IOFM APS Accredited Payables Specialist (APS) Certification Exam Exam Practice Test

TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program covers key U.S. regulations, including the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).Enacted in 1996, HIPAA is designed to protect the privacy and security ofprivate medical records, ensuring that protected health information (PHI) is safeguarded by healthcare providers, insurers, and related entities, including AP departments handling medical-related payments.

Option A (Corporate whistleblower identities): Incorrect. Whistleblower protections are covered under laws like the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, not HIPAA.

Option B (External auditor findings): Incorrect. Auditor findings are related to financial or operational audits, not protected by HIPAA.

Option C (Private medical records): Correct. HIPAA establishes standards to protect PHI, such as patient health records, from unauthorized disclosure.

Option D (Electronic banking information): Incorrect. Banking information is protected under laws like the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, not HIPAA.

Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “HIPAA protects private medical records, ensuring the confidentiality of protected health information (PHI) in transactions involving healthcare providers.” The training video mentions HIPAA in the context of AP compliance, noting that AP staff handling medical vendor payments must ensure PHI is secure.

Wire transfers are a secure and immediate payment method typically used for high-value transactions due to their reliability and speed, despite higher transaction fees compared to other methods like ACH. Organizations commonly use wire transfers for high dollar payments, such as large vendor payments, international transactions, or critical one-time payments.

The web source from Corcentric explains: “Wire transfers are often used for high-value payments where speed and security are critical, such as large supplier payments or international transactions.” This aligns with Option B.

Direct deposit of executive pay (A)is typically handled via ACH for regular payroll.

Low dollar bulk payments (C)are more cost-effectively processed via ACH or checks.

Rent or mortgage payments (D)may use wire transfers in some cases but are not the most common use.

The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including payment methods like wire transfers. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” supports the use of wire transfers for high dollar payments due to their security and immediacy.

When auditing T&E expense reports, a key red flag isamounts just below the approval threshold, as employees may intentionally submit expenses slightly under the limit to avoid additional scrutiny or approval, potentially masking fraudulent or non-compliant claims. This practice, known as “threshold manipulation,” requires close attention during audits.

The web source from Tipalti states: “During T&E audits, pay particular attention to expenses just below the approval threshold, as employees may manipulate amounts to bypass additional review, indicating potential fraud.” This directly supports Option C. The other options are less critical:

Restaurant receipts with client names (A)may be useful for substantiation but are not a primary audit concern.

Highly itemized receipt details (B)are desirable for clarity, not a red flag.

Airfare with hotel costs (D)is a common combination and not inherently suspicious.

The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Travel and Entertainment (T&E),” including auditing techniques for expense reports. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with scrutinizing amounts just below approval thresholds to detect potential fraud.

TheVendor Master Filetopic in the APS Certification Program covers vendor setup guidelines, which ensure consistency, accuracy, and compliance when adding new vendors. Guidelines typically include validating requester authority, standardizing data entry, and checking for duplicates.Whether the vendor outsources its order fulfillment processis a procurement or operational concern, not typically part of VMF setup guidelines.

Option A (Validating that the person who requested the new vendor is authorized to doso): Included, to ensure only authorized personnel initiate vendor setups, reducing fraud risk.

Option B (Whether or not the vendor outsources its order fulfillment process): Not typically included, as this relates to vendor operations, not VMF data or setup compliance. Correct answer.

Option C (The conventions for the way letters and abbreviations must be entered): Included, to ensure consistent data formatting (e.g., “Inc.” vs. “Incorporated”) for accurate reporting.

Option D (Verification that the vendor is not already in the system): Included, to prevent duplicate vendor records, which can lead to errors like double payments.

Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “Vendor setup guidelines include verifying requester authority, standardizing data entry, and checking for duplicates, but operational details like outsourcing fulfillment are handled by Procurement.” The training video notes, “Setup guidelines focus on data integrity and compliance, not vendor business processes like fulfillment.”

Assigning a user name and password is a method ofdata authentication, which verifies the identity of users accessing systems or data to ensure only authorized individuals can perform actions. This is a fundamental security control in accounts payable to protect sensitive financial information. Optical character recognition (Option A) is used for extracting data from documents, robotic process automation (Option B) automates repetitive tasks, and security lockdown (Option D) refers to broader measures like restricting system access during a breach, not specifically user authentication.

The web source from Esker states: “Data authentication, such as assigning user names and passwords, ensures that only authorized personnel can access sensitive AP systems and data.” This directly supports Option C.

The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including security measures like authentication to protect AP processes. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with using user names and passwords as a standard authentication method.

TheVendor Master Filetopic in the APS Certification Program emphasizes fraud prevention through robust vendor validation processes. Key practices include confirming a vendor’s physical address, checking government sanction lists (e.g., OFAC), and requiring a W-9 to verify tax identification numbers (TINs). However,verifying that vendors are bonded(i.e., insured against financial loss) is not a standard requirement for vendor fraud prevention, as it is more relevant to specific industries (e.g., construction) and not universally applicable.

Option A (Confirmation of a physical address): Verifying a physical address ensures the vendor is a legitimate entity, reducing the risk of fraudulent shell companies. This is a key practice.

Option B (Verifying that vendors are bonded): Bonding is not a standard AP requirement for fraud prevention. It may apply to certain vendors (e.g., contractors), but it is not essential for all vendor fraud prevention programs. This is the correct answer.

Option C (Checking government sanction lists): Checking lists like OFAC (Office of Foreign Assets Control) ensures compliance with regulations and prevents payments to sanctioned entities, a critical fraud prevention step. This is a key practice.

Option D (Requiring a W-9): A W-9 provides the vendor’s TIN, enabling verification with the IRS to prevent fraudulent identities and ensure tax compliance. This is a key practice.

Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filelists “confirming physical addresses, checking sanction lists, and requiring W-9 forms” as essential for vendor fraud prevention. It notes that “bonding is not a universal requirement for vendor validation,though it may be relevant for specific contracts.” The training video emphasizes vendor verification processes, highlighting address checks, sanction list reviews, and W-9 requirements but not bonding.

A blanket purchase order (PO) is a long-term agreement with a supplier to purchase goods or services over a specified period, often used for recurring or high-volume purchases. A key limitation is that itshould not extend past a specified timeframe, as blanket POs are typically set for a defined duration (e.g., one year) to manage pricing, terms, and supplier commitments. Extending beyond this timeframe without renegotiation can lead to pricing discrepancies or supply chain issues.

The web source from NetSuite explains: “A blanket purchase order covers multiple deliveries over a set period, but it is limited by a specified timeframe to ensure pricing and terms remain valid.” This directly supports Option B. The other options are incorrect:

Option A: Blanket POs can be used for both goods and services, not just services.

Option C: Payment terms for blanket POs vary and are not restricted to same-day wire transfers.

Option D: Blanket POs are designed for multiple deliveries over time, not a specific delivery date.

The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Invoices,” including the use of purchase orders in invoice processing. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” supports the understanding of blanket POs and their time-bound nature.

Data security in accounts payable requires a comprehensive approach involvinghardware(Option I, e.g., secure servers and firewalls),software(Option II, e.g., encryption tools and authentication systems), andhuman resources(Option III, e.g., employee training on security protocols and access management). All three components are essential to protect sensitive financial data from breaches and unauthorized access.

The web source from Corcentric states: “Effective data security in AP combines hardware, such as secure servers, software, like encryption and access controls, and human resources, through training and policy enforcement, to safeguard sensitive information.” This supports Option D, as all three elements are integral to data security.

The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” emphasizing a multi-faceted approach to data security. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with using hardware, software, and human resources to ensure robust security.

TheVendor Master Filetopic in the APS Certification Program outlines the goals of a vendor management program, which include preventing duplicate payments, ensuring compliance with laws (e.g., IRS reporting), and collecting spend data for procurement.Streamlining sales and use tax processes, while related to AP, is typically handled through tax compliance systems or purchasing processes, not the vendor management program, which focuses on vendor data and relationships.

Option A (Reducing duplicate payments): A key goal, achieved by maintaining accurate vendor master file data to avoid duplicate vendor entries.

Option B (Streamlining sales and use tax process): Not a primary goal. Sales tax processes are managed separately, often through AP or procurement systems, not the vendor management program. Correct answer.

Option C (Collecting spend information for procurement): A goal, as vendor management provides data on spending patterns, aiding procurement negotiations.

Option D (Compliance with laws and regulations): A goal, ensuring vendor data supports IRS reporting (e.g., 1099s) and sanction list compliance.

Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “Vendor management programs aim to reduce duplicate payments, ensure regulatory compliance, and collect spend data for procurement, but sales tax processes are typically managed outside vendor management.” The training video notes, “Vendor management focuses on accurate data to prevent errors like duplicates and support compliance, not directly on tax processes.”

Automation in accounts payable often introduces significant changes, such as new systems or workflows. A good strategy is tounderstand and accept that it will take time to learn a new system(Option D), which involves embracing training, adapting to new processes, and recognizing the learning curve. This proactive approach supports successful implementation and long-term efficiency. Requesting reassignment (Option A), delaying implementation (Option B), or ignoring the change (Option C) are not constructive strategies, as they resist adaptation and hinder organizational progress.

The web source from SAP Concur states: “To manage change from AP automation, employees should embrace the learning process, understanding that mastering new systems takes time and training.” This directly supports Option D.

The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,” including strategies for managing change during automation. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” emphasizes proactive adaptation to new technologies.

TheInternal Controlstopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program covers the design and implementation of internal controls to mitigate risks. When ideal controls (e.g., full segregation of duties) are not feasible due to resource constraints or organizational structure,compensating controlsare implemented as alternative measures to achieve similar risk mitigation. These controlsprovide additional checks or oversight to compensate for the absence of primary controls.

Option A (Interim controls): Interim controls imply temporary measures, not necessarily designed to compensate for missing ideal controls. This is incorrect.

Option B (Stop-gap controls): Stop-gap controls are ad-hoc, temporary fixes, not a formal term in the COSO framework or AP practices. This is incorrect.

Option C (Secondary controls): Secondary controls are not a recognized term in internal control frameworks; they imply less critical controls, not alternatives. This is incorrect.

Option D (Compensating controls): Correct. Compensating controls are alternative measures implemented when ideal controls are not practical, ensuring adequate risk mitigation.

Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, “When ideal controls cannot be implemented, compensating controls provide alternative risk mitigation, such as additional reviews or approvals to address control gaps.” The training video discusses compensating controls in the context of COSO and SOX, noting their use in small organizations where segregation of duties is challenging.

A recurring wire transfer is a payment set up to occur automatically on a regular schedule (e.g., weekly, monthly) to the same recipient organization, such as a vendor or service provider, often for fixed or variable amounts. The defining characteristic is that it ismade to the same organization each time, ensuring consistency in the recipient. The timing (Option A) and amount (Option C) may vary depending on the agreement, and the transfer is not required to use CHIPS (Option D), as wire transfers can be processed through other systems like Fedwire or SWIFT.

The web source from Tipalti states: “A recurring wire transfer is an automated payment to the same organization on a regular schedule, such as for rent or subscriptions, with amounts that may vary.” This directly supports Option B.

The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including wire transfers and recurring payment setups. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with the definition of recurring wire transfers as payments to a consistent recipient.

TheInternal Controlstopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program covers the COSO (Committee of Sponsoring Organizations) framework, a widely recognized model for designing and evaluating internal controls, as mandated by the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX). The COSO framework includes five components: Control Environment, Risk Assessment, Control Activities, Information and Communication, and Monitoring Activities.Accounting principlesare not a COSO component, as they relate to GAAP (Generally Accepted Accounting Principles), not internal control categories.

Option A (Control environment): This is a COSO component, setting the tone for the organization’s control consciousness, including leadership and ethics.

Option B (Information and communication): This is a COSO component, ensuring relevant information is identified, captured, and communicated effectively.

Option C (Risk assessment): This is a COSO component, involving the identification and analysis of risks to achieving objectives.

Option D (Accounting principles): Accounting principles (e.g., GAAP) guide financial reporting but are not part of the COSO framework’s internal control categories. This is the correct answer.

Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, “The COSO framework includes five components: Control Environment, Risk Assessment, Control Activities, Information and Communication, and Monitoring Activities, used to design and testinternal controls.” It distinguishes COSO from GAAP, noting that “accounting principles govern financial reporting, not internal control frameworks.” The training video reinforces this by discussing COSO’s role in SOX compliance, listing the five components and excluding accounting principles.

TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers value-added tax (VAT), a consumption tax levied on the value added at each stage of production or distribution, common in many countries (e.g., EU, Canada). The acronymVATstands forValue Added Tax, a standard term in tax compliance.

Option A (Value assessed tax): Incorrect. This is not a recognized term in tax regulations.

Option B (Variable added tax): Incorrect. The term does not reflect the concept of value added at production stages.

Option C (Variable assessed tax): Incorrect. This is not a standard tax term.

Option D (Value added tax): Correct. VAT is universally known as Value Added Tax, as defined by tax authorities and IOFM materials.

Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancedefines VAT as “Value Added Tax, a tax on the value added at each stage of goods or services production.” The training video explains, “VAT, or Value Added Tax, is a key compliance area for AP in international transactions, requiring accurate invoicing and reporting.”

Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) enables the automated exchange of business documents, such as invoices and purchase orders, between trading partners. While EDI offers efficiency, its adoption by small and medium-sized companies is limited primarily due tocostly technology, including high implementation and maintenance costs for hardware, software, and integration. Government regulations (Option A), staff resistance (Option B), and security concerns (Option D) may pose challenges, but the primary barrier is cost.

The web source from SAP Concur states: “EDI adoption is hindered for small and medium-sized businesses due to the high costs of implementing and maintaining EDI systems, including software and integration expenses.” This directly supports Option C as the primary reason for limited EDI use.

The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,” including technologies like EDI. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” acknowledges barriers to technology adoption, with cost being a significant factor for smaller organizations.

TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers sales and use taxes, which are imposed on the sale or use of goods and services. In the U.S., sales and use taxes are levied bystatesand, in many cases,cities and towns(local jurisdictions). Thefederal governmentdoes not impose sales or use taxes, as this authority is reserved for state and local governments.

Item I (Cities and towns): Many cities and towns impose local sales taxes, often in addition to state taxes, to fund municipal services. This is a valid taxing authority.

Item II (Federal government): The federal government does not levy sales or use taxes; it imposes taxes like income or excise taxes. This is not a valid taxing authority for sales and use taxes.

Item III (States): States are the primary authorities for sales and use taxes, setting rates and rules for taxable transactions. This is a valid taxing authority.

Option A (II and III only): Incorrect, as Item II is not a valid taxing authority.

Option B (III only): Incorrect, as Item I is also a valid taxing authority.

Option C (I and III only): Correct, as only states and local jurisdictions (cities and towns) levy sales and use taxes.

Option D (I, II, and III): Incorrect, as Item II is not a valid taxing authority.

Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “Sales and use taxes are levied by states and local jurisdictions, such as cities and towns, but not by the federal government.” The training video discusses AP’s role in managing sales tax compliance, noting that “states and local governments set sales tax rates, while the federal government does not impose such taxes.”

TheTechnology and Automationtopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program covers strategies for optimizing AP processes, including the establishment of shared services centers (SSCs). SSCs consolidate back-office functions like AP to improve efficiency and reduce costs. Key requirements for a successful SSC include performance metrics to measure success, a customer serviceorientation to support internal and external stakeholders, and a change in mindset to embrace centralized processes. However, agreenfield site(a new, undeveloped location) is not a requirement, as SSCs can be established in existing facilities or virtual environments.

Option A (Performance metrics): Performance metrics (e.g., cost per invoice, processing time) are essential to evaluate the SSC’s efficiency and ensure alignment with organizational goals. This is a requirement.

Option B (A customer service orientation): SSCs must prioritize service to internal clients (e.g., departments) and external stakeholders (e.g., vendors), ensuring smooth communication and issue resolution. This is a requirement.

Option C (A greenfield site): A greenfield site refers to a new facility built from scratch. SSCs can operate in existing offices, leased spaces, or even digitally, making a greenfield site unnecessary. This is the correct answer, as it is not required.

Option D (A change in mindset): Transitioning to an SSC requires employees and management to adopt a centralized, process-driven approach, moving away from decentralized silos. This cultural shift is a requirement.

Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTechnology and Automationdiscusses SSCs as a way to “streamline AP through centralized processes, requiring performance metrics, a service-oriented approach, and a cultural shift to succeed.” It notes that SSCs can be established in various locations, with no mention of a greenfield site as a necessity. The training video highlights case studies of SSCs, emphasizing metrics and mindset changes but not physical site requirements.

TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program highlights the importance of a sound records management plan for AP processes, particularly for compliance, security, and financialanalysis. A records management plan ensures that documents (e.g., invoices, vendor data) are organized, secure, and accessible, supporting legal protection, information security, and expenditure analysis.

Item I (To afford some protection against lawsuits): A records management plan ensures documentation is available to defend against legal claims, such as vendor disputes or audits, providing evidence of compliance. This is a valid reason.

Item II (To safeguard vital information): Records management protects sensitive data (e.g., vendor TINs, payment details) from loss or unauthorized access, ensuring confidentiality and compliance. This is a valid reason.

Item III (To analyze and manage expenditures): Records management enables AP to track and analyze spending patterns, supporting budgeting and cost control. This is a valid reason.

Option A (III only): Incorrect, as Items I and II are also valid reasons.

Option B (I and II only): Incorrect, as Item III is also a valid reason.

Option C (I, II, and III): Correct, as all three items are reasons for a sound records management plan.

Option D (I only): Incorrect, as Items II and III are also valid reasons.

Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, “A sound records management plan protects against lawsuits by maintaining auditable records, safeguards vital information like vendor data, and enables expenditure analysis for cost management.” The training video discusses records management as a critical control, citing its role in legal compliance, data security, and financial oversight.

In the context of accounts payable and financial operations, the acronymFIFOstands forFirst In, First Out, a method commonly used in inventory management and accounting to assume that the earliest goods purchased (first in) are sold or used first (first out). This affects cost of goods sold and inventory valuation. The other options are not relevant: “Fifty Invested, Five Optioned” (Option B), “Fraud In Financial Operations” (Option C), and “Final Invoice For Offset” (Option D) are not standard terms in AP or accounting.

The web source from SAP Concur states: “FIFO, or First In, First Out, is an inventory accounting method where the earliest goods received are recorded as sold first, impacting financial reporting.” This directly supports Option A.

The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including accounting principles like FIFO that affect financial processes. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with understanding FIFO as a standard method in inventory and cost accounting.

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) of 2002 imposes strict requirements on financial reporting and internal controls for U.S. public companies. For T&E processes, SOX compliance requires accurate recordkeeping to ensure financial transparency (Option I) and a reliable approval workflow to prevent fraud and ensure proper authorization (Option II). While report generation with visibility (Option III) is valuable for oversight, it is not explicitly mandated by SOX, which focuses on controls and documentation rather than specific reporting tools.

The web source from Tipalti states: “SOX compliance for T&E processes requires accurate recordkeeping to support financial reporting and a robust approval workflow to ensure proper authorization and prevent fraud.” This supports Options I and II. Option III, while beneficial, is not a direct SOX requirement, as SOX emphasizes controls over reporting mechanisms.

The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,” including SOX requirements for financial processes like T&E. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with the need for accurate records and reliable approvals to meet SOX standards.

Data security concerns in accounts payable involve protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access or misuse. Key concerns includewhat data is being accessed(Option I, e.g., sensitive vendor or financial data),who is accessing the data(Option II, e.g., authorized vs. unauthorized users), andfor what purpose the data is being used(Option III, e.g., legitimate business needs vs. fraudulent activities). All three are critical to ensuring data security.

The web source from Esker states: “Data security in AP requires monitoring what data is accessed, who is accessing it, and the purpose of access to prevent unauthorized use or breaches.” This supports Option D, as all three elements are essential data security concerns.

The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including data security practices. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with comprehensive monitoring of data access, users, and purposes to safeguard sensitive information.

TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers sales tax exemptions, particularly for goods purchased for resale (e.g., by wholesalers or retailers). To claim a sales tax exemption, the buyer must provide anexemption certificateto the seller, documenting that the goods are for resale and not subject to sales tax at the point of purchase. The seller retains this certificate for audit purposes.

Option A (File a letter of intent with the local taxing jurisdiction): Incorrect. A letter of intent is not a standard requirement; the exemption is documented via a certificate provided to the seller.

Option B (Provide an exemption certificate to the seller): Correct. An exemption certificate (e.g., a resale certificate) verifies the buyer’s intent to resell the goods, exempting the transaction from sales tax.

Option C (Inform the state in writing that the tax will be paid by the buyer): Incorrect. The buyer does not directly notify the state; the exemption is handled between buyer and seller via the certificate.

Option D (Supply a copy of a sales tax license to the seller): Incorrect. While a sales tax license may be relevant for the buyer’s operations, the exemption certificate is the specific document required for resale exemptions.

Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “To claim a sales tax exemption for goods purchased for resale, the buyer must provide an exemption certificate to the seller, documenting the resale intent.” The training video explains, “AP professionals ensure exemption certificates are collected for resale purchases to avoid unnecessary sales tax payments, maintaining compliance with state regulations.”

An accountable plan, as defined by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS), is a reimbursement or allowance arrangement for business expenses, including Travel and Entertainment (T&E), that meets three specific requirements to avoid being treated as taxable income: (1)Expense substantiation, where employees must provide documented evidence (e.g., receipts) for expenses; (2)Business connection requirement, meaning expenses must be incurred in connection with performing services for the employer; and (3)Return of unused cash advances on a timely basis, ensuring any excess advances are returned within a reasonable period (typically 120 days). All three elements (Options I, II, and III) are required for a T&E accountable plan.

The web source from the IRS states: “An accountable plan must meet three requirements: 1) Employees must have paid or incurred expenses while performing services as an employee (business connection); 2) Employees must adequately account for these expenses within areasonable period (substantiation); and 3) Employees must return any excess allowance or advance within a reasonable period.” This directly supports Option B, as all three elements are included in the IRS definition.

The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,” including IRS regulations for T&E accountable plans. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” and compliance with federal tax laws emphasizes the three IRS requirements, confirming that all three elements are essential.

Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) is a payment process where invoices are not required from the vendor. Instead, payment is triggered based on the purchase order (PO) and receiving documents, streamlining the accounts payable process by eliminating invoice processing. A successful ERS program relies on accurate POs and receiving data, standardized pricing, and clear terms with vendors. The exclusion of early pay discounts is a key feature, as ERS payments are typically made on a fixed schedule based on receipt of goods, not invoice terms that include discount incentives.

The web source from Esker explains: “Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) is a procedure for paying suppliers without requiring a paper invoice from the supplier… Payments are triggered by the receipt of goods or services against a purchase order. ERS eliminates the need for supplier invoices, reducing errors and costs.” The source from Corcentric adds: “ERS is designed to streamline payments by using PO and receipt data, typically without early payment discounts, as payments are made on a predictable schedule.” Early pay discounts are excluded because ERS prioritizes automation and predictability over negotiating variable payment terms.

The other options are incorrect:

Billing of miscellaneous charges separately(Option A) complicates ERS, as it requires additional reconciliation outside the PO and receipt data.

Receiving a complete invoice with the shipment(Option B) contradicts the ERS model, which eliminates the need for invoices.

Use of pro forma purchase orders(Option D) is not standard, as ERS relies on firm POs, not provisional ones like pro forma POs.

The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including advanced payment methods like ERS. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices for each phase of the payment process” aligns with the industry standard that ERS programs exclude early pay discounts to ensure streamlined, predictable payments.

International travel introduces specific concerns for accounts payable, particularly in ensuring compliance with tax regulations. A key concern is that employees must collect appropriate Value Added Tax (VAT) information (e.g., VAT invoices or receipts) to enable the organization to reclaim VAT paid on eligible expenses in foreign jurisdictions. This is critical for cost recovery and compliance with international tax laws.

The web source from Avalara states: “For international travel, AP departments must ensure employees collect proper VAT invoices to reclaim taxes, as failure to do so can result in lost savings and compliance issues.” The other options are less directly relevant:

Option A(unscrupulous vendors) is a generalization and not a primary AP concern.

Option C(time zones) affects communication but is not an AP-specific issue.

Option D(exchange rates) is a consideration for budgeting, not AP’s primary responsibility.

The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Travel and Entertainment (T&E)” and “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,” including VAT compliance for international expenses. The curriculum’s emphasis on “peer-tested best practices” supports the importance of collecting VAT information for tax reclamation.

An accountable plan, as defined by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS), is a reimbursement or allowance arrangement that meets specific requirements to ensure business expenses are properly documented and not treated as taxable income. One key requirement is that employees must adequately account for their expenses within a reasonable period. According to IRS guidelines, employees must submit expense reports or other documentation within 60 days after the expenses are incurred to meet the "reasonable period" standard.

The web source from the IRS states: “Under an accountable plan, employees must adequately account to the employer for their expenses within a reasonable period of time. The IRS considers 60 days after the expense was paid or incurred to be a reasonable period for accounting.” This directly supports Option B (60 days). The other options (120 days, 30 days, 90 days) do not align with the IRS’s specific timeframe for accounting under an accountable plan.

The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,” including IRS regulations related to expense reimbursements. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” and compliance with federal tax laws includes understanding the requirements of an accountable plan, such as the 60-day rule for expense accounting.

Procurement card (P-card) statements provide purchase data at different levels of detail. Level 3 detail includes comprehensive transaction information, such as itemized descriptions, quantities, unit prices, and merchant category codes, making it suitable for conducting spend analysis to track spending patterns and optimize procurement strategies. Level 1 provides basic data (e.g., merchant name, amount), and Level 2 includes additional data (e.g., tax amounts), but neither is sufficient for detailed analysis. Level 4 is not a standard term in P-card reporting.

The web source from Corcentric explains: “Level 3 data on P-card statements includes detailed transaction information, such as line-item details and quantities, enabling organizations to perform robust spend analysis.” This confirms that Level 3 detail (Option C) is necessary for spend analysis.

The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including P-card program management and reporting. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” supports the use of Level 3 data for effective spend analysis in P-card programs.

Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) is a payment process that eliminates the need for a supplier invoice by triggering payments based on the purchase order (PO) and receiving documents (e.g., goods received note or delivery receipt). The PO establishes the agreed-upon terms, quantities, and prices, while the receipt confirms the actual delivery of goods or services. This allows payments to be processed without an invoice, streamlining the accounts payable process.

The web source from Esker states: “Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) is a procedure for paying suppliers without requiring a paper invoice from the supplier… Payments are triggered by the receipt of goods or services against a purchase order.” The Corcentric source further clarifies: “ERS requires only the purchase order and receiving documents to initiate payment, eliminating the need for an invoice.” This directly supports Option B (PO and Receipt), as these are the two critical documents for ERS. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they include the invoice, which is not required in ERS.

The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including ERS as an efficient payment method. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices for each phase of the payment process” aligns with the industry standard that ERS relies on the PO and receipt.

TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program addresses fraud prevention, referencing the Association of Certified Fraud Examiners (ACFE) for fraud trends. According to the ACFE’s Report to the Nations,asset misappropriationis the most common type of occupational fraud, involving schemes like theft of cash, inventory, or other assets. It is more frequent than corruption, financial misstatement, or intellectual property fraud due to its simplicity and accessibility in roles like AP.

Option A (Asset misappropriation): Correct. ACFE data consistently shows asset misappropriation as the most common fraud scheme, accounting for over 80% of cases, due to its prevalence in roles with access to funds or assets.

Option B (Intellectual property fraud): Intellectual property fraud is less common, as it requires specialized knowledge and access, and is not a primary AP concern. This is incorrect.

**Option C (Corruption (энер

Answer: A

TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program addresses fraud prevention, referencing the Association of Certified Fraud Examiners (ACFE) for fraud trends. According to the ACFE’sReport to the Nations,asset misappropriationis the most common type of occupational fraud, involving schemes like theft of cash, inventory, or other assets. It is more frequent than corruption, financial misstatement, or intellectual property fraud due to its simplicity and accessibility in roles like accounts payable (AP).

Option A (Asset misappropriation): Correct. The ACFE’sReport to the Nations(2022 edition, as referenced in IOFM materials) states that asset misappropriation accounts for approximately 86% of occupational fraud cases, making it the most common scheme. Examples include stealing cash, falsifying expense reports, or misusing company assets, which are prevalent in AP due to access to payments and vendor data.

Option B (Intellectual property fraud): Intellectual property fraud, such as theft of trade secrets, is less common (less than 5% of cases per ACFE) and typically involves specialized roles, not AP. This is incorrect.

Option C (Corruption (bribery)): Corruption, including bribery and kickbacks, accounts for about 38% of cases (often overlapping with other schemes), but is less frequent than asset misappropriation. This is incorrect.

Option D (Financial misstatement): Financial misstatement, such as falsifying financial reports, is the least common (around 10% of cases) but often involves the highest financial impact. This is incorrect.

Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlscites the ACFE’sReport to the Nations, stating, “Asset misappropriation is the most common fraud scheme, comprising over 80% of cases, due to its ease of execution in roles like AP.” The training videodiscusses fraud risks in AP, emphasizing that “per the ACFE, asset misappropriation, such as cash theft or fraudulent payments, is the most frequent fraud type.”

TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA), enacted in 2010 to combat tax evasion by U.S. taxpayers using foreign accounts. FATCA requires foreign financial institutions (FFIs) to report U.S. account holders’ information to the IRS, making it harder for individuals and organizations to hide income offshore and avoid U.S. taxes.

Option A (To ensure the privacy of individuals or organizations that bank outside of the U.S.): Incorrect. FATCA reduces privacy by requiring FFIs to report account details to the IRS, not protect it.

Option B (To make the rules regarding reporting payments made to U.S. persons and non-U.S. persons more consistent): Incorrect. FATCA focuses on reporting foreign accounts of U.S. taxpayers, not harmonizing payment reporting rules for U.S. and non-U.S. persons.

Option C (To make it more difficult for individuals or organizations to avoid paying taxes by banking outside of the U.S.): Correct. FATCA’s primary purpose is to prevent tax evasion by requiring FFIs and certain non-financial foreign entities to report U.S. account holders’ financial information, ensuring taxable income is reported.

Option D (To respond to attempts by foreign governments to capture taxes on activities of U.S. persons in their countries): Incorrect. FATCA addresses U.S. tax compliance, not foreign governments’ tax policies.

Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “FATCA was enacted to combat tax evasion by requiring foreign financial institutions to report U.S. account holders’ information, making it difficult to avoid taxes through offshore accounts.” TheMaster Guide to Form 1099 Compliance, a recommended IOFM resource, explains, “FATCA ensures compliance by imposing withholding on payments to non-compliant FFIs, targeting U.S. taxpayers hiding income abroad.” The training video reinforces this, noting FATCA’s role in “closing loopholes for offshore tax evasion.”