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ISC CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Exam Practice Test

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Total 512 questions

Certified Cloud Security Professional Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Web application firewalls (WAFs) are designed primarily to protect applications from common attacks like:

Options:

A.

Ransomware

B.

Syn floods

C.

XSS and SQL injection

D.

Password cracking

Question 2

All the following are data analytics modes, except:

Options:

A.

Datamining

B.

Agile business intelligence

C.

Refractory iterations

D.

Real-time analytics

Question 3

SOC Type 1 reports are considered "restricted use," in that they are intended only for limited audiences and purposes.

Which of the following is NOT a population that would be appropriate for a SOC Type 1 report?

Options:

A.

Current clients

B.

Auditors

C.

Potential clients

D.

The service organization

Question 4

What is the intellectual property protection for the tangible expression of a creative idea?

Options:

A.

Trade secret

B.

Copyright

C.

Trademark

D.

Patent

Question 5

Which kind of SSAE audit report is a cloud customer most likely to receive from a cloud provider?

Options:

A.

SOC 1 Type 1

B.

SOC 2 Type 2

C.

SOC 3

D.

SOC 1 Type 2

Question 6

The cloud customer will have the most control of their data and systems, and the cloud provider will have the least amount of responsibility, in which cloud computing arrangement?

Options:

A.

IaaS

B.

SaaS

C.

Community cloud

D.

PaaS

Question 7

Your IT steering committee has, at a high level, approved your project to begin using cloud services. However, the committee is concerned with getting locked into a single cloud provider and has flagged the ability to easily move between cloud providers as a top priority. It also wants to save costs by reusing components.

Which cross-cutting aspect of cloud computing would be your primary focus as your project plan continues to develop and you begin to evaluate cloud providers?

Options:

A.

Interoperability

B.

Resiliency

C.

Scalability

D.

Portability

Question 8

What concept and operational process must be spelled out clearly, as far as roles and responsibilities go, between the cloud provider and cloud customer for the mitigation of any problems or security events?

Options:

A.

Incident response

B.

Problem management

C.

Change management

D.

Conflict response

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT one of the components of multifactor authentication?

Options:

A.

Something the user knows

B.

Something the user has

C.

Something the user sends

D.

Something the user is

Question 10

The baseline should cover which of the following?

Options:

A.

Data breach alerting and reporting

B.

All regulatory compliance requirements

C.

As many systems throughout the organization as possible

D.

A process for version control

Question 11

What is a key capability or characteristic of PaaS?

Options:

A.

Support for a homogenous environment

B.

Support for a single programming language

C.

Ability to reduce lock-in

D.

Ability to manually scale

Question 12

BCDR strategies do not typically involve the entire operations of an organization, but only those deemed critical to their business.

Which concept pertains to the amount of services that need to be recovered to meet BCDR objectives?

Options:

A.

RSL

B.

RTO

C.

RPO

D.

SRE

Question 13

As a result of scandals involving publicly traded corporations such as Enron, WorldCom, and Adelphi, Congress passed legislation known as:

Options:

A.

SOX

B.

HIPAA

C.

FERPA

D.

GLBA

Question 14

When data discovery is undertaken, three main approaches or strategies are commonly used to determine what the type of data, its format, and composition are for the purposes of classification.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three main approaches to data discovery?

Options:

A.

Content analysis

B.

Hashing

C.

Labels

D.

Metadata

Question 15

To address shared monitoring and testing responsibilities in a cloud configuration, the provider might offer all these to the cloud customer except:

Options:

A.

Access to audit logs and performance data

B.

DLP solution results

C.

Security control administration

D.

SIM, SEIM. and SEM logs

Question 16

Which kind of SSAE audit report is most beneficial for a cloud customer, even though it’s unlikely the cloud provider will share it?

Options:

A.

SOC 3

B.

SOC 1 Type 2

C.

SOC 2 Type 2

D.

SOC 1 Type 1

Question 17

Which of the following is considered a physical control?

Options:

A.

Fences

B.

Ceilings

C.

Carpets

D.

Doors

Question 18

What is the cloud service model in which the customer is responsible for administration of the OS?

Options:

A.

QaaS

B.

SaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

IaaS

Question 19

What type of solution is at the core of virtually all directory services?

Options:

A.

WS

B.

LDAP

C.

ADFS

D.

PKI

Question 20

Which of the following should NOT be part of the requirement analysis phase of the software development lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Functionality

B.

Programming languages

C.

Software platform

D.

Security requirements

Question 21

Other than cost savings realized due to measured service, what is another facet of cloud computing that will typically save substantial costs in time and money for an organization in the event of a disaster?

Options:

A.

Broad network access

B.

Interoperability

C.

Resource pooling

D.

Portability

Question 22

What is the concept of segregating information or processes, within the same system or application, for security reasons?

Options:

A.

fencing

B.

Sandboxing

C.

Cellblocking

D.

Pooling

Question 23

Which attribute of data poses the biggest challenge for data discovery?

Options:

A.

Labels

B.

Quality

C.

Volume

D.

Format

Question 24

Which of the following is NOT a factor that is part of a firewall configuration?

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Port

C.

Protocol

D.

Source IP

Question 25

Which of the following is the sole responsibility of the cloud customer, regardless of which cloud model is used?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure

B.

Platform

C.

Application

D.

Data

Question 26

What concept does the "T" represent in the STRIDE threat model?

Options:

A.

TLS

B.

Testing

C.

Tampering with data

D.

Transport

Question 27

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement and guidance for testing during an audit?

Options:

A.

Stakeholders

B.

Shareholders

C.

Management

D.

Regulations

Question 28

What provides the information to an application to make decisions about the authorization level appropriate when granting access?

Options:

A.

User

B.

Relying party

C.

Federation

D.

Identity Provider

Question 29

Which of the following is the sole responsibility of the cloud customer, regardless of which cloud model is used?

Options:

A.

Platform

B.

Infrastructure

C.

Governance

D.

Application

Question 30

Which security concept, if implemented correctly, will protect the data on a system, even if a malicious actor gains access to the actual system?

Options:

A.

Sandboxing

B.

Encryption

C.

Firewalls

D.

Access control

Question 31

Which type of testing uses the same strategies and toolsets that hackers would use?

Options:

A.

Penetration

B.

Dynamic

C.

Static

D.

Malicious

Question 32

Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the requirements placed on a system or application by law, policy, or requirements from standards?

Options:

A.

regulatory requirements

B.

Auditability

C.

Service-level agreements

D.

Governance

Question 33

Which of the following is NOT a focus or consideration of an internal audit?

Options:

A.

Certification

B.

Design

C.

Costs

D.

Operational efficiency

Question 34

Which regulatory system pertains to the protection of healthcare data?

Options:

A.

HIPAA

B.

HAS

C.

HITECH

D.

HFCA

Question 35

Which of the following would NOT be a reason to activate a BCDR strategy?

Options:

A.

Staffing loss

B.

Terrorism attack

C.

Utility disruptions

D.

Natural disaster

Question 36

Which of the following is NOT an application or utility to apply and enforce baselines on a system?

Options:

A.

Chef

B.

GitHub

C.

Puppet

D.

Active Directory

Question 37

Which security concept would business continuity and disaster recovery fall under?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Availability

C.

Fault tolerance

D.

Integrity

Question 38

Which value refers to the amount of time it takes to recover operations in a BCDR situation to meet management's objectives?

Options:

A.

RSL

B.

RPO

C.

SRE

D.

RTO

Question 39

For service provisioning and support, what is the ideal amount of interaction between a cloud customer and cloud provider?

Options:

A.

Half

B.

Full

C.

Minimal

D.

Depends on the contract

Question 40

Which of the following is considered an internal redundancy for a data center?

Options:

A.

Power feeds

B.

Chillers

C.

Network circuits

D.

Generators

Question 41

With a cloud service category where the cloud customer is provided a full application framework into which to deploy their code and services, which storage types are MOST likely to be available to them?

Options:

A.

Structured and unstructured

B.

Structured and hierarchical

C.

Volume and database

D.

Volume and object

Question 42

Which of the following aspects of cloud computing would make it more likely that a cloud provider would be unwilling to satisfy specific certification requirements?

Options:

A.

Regulation

B.

Multitenancy

C.

Virtualization

D.

Resource pooling

Question 43

Which of the following threat types involves the sending of commands or arbitrary data through input fields in an application in an attempt to get that code executed as part of normal processing?

Options:

A.

Cross-site scripting

B.

Missing function-level access control

C.

Injection

D.

Cross-site forgery

Question 44

Many tools and technologies are available for securing or monitoring data in transit within a data center, whether it is a traditional data center or a cloud.

Which of the following is NOT a technology for securing data in transit?

Options:

A.

VPN

B.

TLS

C.

DNSSEC

D.

HTTPS

Question 45

Which one of the following threat types to applications and services involves the sending of requests that are invalid and manipulated through a user's client to execute commands on the application under the user's own credentials?

Options:

A.

Injection

B.

Missing function-level access control

C.

Cross-site scripting

D.

Cross-site request forgery

Question 46

Which of the following actions will NOT make data part of the create phase of the cloud data lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Modify data

B.

Modify metadata

C.

New data

D.

Import data

Question 47

Which data state would be most likely to use digital signatures as a security protection mechanism?

Options:

A.

Data in use

B.

Data in transit

C.

Archived

D.

Data at rest

Question 48

Different certifications and standards take different approaches to data center design and operations. Although many traditional approaches use a tiered methodology, which of the following utilizes a macro-level approach to data center design?

Options:

A.

IDCA

B.

BICSI

C.

Uptime Institute

D.

NFPA

Question 49

Which phase of the cloud data lifecycle represents the first instance where security controls can be implemented?

Options:

A.

Use

B.

Share

C.

Store

D.

Create

Question 50

With software-defined networking (SDN), which two types of network operations are segregated to allow for granularity and delegation of administrative access and functions?

Options:

A.

Filtering and forwarding

B.

Filtering and firewalling

C.

Firewalling and forwarding

D.

Forwarding and protocol

Question 51

Within a SaaS environment, what is the responsibility on the part of the cloud customer in regard to procuring the software used?

Options:

A.

Maintenance

B.

Licensing

C.

Development

D.

Purchasing

Question 52

If a key feature of cloud computing that your organization desires is the ability to scale and expand without limit or concern about available resources, which cloud deployment model would you MOST likely be considering?

Options:

A.

Public

B.

Hybrid

C.

Private

D.

Community

Question 53

Which of the following is NOT one of the main intended goals of a DLP solution?

Options:

A.

Showing due diligence

B.

Preventing malicious insiders

C.

Regulatory compliance

D.

Managing and minimizing risk

Question 54

You were recently hired as a project manager at a major university to implement cloud services for the academic and administrative systems. Because the load and demand for services at a university are very cyclical in nature, commensurate with the academic calendar, which of the following aspects of cloud computing would NOT be a primary benefit to you?

Options:

A.

Measured service

B.

Broad network access

C.

Resource pooling

D.

On-demand self-service

Question 55

Within an IaaS implementation, which of the following would NOT be a metric used to quantify service charges for the cloud customer?

Options:

A.

Memory

B.

Number of users

C.

Storage

D.

CPU

Question 56

Which aspect of cloud computing pertains to cloud customers only paying for the resources and services they actually use?

Options:

A.

Metered service

B.

Measured billing

C.

Metered billing

D.

Measured service

Question 57

When an API is being leveraged, it will encapsulate its data for transmission back to the requesting party or service.

What is the data encapsulation used with the SOAP protocol referred to as?

Options:

A.

Packet

B.

Payload

C.

Object

D.

Envelope

Question 58

Which of the following would make it more likely that a cloud provider would be unwilling to satisfy specific certification requirements?

Options:

A.

Resource pooling

B.

Virtualization

C.

Multitenancy

D.

Regulation

Question 59

Which of the following is NOT a regulatory system from the United States federal government?

Options:

A.

PCI DSS

B.

FISMA

C.

SOX

D.

HIPAA

Question 60

Which technology is NOT commonly used for security with data in transit?

Options:

A.

DNSSEC

B.

IPsec

C.

VPN

D.

HTTPS

Question 61

What is the primary reason that makes resolving jurisdictional conflicts complicated?

Options:

A.

Different technology standards

B.

Costs

C.

Language barriers

D.

Lack of international authority

Question 62

Which technique involves replacing values within a specific data field to protect sensitive data?

Options:

A.

Anonymization

B.

Masking

C.

Tokenization

D.

Obfuscation

Question 63

Which type of cloud model typically presents the most challenges to a cloud customer during the "destroy" phase of the cloud data lifecycle?

Options:

A.

IaaS

B.

DaaS

C.

SaaS

D.

PaaS

Question 64

Which of the following roles involves the provisioning and delivery of cloud services?

Options:

A.

Cloud service deployment manager

B.

Cloud service business manager

C.

Cloud service manager

D.

Cloud service operations manager

Question 65

From a legal perspective, what is the most important first step after an eDiscovery order has been received by the cloud provider?

Options:

A.

Notification

B.

Key identification

C.

Data collection

D.

Virtual image snapshots

Question 66

What is the best source for information about securing a physical asset's BIOS?

Options:

A.

Security policies

B.

Manual pages

C.

Vendor documentation

D.

Regulations

Question 67

Which of the following is NOT a criterion for data within the scope of eDiscovery?

Options:

A.

Possession

B.

Custody

C.

Control

D.

Archive

Question 68

Which of the following is not a risk management framework?

Options:

A.

COBIT

B.

Hex GBL

C.

ISO 31000:2009

D.

NIST SP 800-37

Question 69

What is the biggest concern with hosting a key management system outside of the cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Portability

C.

Availability

D.

Integrity

Question 70

Which of the following standards primarily pertains to cabling designs and setups in a data center?

Options:

A.

IDCA

B.

BICSI

C.

NFPA

D.

Uptime Institute

Question 71

What is the biggest negative to leasing space in a data center versus building or maintain your own?

Options:

A.

Costs

B.

Control

C.

Certification

D.

Regulation

Question 72

Which United States law is focused on PII as it relates to the financial industry?

Options:

A.

HIPAA

B.

SOX

C.

Safe Harbor

D.

GLBA

Question 73

Which United States law is focused on data related to health records and privacy?

Options:

A.

Safe Harbor

B.

SOX

C.

GLBA

D.

HIPAA

Question 74

Which protocol does the REST API depend on?

Options:

A.

HTTP

B.

XML

C.

SAML

D.

SSH

Question 75

Why does a Type 2 hypervisor typically offer less security control than a Type 1 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of another operating system and is dependent on the security of the OS for its own security.

B.

A Type 2 hypervisor allows users to directly perform some functions with their own access.

C.

A Type 2 hypervisor is open source, so attackers can more easily find exploitable vulnerabilities with that access.

D.

A Type 2 hypervisor is always exposed to the public Internet for federated identity access.

Question 76

Which concept BEST describes the capability for a cloud environment to automatically scale a system or application, based on its current resource demands?

Options:

A.

On-demand self-service

B.

Resource pooling

C.

Measured service

D.

Rapid elasticity

Page: 1 / 51
Total 512 questions