question 74

What is the maximum number of forwarding subclasses a forwarding class can have?

Options:

A.

3

B.

64

C.

72

D.

16

E.

56

Question 75

Click the exhibit button below. A network operator has configured the SAP-ingress policy below. Ping traffic is expected in queue 3. However, the network operator notices that all traffic is placed in queue 1. What is the most probable reason for this?

Options:

A.

The default forwarding class for all traffic, including ICMP, is BE, which is placed in queue 1.

B.

The SAP has been shut down.

C.

The IP-match criteria has been misconfigured for ICMP traffic.

D.

Queue 3 has no rate or CIR configured and thus cannot hold any packets.

E.

The SAP-ingress policy has not been applied to the SAP.

Question 76

If packets egressing a SAP do not match any criteria defined in the SAP-egress policy, which forwarding class will these packets be assigned to?

Options:

A.

The default forwarding class defined in the SAP-egress policy.

B.

The forwarding class inherited from network ingress classification.

C.

Best Effort.

D.

If there is no match, packets will be dropped.

Question 77

Based on queue usage, which of the following QoS-policies when combined will allow queue rates to be dynamically allocated? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The slope-policy

B.

The SAP-ingress policy

C.

The network-queue policy

D.

The scheduler-policy

E.

The network-policy

F.

The WRED-policy

G.

The arbitrator-policy

Question 78

Which of the following statements regarding policing and shaping on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR are TRUE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The larger the configured MBS value, the lower the amount of shaping performed.

B.

When policing is enabled on the SAP-ingress, all traffic is considered as in-profile.

C.

Setting the CIR to 1000 and the PIR to max will enable shapeless policing at 1 Mbps within the SAP-egress policy.

D.

Configuring MBS to equal CBS will disable shaping.

E.

Setting the CIR and PIR to equal values disables soft-policing.

Question 79

Which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The primary contributors to latency are distance, scheduling, and congestion.

B.

The weighted round robin scheduling algorithm will result in more delay for high priority traffic than the regular round robin algorithm.

C.

The round robin scheduling algorithm will result in less jitter for low priority traffic than a strict priority scheduler.

D.

Packet loss can be reduced by decreasing the amount of buffer space available to a queue.

E.

Latency can be reduced by increasing the amount of buffer space available to a queue.

Question 80

If traffic is destined to queue 5, which has a high-priority-only value of 0 in the network-queue policy, all out-of-profile packets will be dropped.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 81

Which of the following statements BEST describes the IntServ model?

Options:

A.

Has the ability to distinguish traffic in 32 different ways.

B.

Uses the RSVP protocol to create microflows through a network.

C.

Has the ability to manually configure foiwarding classes through a network.

D.

Uses the RSVP protocol to create macroflows through a network.

Question 82

WRED can be used to help avoid TCP slow-start synch problems.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 83

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the remarking of packets arriving on the network interface whose ToS-marking-state is set to trusted and remarking enabled on network egress? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Native IP Packets will not be remarked.

B.

Native IP Packets will be remarked.

C.

Packets associated with a VPRN service on an upstream node will not be remarked.

D.

Packets associated with an ES service on an upstream node will be remarked.

Question 84

Which of the following are categories of forwarding classes on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Real-time

B.

Assured

C.

Non-conforming

D.

High priority

E.

In-profile

Question 85

With hierarchical scheduling, up to ___________ tiers are supported on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.

Options:

A.

8

B.

3

C.

4

D.

5

E.

6

Question 86

Click the exhibit button below. Given that the slope-policy (below) has been enabled and applied on a network port, which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

All out-of-profile traffic will be dropped before any in-profile is dropped.

B.

The time average factor of 0 will discard all packets arriving in the shared buffer pool.

C.

When the shared buffer utilization reaches 51%, in-profile packets might be dropped.

D.

The highest probability with which an out-of-profile packet can be dropped is 20%.

E.

When an in-profile packet arrives and the shared buffer utilization is at 69%, the packet will have approximately a 60% likelihood of being discarded.

Question 87

On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, where can network-queue policies be applied? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

On the network egress port.

B.

On the SDP.

C.

On the access ingress port.

D.

On the egress MDA.

E.

On the SAP.

F.

On the ingress MDA.

Question 88

A queue is configured with the following attributes:

MBS = 10KB

CBS = 5KB

High-Priority-Only = 30%

Assume that there is no CBS overbooking and that the slope-policy is disabled. If the current queue depth is 8KB, what will happen to an in-profile packet arriving in the queue?

Options:

A.

It will be discarded because the high-priority-only threshold is exceeded.

B.

It will be queued but re-marked as "out-of-profile."

C.

It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool and remain "in-profile."

D.

It will be queued in the shared portion of the buffer pool but contend for shared buffer space with packets from other queues.

E.

It will be queued in the shared portion of the buffer pool but may be dropped if the buffer utilization exceeds the start-average value of the low slope.

Question 89

Which of the following statements about a Management VPLS is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Operates in transparent mode.

B.

Carries RSTP BPDUs only.

C.

Assigns RSTP state to other VPLS services.

D.

Allows load balancing among multiple management VPLS instances.

Question 90

Which of the following statements is considered best practice when changing a network policy that has been associated with an interface?

Options:

A.

The policy should be placed in a "shutdown" state before changes are made.

B.

A new network policy should be created and applied to the interface, overwriting the previous policy.

C.

The policy must first be removed from the interface, then modified and re-applied to the interface.

D.

Before the policy can be changed, it must be deleted with the no network qos command.

E.

Before any changes are made to the policy, all network interfaces where the policy is applied have to be shut down.

Question 91

When using an egress port scheduler, on which scheduling loop are orphaned queues serviced?

Options:

A.

Level 8 within CIR.

B.

Level 8 between CIR and PIR.

C.

Level 8, once all PIR is serviced.

D.

Level 1 within CIR.

E.

Level 1 between CIR and PIR.

F.

Level 1, once all PIR is serviced.

Question 92

Which of the following should be performed if a service provider does not want packets to make use of the shared buffer space when queued?

Options:

A.

Set the CBS to 0.

B.

Set the MBS equal to the CBS.

C.

Set the high-priority-only equal to the MBS.

D.

Set the MBS to 0.

E.

Set the high-priority-only to 0.

Question 93

Which of the following QoS functions does the slope-policy perform?

Options:

A.

Classification

B.

Marking

C.

Queuing

D.

Congestion management

E.

Scheduling

Question 94

Which of the following statements about standalone pokers and CFHP policers is FALSE?

Options:

A.

A standalone policer has no parent arbiter, while a CFHP pohlicer has a parent arbiter.

B.

A standalone policer has a fixed PIR rate, while a CFHP poker's PIR rate can be dynamically adjusted by its parent arbiter.

C.

Both standalone and CFHP policers use the FIR bucket to gain access to their fair share of the available bandwidth.

D.

Both standalone and CFHP policers use a policer output queue to store packets before they are forwarded.

Question 95

Which of the following is uniquely identified by the VPLS-ID in an LDP VPLS using Auto-Discovery^*

Options:

A.

VPLS switch identifier.

B.

VPLS service identifier.

C.

VPLS router identifier to all PEs.

D.

A locally unique VPLS service identifier.

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