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Nokia 4A0-C01 Nokia NRS II Composite Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 852 questions

Nokia NRS II Composite Exam Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Given the NSAP address of 49.0012.1234.1234.1234.00, what area does the IS-IS router reside in?

Options:

A.

49.0012.1234

B.

49.0012

C.

12.1234

D.

1234

E.

49.1234

Question 2

Graceful Restart is supported by what IGPs?

Options:

A.

RIPv1 and RIPv2

B.

OSPF

C.

IS-IS

D.

BGP

Question 3

What must be configured on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for RIP to advertise locally attached links?

Options:

A.

A policy statement within the router identifying what is to be advertised

B.

Access-lists denoting what is to be advertised

C.

Default metrics for each link

D.

A group and neighbor statement for each peer

Question 4

Which of the following commands can be used to display the number of SPF computations that have been performed on a router?

Options:

A.

show router ospf area

B.

show router ospf neighbor

C.

show router ospf interface

D.

show router ospf status

Question 5

An operator configures an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR with a loopback interface and IPv6 address. The operator then configures a routing policy to redistribute the loopback prefix into OSPFv3. What type of LSA is used to advertise the route to other OSPFv3 routers in the same area?

Options:

A.

Router LSA

B.

AS External LSA

C.

Intra-Area Prefix LSA

D.

Inter-Area Prefix LSA

E.

Network LSA

F.

None of the statements are correct.

Question 6

Static routing will be used in a network between a corporate head office, with many connected networks, and a branch office, with one connection to the head office. Which of the following best describes the likely configuration?

Options:

A.

The corporate head office router will have a default route and the branch site will have a more specific static route.

B.

The corporate head office router and the branch office router will both have specific static routes.

C.

The corporate head office router and the branch router will both have default routes.

D.

The corporate head office router will have a more specific static route and the branch office router will have a default route.

Question 7

What address is used when RIPv2 uses multicast to send its updates?

Options:

A.

224.0.0.5

B.

224.0.0.6

C.

224.0.0.9

D.

224.0.0.10

E.

RIPv2 does not have support for multicast

Question 8

NSSA LSA packets are what type within an NSSA area, and are converted to what other type at the ABR?

Options:

A.

They are type 7 within the area and are not modified at the ABR

B.

They are type 5 within the area and converted to type 3 at the ABR

C.

They are type 5 within the area and are not modified at the ABR

D.

They are type 7 within the area and converted to type 5 at the ABR

Question 9

What are some of the characteristics of Alcatel-Lucent's implementation of non-stop routing? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

No protocol extensions required

B.

Only supported by OSPF and IS-IS

C.

Transparent to routing neighbors

D.

Uses Graceful Restart to inter-operate with other vendors

Question 10

What is the value of the protocol discriminator used to denote IS-IS protocol information?

Options:

A.

89

B.

87

C.

85

D.

83

Question 11

An OSPF ASBR must have at least one interface in the backbone area (area 0)

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 12

Which of the following statements regarding the election of the designated router (DR) by OSPF routers are true? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The router with the lowest priority is the DR.

B.

The router with the highest priority is the DR.

C.

If priorities are the same, the DR is chosen based on the lowest RID.

D.

If priorities are the same, the DR is chosen based on the highest RID.

Question 13

Refer to the exhibit below.

R1 distributes its loopbacks into IS-IS and globally routed addresses are configured as shown. How many routes will R4 have in its IPv6 route table?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

E.

6

F.

7

Question 14

Which type of IS-IS router is summarization most likely to be configured on?

Options:

A.

L1 routers

B.

L2 routers

C.

L1/L2 routers

D.

L1 and L2 routers

Question 15

What command is used on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR to define the default action to be taken if a packet does not match any entry in an IP filter?

Options:

A.

config>filter# default-action XXX

B.

config>filter>ip-filter# default-action XXX

C.

config>filter# default-mode XXX

D.

config>filter>ip-filter# default-mode XXX

Question 16

Which of the following statements describe the major features of OSPF? Choose two answers.

Options:

A.

Fast reroute capability

B.

Control traffic prioritization

C.

Route redistribution

D.

Traffic engineering extensions

E.

Cut through forwarding

Question 17

A static route is created using the command "static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 3.3.3.1". What command could be used to test the static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Ping static 3.3.3.1

B.

Ping static 0.0.0.0/0

C.

Ping 3.3.3.1

D.

Ping 0.0.0.0

Question 18

There is an IP host with IP address 10.2.3.1. A static route is created, using the "configure router static-route 10.2.3.0/24 next-hop 10.1.2.1" command. What is the correct traceroute command to test this static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

traceroute 10.2.3.1

B.

traceroute 10.2.3.1 next-hop 10.1.2.1

C.

traceroute next-hop 10.1.2.1

D.

traceroute does not work on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.

E.

traceroute 10.1.2.1

Question 19

Which of the statements below best describes the pseudonode in an IS-IS network?

Options:

A.

The DIS creates a logical node to represent a group of routers on the same non-broadcast network; this node is the pseudonode

B.

The DIS creates a logical node to represent the topological database of the backbone network in an IS-IS network; this node is the pseudonode

C.

The DIS creates a logical node to represent a broadcast sub-network; this node is the pseudonode

D.

The DIS creates a logical node to represent the complete topology of an IS-IS area; this node is the pseudode

Question 20

Refer to the exhibit.

Assume that OSPFv3 is properly configured on all routers and that R4 advertises its system prefix into Area 0. Which of the following statements best describes how R5 learns R4's IPv6 system prefix?

Options:

A.

With a Router LSA originated by R1

B.

With a Router LSA originated by R5

C.

With a Router LSA originated by R4

D.

With an Inter-Area Prefix LSA originated by R1

E.

With an Inter-Area Prefix LSA originated by R5

F.

With an Inter-Area Prefix LSA originated by R4

Question 21

Which of the following features are supported by IS-IS? Choose three answers.

Options:

A.

PDU authentication.

B.

The ability to customize the link cost metric.

C.

Use of Bellman-Ford routing algorithm.

D.

Classless routing.

E.

Updates sent as layer 3 multicast.

Question 22

What value should the AFI be set to for locally administered addressing?

Options:

A.

1

B.

49

C.

47

D.

45

E.

39

Question 23

Identify two attributes of Distance Vector Protocols: (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Use split horizon by default.

B.

Send information about directly connected links to neighbors at periodic intervals.

C.

Use holddown timers when topologies change to allow for convergence.

D.

Maintain multiple databases: neighbor, topology and routing.

Question 24

In an OSPF Hello packet what fields must match all neighbor routers on the segment? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

Area ID

B.

Hello and Dead Intervals

C.

Stub flag

D.

DR and BDR addresses

E.

The list of neighbors

Question 25

What command will show the IS-IS neighbors, and their status on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Show isis neighbors

B.

Show router isis neighbors

C.

Show router isis adjacency

D.

Show isis adjacency

Question 26

If routers R1 and R2 have a Level 1 and Level 2 IS-IS adjacency, which of the following statements is true? Choose two answers.

Options:

A.

Routers R1 and R2 are in different areas.

B.

Routers R1 and R2 are in the same area.

C.

Routers R1 and R2 will send a Level 1 Hello PDU and Level 2 Hello PDU, if the interface type between them is point-to-point.

D.

Routers R1 and R2 will send a Level 1 Hello PDU and Level 2 Hello PDU, if the interface type between them is broadcast.

E.

Routers R1 and R2 will send a Level 1/2 Hello PDU if the interface type between them is broadcast.

Question 27

What is wrong with the following filter configuration from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

RTR-B# configure filter

RTR-B>config>filter# ip-filter 1 create

RTR-B>config>filter>ip-filter$ entry 1 create

RTR-B>config>filter>ip-filter>entry$ match src-ip 172.2.0.0/16

RTR-B>config>filter>ip-filter>entry# action drop

RTR-B# configure router interface toRTR-A

RTR-B>config>router>if# egress

RTR-B>config>router>if>egress# filter ip 1

Options:

A.

There is nothing wrong with this filter

B.

The filter should be applied to the ingress and not the egress.

C.

The mask cannot be a "/" value, it must be in dotted decimal.

D.

All traffic is being blocked

Question 28

Which three IS-IS PDU types are used for database synchronization?

Options:

A.

Hellos, CSNPs, PSNPs

B.

LSPs. Hellos, CSNPs

C.

LSPs, PSNPs, Hellos

D.

LSPs, CSNPs, PSNPs

Question 29

Click the exhibit button.

What can you deduce from the show command on router R6?

Options:

A.

The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment. The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.5.

B.

The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment; however, this command does not indicate whether 10.10.10.3 or 10.10.10.5 is the DR or BDR.

C.

The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is the BDR, which is why it is not adjacent to the other routers.

D.

The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment. The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.3.

Question 30

Click the exhibit button.

Routers R1 „ R2, and R3 are running a classful routing protocol between them. Assuming that router R1 advertises all directly connected networks, how will these networks be represented in router R3's routing table?

Options:

A.

Router R3's routing table can only contain one of the routes, which will result in route flapping.

B.

Router R3's routing table will have one entry for 10.1.1.0/24 and one entry for 10.1.2.0/24.

C.

The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/8 in router R3's routing table.

D.

The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/24 in router R3's route table.

Question 31

Which of the following statements regarding IS-IS DIS is false?

Options:

A.

L1 and L2 routers elect separate DIS's.

B.

DIS uses multicast address 0180x200:0015 to communicate with other routers on the broadcast network.

C.

If a new router starts up in a LAN and has a higher interface priority, the new router preempts the original DIS and becomes the DIS.

D.

In broadcast multi-access networks, such as Ethernet, a single router is elected as the DIS. There is no backup DIS

Question 32

Click the exhibit button.

A static route is created on router R1 "using the "static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.3.3.2" command. What command can be used to test the static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

ping static 10.5.5.5

B.

ping static 0.0.0.0/0

C.

ping 10.5.5.5

D.

ping 0.0.0.0

Question 33

An SDP using GRE encapsulation is configured for an E-pipe service. The network port used by the SDP has an MTU of 8000. What value does the SDP path MTU have by default on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

7958

B.

7978

C.

8022

D.

8042

Question 34

Click the exhibit.

An operator at PE1 wants to analyze the traffic between CE1 and PE1 on SAP 1/1/3, On an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which of the following is NOT required as part of the configuration?

Options:

A.

A mirror source with a defined source type.

B.

A mirror source defined with an SDP destination.

C.

A mirror destination with a SAP defined.

D.

A mirror destination and a mirror source with the same service ID.

Question 35

Click the exhibit.

Based on this output from PE router R1, how many other PEs are participating in the VPRN?

Options:

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

Question 36

A customer requests that their Layer 2 Ethernet service be configured to forward frames up to 1514 bytes. The service provider is using MPLS encapsulation and RSVP-TE fast-reroute with facilities bypass on their redundant IP/MPLS network. What is the minimum MTU setting for the network ports?

Options:

A.

1514

B.

1528

C.

1536

D.

1540

E.

1560

Question 37

Which of the following statements about SAPs that are part of a VPVVS is FALSE?

Options:

A.

SAPs can be defined on Ethernet, POS, Sonet/SDH, or TDM channels.

B.

Only one SAP is required for a service that originates and terminates on the same Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.

C.

SAPs can have QoS policies assigned to them.

D.

Multiple SAPs can be defined on the same port.

Question 38

Which of the following regarding 6VPE is FALSE?

Options:

A.

6VPE is a tunneling technology that makes use of MPLS tunnels to transport IPv6 prefixes over an IPv4 infrastructure.

B.

Customers connected to 6VPE can run IPv6 or IPv4.

C.

On a PE router, if the MP-BGP next hop is an IPv4 address, a mapped IPv6-compliant address will be used.

D.

6VPE implements its own VPN-IPv6 address family and is a replacement for MP-BGP.

Question 39

By default, what happens when a packet with a VLAN tag is received on a SAP provisioned with null encapsulation?

Options:

A.

The original VLAN tag is removed.

B.

The original VLAN tag is kept.

C.

The VLAN tag is replaced by a provider tag.

D.

The VLAN tag is kept and a provider tag is added.

Question 40

On which object is ADSPEC enabled?

Options:

A.

SDP

B.

Network port

C.

LSP

D.

Service

E.

RSVP

Question 41

Which of the following best describes a local Epipe Service?

Options:

A.

An Epipe service that has 1 SAP and 1 SDP configured.

B.

An Epipe service that has 3 or more SAPs configured.

C.

An Epipe service that has 2 SAPs on the same router and has no SDPs configured.

D.

An Epipe service that is configured between two routers, each having 1 SAP and 1 SDP configured

Question 42

Which of the following statements best describes the flooding of traffic on a PE when traffic is received on a mesh SDP?

Options:

A.

Traffic is flooded to all SAPs in the service.

B.

Traffic is flooded to all SAPs and spoke SDPs in the service.

C.

Traffic is flooded to all SAPs and mesh SDPs in the service.

D.

Traffic is flooded to all SAPs, spoke SDPs. and mesh SDPs in the service.

E.

The traffic is not flooded.

Question 43

Which of the following about the label stack of a VPRN is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The service label is swapped for a transport label during transport.

B.

The transport label is used to forward packets between PEs.

C.

The service label is used to identify which VPRN a packet belongs to.

D.

Labels are initially added at the ingress PE.

Question 44

Which of the following about route distinguishes on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishes are appended to IPv4 prefixes to form IPv6 prefixes.

B.

CE routers use a route distinguisher to indicate which VPRN they are associated to.

C.

A route distinguisher combined with an IPv4 prefix produces a VPN-IPv4 prefix.

D.

Route distinguishes are used to determine which routes a VPRN should import.

Question 45

Which command provides a summary status of the VPLS service 100?

Options:

A.

show service id 100 base

B.

show service vpls 100

C.

show service vpls 100 summary

D.

show service vpls 100 all

E.

None of the above.

Question 46

Which protocol is used to signal the service label for a Layer 3 VPRN service?

Options:

A.

L-LDP

B.

T-LDP

C.

RSVP-TE

D.

MP-BGP

Question 47

Which of the following about IES is FALSE?

Options:

A.

An IES has a configurable VC MTU.

B.

An IES interface has an IP address assigned to it.

C.

IES supports QoS.

D.

An IES requires a spoke SDP.

Question 48

What happens by default on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR when a null encapsulated SAP receives a frame with a VLAN tag?

Options:

A.

The original VLAN tag is removed.

B.

The original VLAN tag is kept.

C.

The VLAN tag is replaced by a provider tag.

D.

The VLAN tag is kept and a provider tag is added.

Question 49

Click the exhibit.

Based on the output shown, what is the value of the service's VC ID?

Options:

A.

2

B.

12

C.

30

D.

44

E.

100

F.

The VC ID Cannot be determined from the output

Question 50

When using MP-BGP for an IPv4 VPRN service, what address family needs to be used for a PE-CE BGP session?

Options:

A.

The VPN-IPv4 address family.

B.

The IPv4 address family.

C.

Either IPv4 or VPN-IPv4 address families can be configured.

D.

The same address family must be used for the provider network and the PE-CE.

Question 51

Click the exhibit.

This is output from router R4. Service 333 is a VPLS. Why does peer 10.10.10.1 not have an EgrLbl?

Options:

A.

The SDP to 10.10.10.1 on router R4 is shutdown.

B.

Router R4 has not sent a label to router R1 (10.10.10.1) yet.

C.

10.10.10.1 has a different service MTU set.

D.

10.10.10.1 has not sent a label to router R4 yet.

Question 52

Which of the following best describes how a MAC FDB is populated in a VPLS service?

Options:

A.

A VPLS service does not use a MAC FDB.

B.

The router reads the destination MAC address of frames passing through the service.

C.

The router reads the source MAC address of frames passing through the service.

D.

The router uses reverse ARP (RARP) to resolve the MAC addresses for unknown destinations.

E.

The router is programmed with MAC addresses by the network administrator.

Question 53

Click the exhibit.

The CEs use BGP and export policies to advertise their local prefixes with the VPRN on their PEs. If the VPRN is functioning properly, which of the following commands will succeed when performed on router R1?

Options:

A.

"ping 192.168.20.1"

B.

"oam vprn-ping 100 source 192.168.10.1 destination 192.168.20.1"

C.

"oam vprn-ping 100 source 192.168.20.1 destination 192.168.10.1"

D.

"ping 10.10.10.6" (router R6's system IP)

Question 54

Which of the following about dot1Q SAPs is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The dot1Q default SAP (port: *) can be used to pass VLAN tags transparently through a network.

B.

The dot1Q null SAP (port: 0) accepts all tagged frames and untagged frames.

C.

The dot1Q default SAP (port: *) accepts all untagged frames and any frames with tag values that are not used as a service-delimiting value on another SAP.

D.

A dot1q null SAP (port: 0) and a dot1q default SAP (port: *) cannot both be defined on the same port.

Question 55

An E-pipe is configured with a service MTU of 5000. What value will be derived for the VC-MTU?

Options:

A.

4078

B.

4986

C.

5014

D.

5022

Question 56

Which of the following about VPRNs is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Customers must use the same routing protocol as the service provider.

B.

Customers belonging to the same VPRN service must use the same subnet.

C.

Service providers only need to perform configurations on the PEs to add additional VPRNs.

D.

For each VPRN, only one customer can be connected at each PE.

Question 57

A network consists of four PE routers. A customer requires a VPLS and has sites connected to each PE. The VPLS is fully meshed using IP/MPLS. How many SDPs must be configured on each PE?

Options:

A.

3

B.

4

C.

6

D.

8

Question 58

Click the exhibit.

E-pipe 100 is using an SDP with an LSP that uses the path shown (PE1-PE2-PE3-PE4). Based on the OAM command output, which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The E-pipe can support a maximum MTU size of 1578.

B.

The ports of the link PE2-PE3 have an MTU of 1578.

C.

An svc-ping of the E-pipe will succeed.

D.

If the step size was 2, the maximum response size would be the same.

Question 59

Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding the VPN-IPv4 address family? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

When a PE router receives an IPv4 prefix from its local CE it creates a VPN-IPv4 prefix.

B.

The route distinguisher (RD) is appended to the IPv4 prefix to form a 16 byte VPN-IPv4 prefix.

C.

VPN-IPv4 allows BGP to distinguish multiple routes with the same prefixes originated from distinct customers

D.

VPN-IPv4 addresses are only present within the service provider network.

E.

In VPRN, data traffic is carried in VPN-IPv4 packets.

Question 60

Click the exhibit.

The operator at PE1 wants to analyze the traffic between PE2 and CE4. On an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which of the following is required as part of the configuration?

Options:

A.

PE2 needs a mirror source with the remote source specified.

B.

PE1 needs a mirror destination with the remote source specified.

C.

PE1 needs a mirror source with the remote source specified.

D.

PE1 and PE2 need a mirror source specified.

Question 61

Click the exhibit.

The two PEs are providing 6VPE and IPv4 VPRNs. The core network is IPv4/MPLS. Which of the following is the BGP family configuration for the MP-BPG on the PEs?

Options:

A.

family ipv4 ipv6

B.

family vpn-ipv4ipv6

C.

family vpn-ipv4 vpn-ipv6

D.

family ipv6 vpn-ipv6

Question 62

A transport tunnel can either use an MPLS or GRE encapsulation.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 63

When configuring distributed services across a network, it is considered best practice to configure which of the following parameters as globally significant?

Options:

A.

Customer ID and SAP ID.

B.

Customer ID and Service ID.

C.

SAP ID and Service ID.

D.

SDP ID and Service ID.

E.

SDP ID and SAP ID.

F.

SDP ID and VC ID.

Question 64

On an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which vc-type will strip service delimiting tags at the ingress PE?

Options:

A.

vc-type ether

B.

vc-type vlan

C.

vc-type dotlq

D.

vc-type null

Question 65

An ES service can have both MAC and IP filters applied to it.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 66

Click on the exhibit.

This policy is applied as an LDP export policy. In addition to the FECs learned from its neighbors, which FECs will appear in this router's LIB?

Options:

A.

All FECs with a prefix of 192.168.1.0/30.

B.

Local FECs with a prefix of 192.168.1.0/30.

C.

All FECs excluding 192.168.1.0/30.

D.

Local FECs excluding 192.168.1.0/30.

Question 67

Click on the exhibit.

An LSP traverses R1-R2-R4-R6 and facility fast reroute with link protection is enabled. All links have the same cost. Which of the following about PLRs and MPs is TRUE?

Options:

A.

R1, R2, and R4 can be PLRs; R6 is the MP.

B.

R1, R2, and R4 can be PLRs; R2, R4, and R6 are MPs.

C.

R1, R2, R3, R4, and R5 can be PLRs; R6 is the MP.

D.

R1, R2, R3. R4, and R5 can be PLRs; R2, R4, and R6 is the MP.

Question 68

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning a VPRN data plane flow?

Options:

A.

A data packet will receive a service label at the CE and a transport label at the ingress PE.

B.

A data packet intended for a remote CE will have its service label swapped at each P router along the path towards the egress PE.

C.

At the egress PE, the transport label will be popped and the data packet forwarded with the service label.

D.

The service label is popped by the remote CE. The unlabeled packet is forwarded based on the longest match lookup algorithm in the VRF.

E.

All of the above statements are false.

F.

All of the above statements are true.

Question 69

Which of the following about LDP-over-RSVP is TRUE?

Options:

A.

RSVP LSPs must exist between each PE-ABR pair, or ABR-ABR pair in each area.

B.

When LDP-over-RSVP is active, the LDP prefixes are resolved to a physical egress interface.

C.

Targeted sessions must exist between all routers along the tunnel path.

D.

Link LDP sessions must exist between each ABR-ABR pair in each area.

Question 70

Which of the following about IS-IS Traffic Engineering on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Traffic engineering information is carried in the extended TLVs.

B.

Traffic engineering must be enabled on all IP/MPLS routers along the LSP path.

C.

Traffic engineering information is stored in the opaque database,

D.

Traffic engineering is required for constraint-based LSPs.

Question 71

Which of the following about configuring an LSP path definition on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is FALSE?

Options:

A.

A path definition can have both loose and strict hops.

B.

A path definition can be configured with loose hops only.

C.

A path definition is configured on the head-end router only,

D.

A path definition is not required if CSPF is enabled on an LSP.

Question 72

What does a PE do when a frame is received in a VPLS service with an unknown destination address by default?

Options:

A.

Drop the frame.

B.

Flood the frame to all PEs participating in the service.

C.

Send a destination unreachable message back to the originating host.

D.

Store the frame until the destination is known

Question 73

To enable the LDP-over-RSVP feature, which of the following configurations is NOT required on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Enable the Idp-over-rsvp feature on all PEs and ABRs along the LSP tunnel.

B.

Configure Link-LDP sessions between each PE-ABR and ABR-ABR pair.

C.

Configure RSVP-TE LSPs in each area between each PE-ABR and ABR-ABR pair.

D.

Configure T-LDP sessions with the tunneling option.

Question 74

Which of the following statements is NOT a valid reason to use MP-BGP as a routing protocol to transport VPRN routes?

Options:

A.

The number of VPRN routes can become very large. MP-BGP can support a very large number of routes.

B.

MP-BGP can carry routing information for a number of different address families.

C.

MP-BGP is designed to exchange information between routers that are not directly connected. This feature keeps VPRN routing information out of P-routers.

D.

MP-BGP can carry additional information attached to a route as an optional BGP attribute.

E.

All of the above statements are valid reasons for using MP-BGP as a VPRN routing protocol.

Question 75

Which of the following regarding the location of an MPLS label is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The MPLS label value may be carried in an ATM header.

B.

The MPLS label value may be carried in a shim header.

C.

The MPLS label value may be carried in an OSPF header.

D.

The MPLS label value may be carried in a Frame Relay header.

Question 76

What happens when a packet without a VLAN tag is received on a SAP provisioned with null encapsulation while an SDP vc-type is provisioned as vlan?

Options:

A.

The frame is dropped.

B.

The service ID is added as the VLAN tag.

C.

A VLAN tag of 0 is added as the provider VLAN tag

D.

The frame is forwarded with no VLAN tag

Question 77

What labels are encapsulated in the tunnels used by a 6PE deployment?

Options:

A.

The inner label is the IPv4 Explicit Null. The outer label is the MPLS transport label,

B.

The inner label is an MPLS transport label. The outer label is the IPv4 Explicit Null.

C.

The inner label is the IPv6 Explicit Null. The outer label is an MPLS transport label.

D.

The inner label is an MPLS transport label. The outer label is the IPv6 Explicit Null.

Question 78

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of MPLS?

Options:

A.

It provides the ability to establish connection oriented paths over a connectionless IP network.

B.

It provides a mechanism to engineer network traffic patterns independently of IP routing tables.

C.

It will work over most physical layer protocols.

D.

It can use GRE tunnels to transport data from many different protocols over an IP network.

Question 79

Which of the following encapsulation types on an Ethernet port support the provisioning of multiple SAPs? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

Dot1Q

B.

Q-in-Q

C.

ATM

D.

NULL

E.

Nil

Question 80

Which of the following about the RSVP-TE Hello protocol is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The Hello protocol can speed up convergence without reducing refresh time.

B.

Hello messages are sent after at least one RSVP session is active on the interface.

C.

An interface with multiple RSVP sessions sends Hello messages for each session.

D.

An RSVP neighbor is declared down if Hello messages are not received within the Hello timeout.

Question 81

Click on the exhibit.

An LSP traverses the path R1-R2-R3-R6 and facility fast reroute is enabled. If the protected LSP carries one transport label and one service label, how many labels will be on the bypass tunnel if router R2 fails?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 82

Which mode does the following statement describe? An LSR will advertise a label mapping immediately, without waiting for a label mapping from the FEC's next-hop.

Options:

A.

Liberal label retention mode

B.

Conservative label retention mode

C.

Ordered control mode

D.

Independent control mode

Question 83

Which of the following about RSVP-TE LSP configuration in a Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is TRUE?

Options:

A.

LSPs must always terminate on a system ID.

B.

MPLS and RSVP must be enabled on all LSRs.

C.

CSPF must be enabled.

D.

Path definitions must include at least one hop entry.

Question 84

What can the sdp-ping command be used for? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

To test the ability of reaching the far-end IP address of an SDP within the SDP encapsulation

B.

To determine the path MTU to the far-end IP address over an SDP.

C.

To determine the service MTU of the service using an SDP.

D.

To determine the presence of hosts using the service

Question 85

Click on the exhibit.

All links have 1 Gbps unreserved bandwidth initially. After the LSP's primary and standby secondary paths are signaled, how much bandwidth is reserved on the link between routers R1 and R2?

Options:

A.

If Shared Explicit reservation style is used, 400Mbps is reserved.

B.

If Shared Explicit reservation style is used, 700Mbps is reserved.

C.

If Fixed Filter reservation style is used, 400Mbps is reserved.

D.

If Fixed Filter reservation style is used, 300Mbps is reserved.

Question 86

Click on the exhibit.

An LSP path is established on router R1 toward router R6. After router R4 detects that the link between routers R4 and R6 goes down, which of the following will affect the failure propagation time?

Options:

A.

The time router R4 takes to send a PATH Error message toward the head-end router.

B.

The time router R4 takes to detect RSVP Hello message timeout from router R6.

C.

The time router R4 takes to send a RESV Error message to the head-end router.

D.

The time router R1 takes to signal an alternate path through router R3.

Question 87

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding sdp-ping? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

Provides a mechanism to determine the hops an SDP traverses.

B.

Provides in-band uni-directional connectivity tests.

C.

Provides in-band round-trip connectivity tests.

D.

Tests ability of reaching the far-end IP address of an SDP ID within the SDP encapsulation.

E.

Provides information regarding the exact MTU supported between service ingress and service termination.

Question 88

Which of the following is NOT required to configure an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR as a PE router running 6PE?

Options:

A.

Configure BGP with the IPv6 address family.

B.

Configure BGP to add IPv6 Explicit Null labels.

C.

Configure a route policy to export IPv6 routes into BGP.

D.

Configure the nexthop core router as a BGP peer.

Question 89

A customer requests that their Layer 2 Ethernet service be configured to forward frames up to 9000 bytes. The service provider is using MPLS encapsulation. What is the minimum MTU setting for the network ports?

Options:

A.

9000

B.

9004

C.

9008

D.

9022

E.

9036

Question 90

Which of the following about LDP sessions is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Frame mode requires multiple sessions between peers.

B.

The lower transport address initiates the session.

C.

Established LDP sessions run over a TCP connection.

D.

An LDP session is established immediately after Init messages are exchanged between peers.

Question 91

Click on the exhibit.

A fully loose LSP "toR6" is configured. All links have the same cost and all routers are Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SRs. The LSP currently traverses the path R1-R2-R7-R8-R4-R6 and the resignal timer is enabled. Which of the following about this LSP is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The LSP will switchover to another path if a failure occurs.

B.

The LSP will switchover to a better path as soon as it is available.

C.

CSPF must be enabled for this LSP to attempt to find a better path.

D.

The LSP will switchover to a better path in a MBB fashion.

Question 92

Which of the following about the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR command "own Isp-trace" is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The MPLS TTL values are incremented at each request.

B.

The router uses MPLS Echo Request packets that are IP-routed.

C.

The router collects hop information along the tunnel's path.

D.

The router performs an unidirectional LSP test.

Question 93

Which OAM command can be used to verify the correct and consistent provisioning of a service between two service end points?

Options:

A.

sdp-ping

B.

Isp-ping

C.

sap-ping

D.

svc-ping

Question 94

Click on the exhibit.

An LDP tunnel is established on R1-R2-R4-R6 because the link between routers R3 and R6 is down. With the LDP-IGP Sync feature enabled and after the link is restored, which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Router R3 starts the LDP-Sync timer after recovering the LDP session on R3-R6.

B.

Router R1 continues to use R1-R2-R4-R6 until the LDP-Sync feature is disabled.

C.

Router R3 advertises the maximum metric for the link to router R6.

D.

Router R1 receives a label from router R3 after the LDP session is established on R3-R6.

Question 95

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding 6VPE?

Options:

A.

6VPE is a tunneling technology that makes use of MPLS tunnels to transport IPv6 information over an IPv4 MPLS infrastructure.

B.

Customers connected to 6VPE could run native IPv6 or IPv4.

C.

On the PE router, the next hop for a VPN IPv6 address is an IPv6 address, regardless of the nature of the network between the PEs.

D.

6VPE requires an IPv6-aware MPLS core.

E.

Both C and D are false.

F.

All of the above statements are true.

Question 96

A technician sitting in a Network Operations Center would like to set up a remote mirror on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 Service Router to examine some data traffic ingressing a port at a remote site. Which of the following are required? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

A mirror destination on the local and remote Alcatel-Lucent Service Router,

B.

A mirror source on the local and remote Alcatel-Lucent Service Router.

C.

A mirror source with the remote source specified on the remote Alcatel-Lucent Service Router.

D.

A mirror source with the remote source specified on the local Alcatel-Lucent Service Router.

E.

An SDP between the local and remote Alcatel-Lucent Service Routers.

Question 97

In OSPFv3, which of the following LSA types carries prefixes and is only flooded in the area where it is generated?

Options:

A.

Link

B.

AS External

C.

Router

D.

Intra-Area Prefix

Question 98

Which function or component of the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is in charge of supporting dynamic routing protocols and constructing the routing table?

Options:

A.

IOM

B.

CPM

C.

FIB

D.

SPF

Question 99

Click on the exhibit button below. Assume the following:

- Each router's OSPF interfaces are in the areas shown.

- Bidirectional LDP-over-RSVP tunnels extend from routers R1 to R3 and back over the path R1-R4-R5-R3.

- You enable fast reroute facility bypass on the R5-R3 RSVP LSP.

- Router R5 acts as a PLR, protecting the R5-R3 link by building a bypass tunnel through router R2.

You build a layer 2 VPN on routers R1 and R3, using the LDP-over-RSVP tunnels. What MPLS configuration step must you complete on router R2 for it to protect the end-to-end service?

Options:

A.

Enable LDP on the R2-R5 interface.

B.

Configure T-LDP sessions between routers R2 and R5 and R3.

C.

Configure LDP-over-RSVP support on router R2.

D.

Enable MPLS and RSVP on the router R2 network interfaces.

E.

Enable LDP on the R2-R5 and R2-R3 interfaces.

Question 100

Which OSPFv3 LSA advertises the location of an ASBR?

Options:

A.

Intra-Area Prefix LSA

B.

Inter-Area Prefix LSA

C.

Inter-Area Router LSA

D.

AS External LSA

Question 101

Click on the exhibit.

Based on the topology shown and the route tables of routers R3 and R4, which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

There is no route leaking configured on router R1 or router R2.

B.

Route leaking is configured on router R1 but not on router R2.

C.

Route leaking is configured on router R2 but not on router R1.

D.

Route leaking is configured on both router R1 and router R2.

Question 102

If the OSPF reference bandwidth is set to 1000 Gbps. what is the cost of a 1 Gbps interface?

Options:

A.

1

B.

10

C.

100

D.

1000

Question 103

Which of the following best describes the function of an OSPF Type 4 LSA?

Options:

A.

A Type 4 LSA is originated by an ABR to describe a route to an ASBR to routers outside the area.

B.

A Type 4 LSA is originated by an ASBR to describe a route to itself to routers outside the area.

C.

A Type 4 LSA is originated by an ABR that is connected to a stub area. The LSA is injected into the backbone area to provide routing information.

D.

A Type 4 LSA is originated by an ABR that is connected to a stub area. The LSA is injected into the stub area to provide routing information.

Question 104

Click on the exhibit.

192.168.3.1 is a loopback interface on router R2 and is distributed to OSPF area 0, but the ping fails from router R3.

Which of the following is a possible solution to the problem?

Options:

A.

Add the "originate-default-route" option in the NSSA area configuration on router R3.

B.

Add the "summaries" option to the NSSA area configuration on router R1.

C.

Configure a static route on router R1 to 192.168.3.1.

D.

Configure a default route on router R2.

Question 105

What are the three databases that are maintained by a link-state protocol?

Options:

A.

Neighbor, adjacency, routing.

B.

Neighbor, topology, forwarding.

C.

Topology, routing, forwarding.

D.

Topology, forwarding, traffic classification.

E.

Neighbor, adjacency, forwarding.

Question 106

Which one of the following statements regarding the detour object transported in the detour path message is true?

Options:

A.

The PLR sends it downstream with the RRO.

B.

The PLR sends it downstream with the ERO.

C.

It associates all detours with the source PLR.

D.

The MP sends it upstream with the RESV message.

Question 107

Click on the exhibit button below.

Which fields in this output uniquely identify the RSVP session belonging to a single LSP? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Tunnel ID

B.

Name

C.

LSP ID

D.

To

Question 108

Click on the exhibit.

All ports in the network are operationally up and have a speed of 1Gbps. Which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Data traffic from network 192.168.1.0/24 to 192.168.3.0/24 will be forwarded through router R2.

B.

Data traffic from network 192.168 3.0/24 to 192.168.1.0/24 will be forwarded from router R3 directly to router R1.

C.

The system interface of routers R1 and R3 must be included into OSPF for traffic to flow between the 192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.3.0/24 networks.

D.

The OSPF adjacency between router R1 and router R3 is operationally up.

Question 109

True or False? MPLS may use an existing data link layer header field to identify a label, instead of using a specific MPLS header

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 110

Which of the following regarding IS-IS DIS is FALSE?

Options:

A.

L1 and L2 routers elect separate DIS's.

B.

DIS uses a specific Ethernet multicast address to communicate with other routers on the broadcast network.

C.

If a new router starts up in a LAN and has a higher interface priority, the new router preempts the original DIS and becomes the DIS.

D.

In broadcast multi-access networks, such as Ethernet, one router is elected as the DIS and a second router as the backup DIS.

Question 111

When IS-IS is electing a DIS, what is used as the tie breaker on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, if the priorities are the same?

Options:

A.

The system ID

B.

The loopback address

C.

The sequence number of the Hello packet

D.

The device that first initiated communication becomes the DIS

E.

The highest interface MAC address

Question 112

Which of the following message types does RSVP use to set up an LSP? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Path message

B.

iLER message

C.

Resv message

D.

LSP setup call request

E.

eLER message

Question 113

Click on the exhibit.

192.168.3.1 is a loopback interface on router R2 and is distributed to OSPF area 0, but the ping fails from router R3. Which of the following is a possible solution to the problem?

Options:

A.

Add "stub no summaries" to the area 1 configuration on router R1.

B.

Add the "originate-default-route" option in the area 1 configuration on router R1.

C.

Add a default static route on router R3.

D.

Include the system interface in the area 1 configuration on router R3.

E.

Add a static route on router R3 to 192.168.3.1.

Question 114

Click on the exhibit.

Router R1 learns the network 192.168.3.0/24 from IS-IS. Given the OSPF configuration shown, why isn't the 192.168.3.0/24 route in router R3's route table?

Options:

A.

The route policy should be applied as an import policy.

B.

The route policy should say "from protocol isis" instead of "from protocol direct".

C.

The ASBR configuration should be removed.

D.

The interface between routers R1 and R3 must be in OSPF area 0.

Question 115

Which of the following is a primary cause of IP hyper-aggregation?

Options:

A.

IP routing protocols do not always select the best route to a destination.

B.

IP routing protocols always select multiple routes to a destination.

C.

IP routing protocols do not make use of all available network attributes to select a path

D.

Improper network design results in limited network path redundancy.

Question 116

Click on the exhibit.

Given the output shown, which router is the ASBR in this network?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.2

B.

10.10.10.3

C.

10.10.10.4

D.

10.10.10.6

E.

There is no ASBR configured in the network.

Question 117

Click on the exhibit.

The routers have an established IS-IS L2 adjacency on which IPv4 system addresses are exchanged. An operator successfully configures multi-topology IS-IS routing so that the IPv6 system addresses are also exchanged between routers.

After IPv6 has been configured, which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Router R2 has two IS-IS adjacencies and two LSPs

B.

Router R2 has two IS-IS adjacencies and three LSPs

C.

Router R2 has two IS-IS adjacencies and four LSPs

D.

Router R2 has three IS-IS adjacencies and three LSPs

E.

Router R2 has three IS-IS adjacencies and four LSPs

F.

Router R2 has three IS-IS adjacencies and six LSPs

Question 118

If the destination IP address of a received unlabeled packet is successfully matched in the FIB, which of the following statements are true? Choose two answers.

Options:

A.

A PUSH label stack operation must be performed.

B.

The outgoing interface and next-hop address will be determined from the FIB.

C.

The packet can be forwarded as a labeled or unlabeled packet.

D.

A POP label stack operation may be performed.

Question 119

Click on the exhibit button below.

With fast reroute enabled, and given the following:

  • The protected LSP path is R1-R2-R3.
  • All links are of equal cost.

Which of the following statements is true? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Router R1 is the LSP originator and is also a PLR.

B.

With one-to-one link or node protection, the detour LSP path is R1-R4-R5-R2-R3.

C.

With one-to-one link or node protection, the detour LSP path is R1-R4-R5-R3.

D.

If the R2-R3 link fails, router R3 becomes a PLR

E.

None of the nodes can be protected with FRR.

Question 120

Which of the following best describes constraint-based routing?

Options:

A.

A mechanism that implements opaque LSAs.

B.

A mechanism that computes routes based on defined user requirements.

C.

A mechanism that allows the IGP shortest path to be used.

D.

A mechanism that allows RSVP or LDP signaling to use a route other than the IGP best route to establish a LSP.

Question 121

When a router performs the SPF calculation, which router is used as the root of the shortest path tree?

Options:

A.

The router with the least number of links.

B.

The router with the lowest router ID.

C.

The router's closest neighbor.

D.

The router doing the calculation.

Question 122

Which of the following devices can originate an opaque LSA?

Options:

A.

TE enabled OSPF routers

B.

Backbone router only

C.

ABR only

D.

ASBR only

Question 123

An OSPF router receives an update in which the sequence number, age, and checksum are the same as the entry already in the topological database. What action does the router take?

Options:

A.

The link-state information is not populated in the database, but is forwarded to all neighbors.

B.

The link-state information already in the database is overwritten and the age is reset.

C.

The link-state information is not populated in the database and an acknowledgement is sent.

D.

The link-state information is regarded as old and nothing is done.

E.

A link-state request is performed to increase the sequence number.

Question 124

Which of the following TLV fields is included in an IS-IS Hello packet on broadcast interfaces but not on point-to-point interfaces?

Options:

A.

The area addresses TLV

B.

The intermediate system neighbors TLV

C.

The IP interface address TLV

D.

The authentication information TLV

Question 125

Click on the exhibit.

OSPF is operational on all links in the network diagram, all routers are the same cost, and all routers are configured with an ECMP value of 4. Router R5 advertises the prefix 192.168.3.0/24 into OSPF.

How many entries for prefix 192.168.3.0/24 will be in router R3's routing table?

Options:

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

E.

4

Question 126

Which of the following correctly describes an IPV6 header compared to an IPv4 header?

Options:

A.

The IPv6 header has a header checksum field, header length field and no fragmentation offset field.

B.

The IPv6 header has no header checksum field, no header length field and does have a fragmentation offset field.

C.

The IPv6 header has a header checksum field, no header length field and no fragmentation offset field.

D.

The IPv6 header has no header checksum field, no header length field and no fragmentation offset field.

Question 127

An OSPF backbone area contains Type 5 LSAs. If an attached area receives only Summary LSAs from the backbone area, what type of area is the attached area?

Options:

A.

Normal

B.

Stub

C.

Totally stubby

D.

Totally NSSA

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Total 852 questions