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Linux Foundation CNPA Certified Cloud Native Platform Engineering Associate Exam Practice Test

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Total 85 questions

Certified Cloud Native Platform Engineering Associate Questions and Answers

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Question 1

A team wants to deploy a new feature to production for internal users only and be able to instantly disable it if problems occur, without redeploying code. Which strategy is most suitable?

Options:

A.

Use a blue/green deployment to direct internal users to one version and switch as needed.

B.

Use feature flags to release the feature to selected users and control its availability through settings.

C.

Use a canary deployment to gradually expose the feature to a small group of random users.

D.

Deploy the feature to all users and prepare to roll it back manually if an issue is detected.

Question 2

In a cloud native environment, how do policy engines facilitate a unified approach for teams to consume platform services?

Options:

A.

Enforces strict compliance policies with security standards.

B.

Integrates with CI/CD pipelines to streamline service provisioning.

C.

Enforces service-level agreements (SLAs) across all teams.

D.

Provides centralized reusable policies to ensure security and compliance.

Question 3

What is the fundamental difference between a CI/CD and a GitOps deployment model for Kubernetes application deployments?

Options:

A.

CI/CD is predominantly a pull model, with the container image providing the desired state.

B.

GitOps is predominantly a push model, with an operator reflecting the desired state.

C.

GitOps is predominantly a pull model, with a controller reconciling desired state.

D.

CI/CD is predominantly a push model, with the user providing the desired state.

Question 4

In a GitOps workflow using Crossplane, how is infrastructure provisioned across multiple clusters?

Options:

A.

By using CI/CD pipelines to execute imperative scripts that create cloud infrastructure outside of Kubernetes in any cloud provider

B.

By defining infrastructure resources declaratively in Git, where Crossplane controllers reconcile and provision them automatically in target environments.

C.

By provisioning infrastructure manually in cloud provider consoles and documenting the steps in Git for future reference.

D.

By manually applying Crossplane manifests to each cluster using kubectl to provision resources as needed for the infrastructure.

Question 5

In a GitOps setup, which of the following correctly describes the interaction between components when using a pull-based approach?

Options:

A.

The syncer continuously checks the git repository for changes and applies them to the target cluster.

B.

The target cluster sends updates to the git repository whenever a change is made.

C.

The syncer uses webhooks to notify the target cluster of changes in the git repository.

D.

The git repository pushes configuration changes directly to the syncer without any checks.

Question 6

In a cloud native environment, what is one of the security benefits of implementing a service mesh?

Options:

A.

Enabling encryption of communication between services using mTLS.

B.

Automatically scaling services to handle increased traffic.

C.

Using a centralized logging system to monitor service interactions.

D.

Limiting network access to services based on IP allowlisting.

Question 7

Development teams frequently raise support tickets for short-term access to staging clusters, creating a growing burden on the platform team. What's the best long-term solution to balance control, efficiency, and developer experience?

Options:

A.

Use GitOps to manage RBAC roles and allow teams to request access via pull requests with automatic approval for non-sensitive environments.

B.

Dedicate one Cloud Native Platform Engineer to triage and fulfill all access requests to maintain fast turnaround times.

C.

Set up scheduled access windows and batch all requests into specific time slots managed by the platform team.

D.

Provide pre-approved kubeconfigs to trusted developers so they can access staging clusters without platform intervention.

Question 8

In assessing the effectiveness of platform engineering initiatives, which DORA metric most directly correlates to the time it takes for code from its initial commit to be deployed into production?

Options:

A.

Lead Time for Changes

B.

Deployment Frequency

C.

Mean Time to Recovery

D.

Change Failure Rate

Question 9

A development team is struggling to find and connect to various services within a cloud platform. What is the primary benefit of implementing an API-driven service catalog for this team?

Options:

A.

It enables easier service discovery through a consistent interface.

B.

It increases the time taken to provision services.

C.

It allows the team to bypass security protocols.

D.

It requires the development team to manage provisioning details themselves.

Question 10

What is a key consideration during the setup of a Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline to ensure efficient and reliable software delivery?

Options:

A.

Using a single development environment for all stages of the pipeline.

B.

Implement automated testing at multiple points in the pipeline.

C.

Skip the packaging step to save time and reduce complexity.

D.

Manually approve each build before deployment to maintain control over quality.

Question 11

In a cloud native environment, which factor most critically influences the need for customized CI pipeline configurations across different application types?

Options:

A.

The organizational practice of assigning unique pipeline configurations based on application priority levels.

B.

The technical differences in build tools, testing frameworks, and artifact formats across programming languages.

C.

The need to accommodate varying team sizes and developer expertise levels within the organization.

D.

The requirement to visually distinguish between different application pipelines in monitoring dashboards.

Question 12

A platform engineering team needs to provide comprehensive cost visibility for Kubernetes workloads to optimize infrastructure utilization. Which tool is recommended to achieve this goal?

Options:

A.

Application performance monitoring tools with limited resource cost tracking.

B.

OpenCost for real-time, granular Kubernetes cost allocation and analysis.

C.

Kubernetes resource usage metrics paired with cloud provider billing data.

D.

Cloud provider cost estimation tools with basic Kubernetes integration.

Question 13

A Cloud Native Platform Engineer is tasked with improving the integration between teams through effective API management. Which aspect of API-driven initiatives is most crucial for fostering collaboration in platform engineering?

Options:

A.

APIs must be documented properly to ensure all teams understand how to use them.

B.

APIs should be released without versioning to simplify maintenance.

C.

APIs should be tightly coupled to specific teams to enforce accountability.

D.

APIs should be designed to be as complex as possible to accommodate all potential use cases.

Question 14

What is the primary purpose of Kubernetes runtime security?

Options:

A.

Encrypts the sensitive data stored in etcd.

B.

Protects workloads against threats during execution.

C.

Scans container images before deployment.

D.

Manages the access control to the Kubernetes API.

Question 15

Which of the following is a primary benefit of using Kubernetes Custom Resource Definitions (CRDs) in a self-service platform model?

Options:

A.

CRDs automatically manage the scaling and failover of platform services without additional configuration.

B.

CRDs eliminate the need for Role-based access control (RBAC) configurations in Kubernetes clusters.

C.

CRDs enable platform teams to define custom APIs without modifying the Kubernetes API server code.

D.

CRDs provide built-in support for multi-cloud deployments without additional tooling.

Question 16

In the context of Agile methodology, which principle aligns best with DevOps practices in platform engineering?

Options:

A.

Customer involvement should be limited during the development process to avoid disruptions.

B.

Teams should continuously gather feedback and iterate on their work to improve outcomes.

C.

Teams should strictly adhere to initial project plans without making adjustments during development.

D.

Development and operations teams should remain separate to maintain clear responsibilities.

Question 17

In the context of platform engineering and the effective delivery of platform software, which of the following statements describes the role of CI/CD pipelines in relation to Software Bill of Materials (SBOM) and security scanning?

Options:

A.

SBOM generation and security scanning are particularly valuable for application software. While platform software may have different security considerations, these practices are highly beneficial within CI/CD pipelines for applications.

B.

CI/CD pipelines should integrate SBOM generation and security scanning as automated steps within the build and test phases to ensure early detection of vulnerabilities and maintain a clear inventory of components.

C.

CI/CD pipelines are designed to accelerate the delivery of platform software, and adding SBOM generation and security scanning would slow down the process, so these activities are better suited for periodic audits conducted outside of the pipeline.

D.

CI/CD pipelines are primarily for automating deployments; SBOM generation and security scanning are separate, manual processes performed after deployment.

Question 18

Which of the following statements describes the fundamental relationship between Continuous Integration (CI) and Continuous Delivery (CD) in modern software development?

Options:

A.

CI is a prerequisite for CD; CI automates the building and testing of code, and CD builds upon this by automating the release process.

B.

CI and CD are entirely separate practices; CI focuses on code quality, while CD focuses on infrastructure management.

C.

CD is a prerequisite for CI; CD automates the deployment of code and CI builds upon this by automating the integration of code changes.

D.

CI and CD are interchangeable terms; they both refer to the process of automating software release management.

Question 19

In the context of observability for cloud native platforms, which of the following best describes the role of OpenTelemetry?

Options:

A.

OpenTelemetry is primarily used for logging data only.

B.

OpenTelemetry is a proprietary solution that limits its use to specific cloud providers.

C.

OpenTelemetry provides a standardized way to collect and transmit observability data.

D.

OpenTelemetry is solely focused on infrastructure monitoring.

Question 20

A platform team wants to let developers provision cloud services like S3 buckets and databases using Kubernetes-native APIs, without exposing cloud-specific details. Which tool is best suited for this?

Options:

A.

Cluster API

B.

Crossplane

C.

Helm

D.

OpenTofu

Question 21

Which of the following would be considered an advantage of using abstract APIs when offering cloud service provisioning and management as platform services?

Options:

A.

Abstractions enforce explicit platform team approval before any cloud resource is deployed.

B.

Abstractions curate cloud services with built-in guardrails for development teams.

C.

Abstractions allow customization of cloud services and resources without guardrails.

D.

Development teams can arbitrarily deploy cloud services via abstractions.

Question 22

As a platform engineer, a critical application has been deployed using Helm, but a recent update introduced a severe bug. To quickly restore the application to its previous stable version, which Helm command should be used?

Options:

A.

helm rollback

B.

helm upgrade --force

C.

helm template

D.

helm uninstall

Question 23

A platform team is deciding whether to invest engineering time into automating cluster autoscaling. Which of the following best justifies making this automation a priority?

Options:

A.

Cluster autoscaling is a repetitive task that increases toil when done manually.

B.

Manual upgrade tasks help platform teams stay familiar with system internals.

C.

Most engineers prefer doing upgrade tasks manually and prefer to review each one.

D.

Automation tools are better than manual processes, regardless of context.

Question 24

In a CI/CD pipeline, why is a build artifact (e.g., a Docker image) pushed to an OCI-compliant registry?

Options:

A.

To store the image in a central registry so deployment environments can pull it for release.

B.

To allow the container image to be analyzed and transformed back into source code.

C.

To publish versioned artifacts that can be tracked and used to inform users of new releases.

D.

To enable the registry service to execute automated tests on the uploaded container image.

Question 25

As a Cloud Native Platform Associate, you are tasked with improving software delivery efficiency using DORA metrics. Which of the following metrics best indicates the effectiveness of your platform initiatives?

Options:

A.

Lead Time for Changes

B.

Mean Time to Recover (MTTR)

C.

Change Failure Rate

D.

Service Level Agreements (SLAs)

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Total 85 questions