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ISC CAP CAP - Certified Authorization Professional Exam Practice Test

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Total 395 questions

CAP - Certified Authorization Professional Questions and Answers

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Question 1

In which of the following testing methodologies do assessors use all available documentation and work under no constraints, and attempt to circumvent the security features of an information system?

Options:

A.

Full operational test

B.

Walk-through test

C.

Penetration test

D.

Paper test

Question 2

Jenny is the project manager of the NHJ Project for her company. She has identified several positive risk events within the project and she thinks these events can save the project time and money. You, a new team member wants to know that how many risk responses are available for a positive risk event. What will Jenny reply to you?

Options:

A.

Four

B.

Seven

C.

Acceptance is the only risk response for positive risk events.

D.

Three

Question 3

Eric is the project manager of the MTC project for his company. In this project a vendor has offered Eric a sizeable discount on all hardware if his order total for the project is more than $125,000. Right now, Eric is likely to spend $118,000 with vendor. If Eric spends $7,000 his cost savings for the project will be $12,500, but he cannot purchase hardware if he cannot implement the hardware immediately due to organizational policies. Eric consults with Amy and Allen, other project managers in the organization, and asks if she needs any hardware for their projects. Both Amy and Allen need hardware and they agree to purchase the hardware through Eric's relationship with the vendor. What positive risk response has happened in this instance?

Options:

A.

Transference

B.

Exploiting

C.

Sharing

D.

Enhancing

Question 4

Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security evaluation?

Options:

A.

FITSAF

B.

FIPS 102

C.

OCTAVE

D.

DITSCAP

Question 5

James work as an IT systems personnel in SoftTech Inc. He performs the following tasks:

Runs regular backups and routine tests of the validity of the backup data.

Performs data restoration from the backups whenever required.

Maintains the retained records in accordance with the established information classification policy.

What is the role played by James in the organization?

Options:

A.

Manager

B.

Owner

C.

Custodian

D.

User

Question 6

Which of the following DITSCAP phases validates that the preceding work has produced an IS that operates in a specified computing environment?

Options:

A.

Phase 4

B.

Phase 3

C.

Phase 2

D.

Phase 1

Question 7

Amy is the project manager for her company. In her current project the organization has a very low tolerance for risk events that will affect the project schedule. Management has asked Amy to consider the affect of all the risks on the project schedule. What approach can Amy take to create a bias against risks that will affect the schedule of the project?

Options:

A.

She can have the project team pad their time estimates to alleviate delays in the project schedule.

B.

She can create an overall project rating scheme to reflect the bias towards risks that affect the project schedule.

C.

She can filter all risks based on their affect on schedule versus other project objectives.

D.

She can shift risk-laden activities that affect the project schedule from the critical path as much as possible.

Question 8

Which of the following professionals plays the role of a monitor and takes part in the organization's configuration management process?

Options:

A.

Senior Agency Information Security Officer

B.

Authorizing Official

C.

Common Control Provider

D.

Chief Information Officer

Question 9

Gary is the project manager of his organization. He is managing a project that is similar to a project his organization completed recently. Gary has decided that he will use the information from the past project to help him and the project team to identify the risks that may be present in the project. Management agrees that this checklist approach is ideal and will save time in the project. Which of the following statement is most accurate about the limitations of the checklist analysis approach for Gary?

Options:

A.

The checklist analysis approach is fast but it is impossible to build and exhaustive checklist.

B.

The checklist analysis approach only uses qualitative analysis.

C.

The checklist analysis approach saves time, but can cost more.

D.

The checklist is also known as top down risk assessment

Question 10

In which of the following phases of the DITSCAP process does Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E) occur?

Options:

A.

Phase 2

B.

Phase 3

C.

Phase 1

D.

Phase 4

Question 11

You are the project manager of the NKJ Project for your company. The project's success or failure will have a significant impact on your organization's profitability for the coming year. Management has asked you to identify the risk events and communicate the event's probability and impact as early as possible in the project. Management wants to avoid risk events and needs to analyze the cost-benefits of each risk event in this project. What term is assigned to the low-level of stakeholder tolerance in this project?

Options:

A.

Risk avoidance

B.

Mitigation-ready project management

C.

Risk utility function

D.

Risk-reward mentality

Question 12

Which of the following evidences are the collection of facts that, when considered together, can be used to infer a conclusion about the malicious activity/person?

Options:

A.

Circumstantial

B.

Incontrovertible

C.

Direct

D.

Corroborating

Question 13

Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security.

Which of the following is the correct order of C&A phases in a DITSCAP assessment?

Options:

A.

Definition, Validation, Verification, and Post Accreditation

B.

Verification, Definition, Validation, and Post Accreditation

C.

Verification, Validation, Definition, and Post Accreditation

D.

Definition, Verification, Validation, and Post Accreditation

Question 14

A Web-based credit card company had collected financial and personal details of Mark before issuing him a credit card. The company has now provided Mark's financial and personal details to another company. Which of the following Internet laws has the credit card issuing company violated?

Options:

A.

Security law

B.

Privacy law

C.

Copyright law

D.

Trademark law

Question 15

Wendy is about to perform qualitative risk analysis on the identified risks within her project. Which one of the following will NOT help Wendy to perform this project management activity?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder register

B.

Risk register

C.

Project scope statement

D.

Risk management plan

Question 16

Which of the following is a security policy implemented by an organization due to compliance, regulation, or other legal requirements?

Options:

A.

Advisory policy

B.

Informative policy

C.

System Security policy

D.

Regulatory policy

Question 17

Mary is the project manager of the HGH Project for her company. She and her project team have agreed that if the vendor is late by more than ten days they will cancel the order and hire the NBG Company to fulfill the order. The NBG Company can guarantee orders within three days, but the costs of their products are significantly more expensive than the current vendor. What type of a response strategy is this?

Options:

A.

External risk response

B.

Internal risk management strategy

C.

Contingent response strategy

D.

Expert judgment

Question 18

In which of the following phases do the system security plan update and the Plan of Action and Milestones (POAM) update take place?

Options:

A.

Continuous Monitoring Phase

B.

Accreditation Phase

C.

Preparation Phase

D.

DITSCAP Phase

Question 19

Thomas is the project manager of the NHJ Project for his company. He has identified several positive risk events within his project and he thinks these events can save the project time and money. Positive risk events, such as these within the NHJ Project are also known as what?

Options:

A.

Opportunities

B.

Benefits

C.

Ancillary constituent components

D.

Contingency risks

Question 20

You are the program manager for your project. You are working with the project managers regarding the procurement processes for their projects. You have ruled out one particular contract type because it is considered too risky for the program. Which one of the following contract types is usually considered to be the most dangerous for the buyer?

Options:

A.

Cost plus incentive fee

B.

Time and materials

C.

Cost plus percentage of costs

D.

Fixed fee

Question 21

The only output of the perform qualitative risk analysis are risk register updates. When the project manager updates the risk register he will need to include several pieces of information including all of the following except for which one?

Options:

A.

Trends in qualitative risk analysis

B.

Risk probability-impact matrix

C.

Watchlist of low-priority risks

D.

Risks grouped by categories

Question 22

Which of the following objectives are defined by integrity in the C.I.A triad of information security systems?

Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.

Options:

A.

It preserves the internal and external consistency of information.

B.

It prevents the unauthorized or unintentional modification of information by the authorized users.

C.

It prevents the intentional or unintentional unauthorized disclosure of a message's contents .

D.

It prevents the modification of information by the unauthorized users.

Question 23

The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in Phase 3. What are the process activities of this phase?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Options:

A.

Maintenance of the SSAA

B.

Compliance validation

C.

Change management

D.

System operations

E.

Security operations

F.

Continue to review and refine the SSAA

Question 24

Which of the following refers to an information security document that is used in the United States Department of Defense (DoD) to describe and accredit networks and systems?

Options:

A.

SSAA

B.

FIPS

C.

FITSAF

D.

TCSEC

Question 25

Fill in the blank with an appropriate word.

________ ensures that the information is not disclosed to unauthorized persons or processes.

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

Question 26

Mary is the project manager of the HGH Project for her company. She and her project team have agreed that if the vendor is late by more than ten days they will cancel the order and hire the NBG Company to fulfill the order. The NBG Company can guarantee orders within three days, but the costs of their products are significantly more expensive than the current vendor. What type of a response strategy is this?

Options:

A.

Contingent response strategy

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Internal risk management strategy

D.

External risk response

Question 27

Sammy is the project manager for her organization. She would like to rate each risk based on its probability and affect on time, cost, and scope. Harry, a project team member, has never done this before and thinks Sammy is wrong to attempt this approach. Harry says that an accumulative risk score should be created, not three separate risk scores. Who is correct in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Sammy is correct, because organizations can create risk scores for each objective of the project.

B.

Harry is correct, because the risk probability and impact considers all objectives of the project.

C.

Harry is correct, the risk probability and impact matrix is the only approach to risk assessment.

D.

Sammy is correct, because she is the project manager.

Question 28

Mary is the project manager for the BLB project. She has instructed the project team to assemble, to review the risks. She has included the schedule management plan as an input for the quantitative risk analysis process. Why is the schedule management plan needed for quantitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Mary will utilize the schedule controls and the nature of the schedule for the quantitative analysis of the schedule.

B.

Mary will schedule when the identified risks are likely to happen and affect the project schedule.

C.

Mary will utilize the schedule controls to determine how risks may be allowed to change the project schedule.

D.

Mary will use the schedule management plan to schedule the risk identification meetings throughout the remaining project.

Question 29

Your project is an agricultural-based project that deals with plant irrigation systems. You have discovered a byproduct in your project that your organization could use to make a profityou’re your organization seizes this opportunity it would be an example of what risk response?

Options:

A.

Opportunistic

B.

Positive

C.

Enhancing

D.

Exploiting

Question 30

Which of the following is a standard that sets basic requirements for assessing the effectiveness of computer security controls built into a computer system?

Options:

A.

FITSAF

B.

TCSEC

C.

FIPS

D.

SSAA

Question 31

Which of the following individuals is responsible for the final accreditation decision?

Options:

A.

Information System Owner

B.

Certification Agent

C.

User Representative

D.

Risk Executive

Question 32

Which of the following individuals is responsible for ensuring the security posture of the organization's information system?

Options:

A.

Authorizing Official

B.

Chief Information Officer

C.

Security Control Assessor

D.

Common Control Provider

Question 33

Which of the following parts of BS 7799 covers risk analysis and management?

Options:

A.

Part 1

B.

Part 3

C.

Part 2

D.

Part 4

Question 34

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between the role of a data owner and the role of a data custodian?

Options:

A.

The custodian implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the operations manager.

B.

The datacustodian implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the data owner.

C.

The data owner implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the custodian.

D.

The custodian makes the initialinformation classification assignments, and the operations manager implements the scheme.

Question 35

Diane is the project manager of the HGF Project. A risk that has been identified and analyzed in the project planning processes is now coming into fruition. What individual should respond to the risk with the preplanned risk response?

Options:

A.

Diane

B.

Risk owner

C.

Subject matter expert

D.

Project sponsor

Question 36

Ned is the project manager of the HNN project for your company. Ned has asked you to help him complete some probability distributions for his project. What portion of the project will you most likely use for probability distributions?

Options:

A.

Uncertainty in values such as duration of schedule activities

B.

Bias towards risk in new resources

C.

Risk probabilityand impact matrixes

D.

Risk identification

Question 37

In which of the following DITSCAP phases is the SSAA developed?

Options:

A.

Phase 4

B.

Phase 2

C.

Phase 1

D.

Phase 3

Question 38

Eric is the project manager of the NQQ Project and has hired the ZAS Corporation to complete part of the project work for Eric's organization. Due to a change request the ZAS Corporation is no longer needed on the project even though they have completed nearly all of the project work. Is Eric's organization liable to pay the ZAS Corporation for the work they have completed so far on the project?

Options:

A.

No, the ZAS Corporation did not complete all of the work.

B.

Yes, the ZAS Corporation did not choose to terminate the contract work.

C.

It depends on what the outcome of a lawsuit will determine.

D.

It depends on what the terminationclause of the contract stipulates

Question 39

Which of the following RMF phases is known as risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Phase 0

B.

Phase 1

C.

Phase 2

D.

Phase 3

Question 40

Shoulder surfing is a type of in-person attack in which the attacker gathers information about the premises of an organization. This attack is often performed by looking surreptitiously at the keyboard of an employee's computer while he is typing in his password at any access point such as a terminal/Web site. Which of the following is violated in a shoulder surfing attack?

Options:

A.

Authenticity

B.

Integrity

C.

Availability

D.

Confidentiality

Question 41

A ________ points to a statement in a policy or procedure that helps determine a course of action.

Options:

A.

Comment

B.

Guideline

C.

Procedure

D.

Baseline

Question 42

Which of the following statements about Discretionary Access Control List (DACL) is true?

Options:

A.

It is a rule list containing access control entries.

B.

It specifies whether an audit activity should be performed when an object attempts to access a resource.

C.

It is a list containing user accounts, groups, and computers that are allowed (or denied) access to the object.

D.

It is a unique number that identifies a user, group, and computer account

Question 43

Which of the following are the types of assessment tests addressed in NIST SP 800-53A?

Options:

A.

Functional, penetration, validation

B.

Validation, evaluation, penetration

C.

Validation, penetration, evaluation

D.

Functional, structural, penetration

Question 44

In which of the following phases do the system security plan update and the Plan of Action and Milestones (POAM) update take place?

Options:

A.

Continuous Monitoring Phase

B.

Accreditation Phase

C.

Preparation Phase

D.

DITSCAP Phase

Question 45

Which one of the following is the only output for the qualitative risk analysis process?

Options:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Project management plan

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Organizational process assets

Question 46

An authentication method uses smart cards as well as usernames and passwords for authentication. Which of the following authentication methods is being referred to?

Options:

A.

Anonymous

B.

Multi-factor

C.

Biometrics

D.

Mutual

Question 47

Which of the following statements are true about security risks?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

Options:

A.

They can be removed completely by taking proper actions.

B.

They can be analyzed and measured by the risk analysis process.

C.

They can be mitigated by reviewing and taking responsible actions based on possible risks.

D.

They are considered an indicator of threats coupled with vulnerability.

Question 48

Which of the following DITSCAP C&A phases takes place between the signing of the initial version of the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system?

Options:

A.

Phase 3

B.

Phase 1

C.

Phase 2

D.

Phase 4

Question 49

You are the project manager for your organization. You are working with your project team to complete the qualitative risk analysis process. The first tool and technique you are using requires that you assess the probability and what other characteristic of each identified risk in the project?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Risk category

C.

Impact

D.

Cost

Question 50

In which of the following DIACAP phases is residual risk analyzed?

Options:

A.

Phase 2

B.

Phase 4

C.

Phase 5

D.

Phase 3

E.

Phase 1

Question 51

You are the project manager of the HJK project for your organization. You and the project team have created risk responses for many of the risk events in the project. A teaming agreement is an example of what risk response?

Options:

A.

Acceptance

B.

Mitigation

C.

Sharing

D.

Transference

Question 52

You are the project manager of a large construction project. Part of the project involves the wiring of the electricity in the building your project is creating. You and the project team determine the electrical work is too dangerous to perform yourself so you hire an electrician to perform the work for the project. This is an example of what type of risk response?

Options:

A.

Transference

B.

Mitigation

C.

Avoidance

D.

Acceptance

Question 53

Which of the following risk responses delineates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk?

Options:

A.

Acceptance

B.

Mitigation

C.

Exploitation

D.

Transference

Question 54

Which of the following processes is described in the statement below?

"It is the process of implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risk, identifying new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project."

Options:

A.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.

Monitor and Control Risks

D.

Identify Risks

Question 55

The risk transference is referred to the transfer of risks to a third party, usually for a fee, it creates a contractual-relationship for the third party to manage the risk on behalf of the performing organization. Which one of the following is NOT an example of the transference risk response?

Options:

A.

Use of insurance

B.

Life cycle costing

C.

Warranties

D.

Performance bonds

Question 56

Which of the following processes is described in the statement below?

"This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives."

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Monitor and Control Risks

Question 57

ISO 17799 has two parts. The first part is an implementation guide with guidelines on how to build a comprehensive information security infrastructure and the second part is an auditing guide based on requirements that must be met for an organization to be deemed compliant with ISO 17799. What are the ISO 17799 domains?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Options:

A.

Information security policy for the organization

B.

System architecture management

C.

Business continuity management

D.

System developmentand maintenance

E.

Personnel security

Question 58

You are preparing to complete the quantitative risk analysis process with your project team and several subject matter experts. You gather the necessary inputs including the project's cost management plan. Why is it necessary to include the project's cost management plan in the preparation for the quantitative risk analysis process?

Options:

A.

The project's cost management plan can help you to determine what the total cost of the project is allowed to be.

B.

The project's cost management plan provides direction on how costs may be changed due to identified risks.

C.

The project's cost management plan provides control that may help determine the structure for quantitative analysis of the budget.

D.

The project's cost management plan is not an input to the quantitative risk analysis process .

Question 59

Which of the following fields of management focuses on establishing and maintaining consistency of a system's or product's performance and its functional and physical attributes with its requirements, design, and operational information throughout its life?

Options:

A.

Configuration management

B.

Procurement management

C.

Risk management

D.

Change management

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Total 395 questions