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ISTQB CTFL-Foundation ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Exam Practice Test

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Questions and Answers

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Question 1

You have investigated different possibilities and selected four of them to present to IT management. Which of the proposals will you most likely give your highest recommendations? 3 credits

Options:

A.

Insourcing of test automation based on an offer from a local company ABC that has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools and they also do regular training courses in test automation methods and tools. They can then work closely with Vicki.

B.

Outsourcing of test automation based on an offer from an Asian company, AsiaAutoTest, which has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools. They also offer training and besides they offer to run and maintain the regression tests in the future.

C.

Internal offer from the development department of XYZ to create the regression package using CppUnit as test automation tool. One of the development groups have very good experiences in automating unit tests, and they are willing to do training as well.

D.

Solution from a tool vendor offering to educate two test team members in the use of their easy-to-use test automation capture replay tool over the first 3 month and based on that build the regression test suite. In addition to Vicki, Steve is the only one that has time available to be educated.

Question 2

Instead of having an independent test team within the company, the company is considering to outsource testing. What are THREE key challenges that are typical for outsourcing? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Test environment more complex

B.

Define expectation for tasks and deliverables

C.

Clear channels of communications

D.

Possibly different cultures

E.

Testing of non-functional requirements

F.

Audit trail from requirements to test cases

G.

Applying test automation

Question 3

In addition to introducing the new team member, you have decided to raise motivation. Which of the measures listed below would be the best measure to take in order to increase the motivation of the team? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Provide more time for testing in the schedule

B.

Allow people to take some time off

C.

Introduce entry criteria to the testing phase

D.

Organize a meeting with senior management in which they address the importance of good testing for this project

Question 4

The test improvement project will take place in an organization developing a safety-critical avionics application. Which one of the following standards do you believe would be most appropriate to take into account for compliance during your assignment? 1 credit

Options:

A.

ISO 9126

B.

IEEE 829

C.

BS 7925/2

D.

DO-178B

Question 5

Comparing TMMi and TPI, which is not a valid reason for choosing either TPI or TMMi? 2 credits

Options:

A.

If the scope of test performance improvement covers all test levels, TMMi is preferred since TPI focusses mainly on black-box testing.

B.

If the organization is already applying CMMI, TMMi may be preferred since it has the same structure and uses the same terminology. TMMi addresses management commitment very strongly and is therefore more suitable to support a top-down improvement process.

C.

TPI is much more a bottom-up model that is suitable for addressing test topics for a specific (test) project.

D.

TMMi can only be used with the traditional V model,whereas TPI can be used with all types of software life cycles.

Question 6

Model characteristics:

Which THREE of the below mentioned characteristics relate to TMMi? 1 credit

Options:

A.

5 maturity levels

B.

Focussed on higher level testing

C.

20 key areas

D.

Highly related to CMMI

E.

Continuous model

F.

Staged model

G.

Focussed on component and integration testing

Question 7

In general, why is it NOT a good idea to estimate the testing effort based only on a percentage of development effort? Identify THREE valid reasons. 1 credit

Options:

A.

The quality of the development estimate may be poor.

B.

In general bottom-up estimation is always better than top-down estimation.

C.

The percentage based technique only applies to the V life cycle model.

D.

Using the same percentage every time does not address the level of risk of the application to be tested.

E.

The maturity of the organization, e.g. the quality of the test basis, quality of development testing, configuration management, availability of test tools, also influence the effort needed for testing.

F.

It builds on large set of historical data

G.

The result is almost always a too low estimate for the required test effort

Question 8

In general which part of the testing activity is most difficult to estimate? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Test planning

B.

Test execution

C.

Test management

D.

Test design

Question 9

Which aspect in the test estimate is the main risk in this project? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Quality of the specification

B.

Availability of end-users

C.

The costs of hardware and tools

D.

Unknown input quality due to third party development

Question 10

What is static analysis?

Options:

A.

The decision between using white or black box test techniques.

B.

Executing software to validate the most common path through the code.

C.

A technique to find defects in software source code and software models, performed without executing code.

D.

It is a testing technique used during system testing.

Question 11

Under which of the following circumstances is maintenance testing required? [K1]

Options:

A.

Migration of software onto a new platform

B.

Testing during initial development of a replacement for an existing system

C.

Purchase of a new software tool

D.

Updating of a regression suite

Question 12

Which of the following best describes the Black-box technique?

Options:

A.

It uses decision coverage for completeness.

B.

It ensures all possible branches in the code are tested.

C.

It is based on the internal structure of the system.

D.

It can be done without reference to the internal structure of the component or system.

Question 13

Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used. Following is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans:

a. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test strategy document

b. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource requirements

c. A detailed schedule of testing activities

d. The development deliverables to be tested

e. Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when

f. Level of requirements coverage achieved

Which THREE of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the master test plan? 1 credit

Options:

A.

a

B.

b

C.

c

D.

d

E.

e

F.

f

Question 14

Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used. Following is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans:

a. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test

b. strategy document

c. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource

d. requirements

e. A detailed schedule of testing activities

f. The development deliverables to be tested

g. Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when

h. Level of requirements coverage achieved

Which TWO of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the phase test plan? 1 credit

Options:

A.

a

B.

b

C.

c

D.

d

E.

e

F.

f

Question 15

As part of the test strategy, entry and exit criteria will be defined for each test level. Which is NOT a valid reason for using entry and exit criteria? 1 credit

Options:

A.

The expectation is that development testing is not adequate.

B.

Exit criteria are used to decide on when to stop testing.

C.

Entry and exit criteria are a principal way for getting adequate resources.

D.

Using entry and exit criteria will prevent software that is not or poorly tested from going to the next test level.

Question 16

You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.

B.

Recommendations for taking controlling actions

C.

Status compared against the started exit criteria

D.

Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved

Question 17

You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring & diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed in the test plan? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Availability

B.

Safety

C.

Portability

D.

Reliability

Question 18

Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution

B.

Percentage of requirements covered

C.

Lines of code written per developer per day

D.

Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing

Question 19

During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?

Options:

A.

Test Implementation and Execution

B.

Test Planning and Control

C.

Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting

D.

Test Analysis and Design

Question 20

A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:

• Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am

• Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of service

• The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day’s peak service

Note that all times mentioned are inclusive.

When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options, shows test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

0600, 1000, 1200

B.

1001, 1300, 2259

C.

0100, 0800, 2200

D.

2400, 1000, 2301

Question 21

Which of the following options BEST explain the pesticide paradox principle of testing?

Options:

A.

If we do not regularly review and revise our tests, we'll stop finding defects

B.

Repeatedly running a set of tests will ensure that a system is defect free

C.

Defects are, paradoxically, often contained in a small number of modules

D.

Testing, like spraying pesticide, is an effective bug / defect removal activity

Question 22

Regarding the process described above, what is the most important recommendation you would make using IEEE 1044 as a guide? 2 credits

Options:

A.

No priority or severity assigned

B.

Incident numbering is manual rather than automated

C.

No mentioning of reproduceability

D.

No classification on type of incident

Question 23

Which of the following would be the TWO most appropriate examples of entry criteria documented in the system integration test plan? 2 credits

Options:

A.

The percentage of decision coverage achieved during unit testing.

B.

The availability of the latest version of the capture-replay tool (for testing the interface with the newly developed test management tool).

C.

The sign-off of a performance test software release note (test item transmittal report) by both development and testing showing that system performance meets the specified acceptance criteria.

D.

The percentage of acceptance test procedures scheduled for execution.

E.

The percentage of requirements coverage achieved during system integration test.

Question 24

Which of the following would you expect to see in the master test plan? 1 credit

Options:

A.

A description of how the test cases are cross-referenced to requirements in the test management tool.

B.

A detailed identification of the resources that will carry out structural testing in the first iteration.

C.

The test approach that will be applied at system integration testing.

D.

A list of the names of the testers who will carry out the performance testing for the final iteration.

Question 25

Evaluate the status of the project against the defined exit criteria. Which of the following options shows the correct status? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Criteria A = OK, criteria B = OK, criteria C = OK

B.

Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = OK

C.

Criteria A = OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK

D.

Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK

Question 26

Which of the following would you least expect to form part of the analysis of initial tool costs? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Integration with other tools

B.

Learning time required to use the new tool

C.

Tool portability

D.

Evaluation of suitable tools

Question 27

Select THREE issues from the options provided that should at least be raised. 1 credit

Options:

A.

Has there been sufficient comparison of tools?

B.

What are the problems we are trying to address?

C.

Do we have a set of tool requirements to validate the tool against?

D.

How will the implementation be organized?

E.

Which project will be selected to perform the tool pilot?

F.

Is customized training available?

G.

How will the change process be managed?

Question 28

Based on the information given in the scenario, identify how the team could be improved most effectively? 2 credits

Options:

A.

By providing training in the payroll domain

B.

By providing a workshop on test design techniques

C.

By providing specific training on the systems being tested

D.

By providing training on reviewing requirements

Question 29

A number of options have been suggested for the level of independence to be employed for the testing on the next project, and are shown below.

i. External test specialists perform non-functional testing.

ii. Testing is outsourced.

iii. Testing is carried out by the developer.

iv. A separate test team carries out the testing.

v. Testing is performed by the business.

vi. Testing is performed by a different developer.

Which of the following orders the above in a correct order of independence? 1 credit

Options:

A.

i, ii, iv, vi

B.

ii, i, v, vi

C.

ii, v, i, iii

D.

i, iv, v, vi

Question 30

Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.

B.

Developers loose the sense of responsibility and independent testers may become a bottleneck.

C.

Independent testers need extra education and always cost more.

D.

Independent testers will become a bottleneck and introduce problems in incident management.

Question 31

In addition to risk, identify TWO other components of a testing strategy. 1 credit

Options:

A.

The entry and exit criteria for each test phase

B.

Test training needs for the project resources

C.

The test design techniques to be used

D.

Test performance indicators

E.

The test schedule

Question 32

You have been asked to write a testing strategy for the company. Which statement best explains how risk can be addressed within the testing strategy? 1 credit

Options:

A.

A test strategy should address identified generic product risks and present a process for mitigating those risks in line with the testing policy.

B.

A test strategy identifies the specific product for a project risk and defines the approach for the test project.

C.

A test strategy is derived from the test policy and describes the way risk assessments are performed in projects.

D.

A test strategy is the result of a project risk analysis and defines the approach and resources for testing.

Question 33

Part of the testing strategy indicates that you are going to be using systematic test design techniques. Your manager has asked that you present the main advantages of using these techniques at the next board meeting. Identify THREE main benefits of using systematic test design techniques within this company. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)

Options:

A.

Easier to quickly adapt testing to changing requirements compared to experienced-based testing

B.

Targets certain types of faults

C.

Will guide experienced testers to find defects

D.

Provides a way to differentiate depth of testing based on product risks by using different techniques

E.

More enhanced documentation and therefore higher repeatability and reproducibility

F.

Will make non-systematic testing redundant

G.

Will reduce the need for early reviews

Question 34

The development manager is managing the review of the responses received from bidders, and has asked the in-house test manager to provide a review checklist for the test management aspects of the responses. Which of the following checkpoints would be appropriate? 2 credits

Options:

A.

The bidder’s test policy should enforce that incident management fully conforms to IEEE 1044.

B.

The bidder’s project strategy shows that the data content of all the test environments conforms to EU standards.

C.

The bidder’s test plan shows that the application will be delivered for acceptance in six months time.

D.

The bidder’s project test plan depicts a phased implementation with later delivery dates to be confirmed and states that test deliverables will be developed using IEEE 829 as a guide.

Question 35

Which of the following product risks would be most effectively addressed just by static testing? 3 credits

Options:

A.

In the delivered application, one of the countries, as specified in the requirements, has not been correctly implemented.

B.

The application takes too long to process a request for additional cover.

C.

The test cases do not cover the key requirements.

D.

The successful bidder may not deliver all the required functionality on time.

Question 36

Incidents would not be raised against

Options:

A.

Requirements

B.

Documentation

C.

Test cases

D.

Improvements suggested by users

Question 37

What is the Risk Priority Number for risk item number 2? 2 credits

Options:

A.

16

B.

2

C.

1

D.

63

Question 38

What would be a test approach regarding the test design techniques to be applied that would fit an item with the highest risk? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Component testing: decision testing; System testing: exploratory testing

B.

Component testing: decision testing; System testing: decision table testing

C.

Component testing: statement testing; System testing: equivalence partitioning

D.

Component testing: statement testing; System testing: decision table partitioning

Question 39

Which of the following is NOT a typical key challenge for testing in a RAD based development approach? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Re-usable test scripts for (automated) regression testing

B.

Project management and control

C.

No complete requirements specification

D.

Time-boxing

Question 40

Risks should be constantly reviewed. Given the current situation, which one of the following factors is most likely to lead to a revised view of product risk? 3 credits

Options:

A.

The concerns over the user interface may lead to changes to the interface which cannot be implemented by development in time for the second test iteration.

B.

The concerns over the user interface raises the likelihood of a risk in that area and increases the amount of test effort needed for the user interface, thereby limiting the test effort available for other parts of the test management tool.

C.

The delivery of the application without the interface changes may upset the user community.

D.

The method used for test estimation is not accurate enough and hence the money spent on testing exceeded its budget.

Question 41

Which of the following is least likely to be used as a technique to identify project and product risks? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Inspections

C.

Expert interviews

D.

Independent assessments

Question 42

Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step you might take as test manager? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Testing for performance problems

B.

Hiring a contractor after a test analyst leaves the company

C.

Arranging a back-up test environment in case the existing one fails during testing

D.

Performing a project retrospective meeting using the test results after each increment

Question 43

Continuing with the Scenario described in the previous question, which of the following topics would you need to address in detail in the master test plan? 3 credits

Options:

A.

An approach to regression testing

B.

A list of boundary values for “advance amount”

C.

A description of dependencies between test cases

D.

A logical collection of test cases

Question 44

Given the following figures for the testing on a project, and assuming the failure rate for initial tests remains constant and that all retests pass, what number of tests remain to be run? 3 credits

Options:

A.

700

B.

720

C.

784

D.

570

Question 45

Given is the following defect removal chart reported at the end of system testing - showing total defects detected and closed defects (fixed and successfully retested). A number of open defects are classified as critical. All tests have been executed.

Based on the chart above, what is the most appropriate next test phase? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Acceptance testing to verify the business process

B.

Acceptance testing to verify operational requirements

C.

Requirements testing as part of testing regulatory compliance

D.

Another system test cycle to verify defect resolution

Question 46

Which one of the following estimation approaches is appropriate at this stage of the project? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Create an estimate based on the function point analysis technique and test point analysis

B.

Create an estimate based on the complexity of the code

C.

Create an estimate based on the credentials of the successful bidder

D.

Create an estimate based on a percentage of the development effort

Question 47

Which of the following phases in the fundamental test process is considered to deliver a document which can be used as a major input for test process improvement? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Test planning and control

B.

Test implementation & execution

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D.

Test project closure

Question 48

During test process improvement it is recommended to use standards where possible. Standards originate from various sources and they cover different subjects in relation to testing Pick TWO sources of software standards, useful to software testing from the ones mentioned below. 1 credit

Options:

A.

ISO 9126-1 ‘Software engineering- Product quality Part 1:

Quality model’ is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to define quality assurance solutions.

B.

ISA 4126-1 ‘Software engineering- Product quality Part 1:

Quality model’ is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to define quality assurance solutions.

C.

BS-7925-2 ‘Software testing. Software component testing is a national standard used internationally. It covers a number of testing techniques that may be useful both on component testing level and on system testing level.

D.

SY-395-01 ‘Standard for East Coast Hospital software’ is a regional standard adapted from a national one. Besides hospital software, this standard ought to be used also by other types of software system in the region.

E.

IEEE 829 ‘standard for software test documentation’ is an international standard to be following mandatory by all testing origination regardless of lifecycle models.