IIC C11 Principles and Practice of Insurance Exam Practice Test

The coinsurance clause requires the insured to carry insurance equal to a specified percentage (commonly 80%, 90%, or 100%) of the property's value. If the insured carries less than the required amount, they become a coinsurer and share in any partial loss. This prevents underinsurance and encourages insureds to maintain adequate coverage levels.

Here, Deanna insures a $1,000,000 property for only $500,000—50%. If the policy requires 80% coinsurance, she should be carrying at least $800,000. Because she does not, she will not be fully reimbursed for partial losses; her payment will be reduced proportionally based on the coinsurance formula.

Option A (forfeiture) applies to breaches of policy conditions. Option C (contribution) applies when multiple insurers cover the same risk. Option D (subscription) applies when several insurers share a single risk by percentage participation.

Thus, the clause that could reduce Deanna’s recovery is B: Coinsurance.

For a legally binding contract, there must beoffer and acceptance—a clear proposal and a clear, communicated acceptance. In this case, George attempts to treatsilenceas acceptance. According to contract law,silence cannot constitute acceptance, unless there is a prior agreement between the parties stating otherwise. Because his cousin has not actively communicated acceptance, the contract remains incomplete.

Option A is incorrect—consideration exists (money in exchange for books).

Option B is irrelevant—buying textbooks is legal.

Option C does not apply—George is 18 and has legal capacity in Alberta.

The missing element isacceptance, so the correct answer isD.

Mirroringis a communication technique used to build rapport by subtly matching another person’s body language, tone, gestures, or pace of speech. It is widely used in sales, client consultations, and negotiations. When done professionally and subtly, mirroring helps clients feel understood and creates psychological comfort, making it easier to discuss needs and gather accurate underwriting information.

Option B, copycatting, implies obvious or exaggerated imitation and is not a recognized professional communication method. Option C, transparency, refers to openness and honesty, not physical or behavioural alignment. Option D, open listening, is active listening—important, but unrelated to mirroring physical actions.

Since Patrice is deliberatelyperforming similar actionsto his client, he is engaging inmirroring, makingAthe correct answer.

A claims adjuster’s primary initial responsibility is to receive, record, and gather preliminary information about a loss. This includes confirming the identity of the insured, the date and circumstances of the loss, and whether the situation appears to fall within the policy period and coverage. The adjuster also must ask probing questions to obtain the essential facts to begin an investigation. This early information is critical because it guides further steps such as contacting witnesses, arranging inspections, evaluating liability, and determining the need for expert reports.

Option A is incorrect because an adjuster cannot confirm coverage until a full review of the policy and the facts is completed. Option C is incorrect because the adjuster uses an independent adjuster’s report but is not required to “verify no errors” in a formal sense; they assess and evaluate the report’s content. Option D is unrelated to claims adjusting—premium changes are underwriting functions.

Therefore, the adjuster’s correct responsibility at the early stage is to record preliminary details and obtain further necessary information, making B the accurate answer.

The agency or production department within an insurance company is responsible for generating new business, managing distribution channels, working with brokers and agents, and promoting the insurer’s products. These functions align directly with sales and marketing departments found in other industries. Their goals include increasing premium volume, maintaining relationships with intermediaries, and ensuring the insurer’s products reach the marketplace effectively.

Option B is incorrect because finance and production refer to cost control and manufacturing, neither of which parallels insurance distribution. Option C does not align because administration and HR handle internal operations, not customer acquisition. Option D deals with internal systems and support functions, unrelated to the business-production role of generating and selling insurance.

Therefore, the insurer’s agency or production department corresponds to A: Sales and marketing.

Asurety bondis a three-party contract in which the surety guarantees the performance of a contractor (principal) for the benefit of a third party (obligee). In construction, a developer may require a contractor to post aperformance bondensuring the project will be completed as agreed. This is the classic example of suretyship.

Option A is banking, not surety.

Option B is liability insurance, not a three-party guarantee.

Option D involves marine or cargo insurance, not a performance guarantee.

Thus,Ccorrectly describes a surety situation.

Amanuscript wordingis a policy or endorsement crafted specifically for an individual client or an unusual risk exposure. It iscustom-writtenand negotiated between the insurer and the insured (or their broker). These wordings are used when standard forms do not adequately describe or protect a particular exposure, usually for large commercial clients, unique operations, or highly specialized risks.

Option A refers tostandardwordings, which are pre-written, commonly used forms approved by insurers or industry bodies.

Option B (chattel) refers to movable personal property, not policy wording.

Option C (treaty) refers to reinsurance agreements between insurers and reinsurers, not client-facing policy forms.

Therefore, the only option describing a custom-written policy wording isD: Manuscript.

The principle of utmost good faith (uberrima fides) is fundamental to all insurance contracts. It requires a higher standard of honesty than ordinary commercial agreements because the insurer must rely on the applicant to disclose all material facts that could affect the underwriting decision. The insured has superior knowledge of the risk, and failure to disclose material information can jeopardize the insurer's ability to assess the exposure properly.

Option B is incorrect because utmost good faith is not required inalllegal contracts—only in specific types where one party must rely heavily on the full disclosure of the other, such as insurance. Option C is partially related—breachescanlead to policy voidance—but that is a consequence, not the definition. Option D is incorrect because utmost good faith refers to the presence of elevated honesty, not the absence of negligence.

Therefore, the best explanation is A: Requires a high standard of honesty.

A contract becomes voidable when one party is induced to enter it through fraudulent misrepresentation. Fraudulent misrepresentation occurs when a party knowingly makes a false statement, intending to mislead the other party, and the misled party relies on that statement when entering the contract. In this scenario, the seller knew the house had termites but intentionally misrepresented the truth when questioned by Karl. This is a deliberate falsehood, fulfilling all elements of fraud: false representation, knowledge of falsity, intent to induce reliance, actual reliance, and resulting detriment.

Undue influence involves pressure or dominance, which is not present. A mistake about assumptions only applies when both parties are mistaken in good faith about a fundamental fact—here the seller acted deliberately. Innocent misrepresentation involves an unintentional error, but the scenario explicitly describes intentional deception. Thus, the correct legal classification is fraudulent misrepresentation.

Comprehensive Explanation (150–250 words):

In anexcess of loss (non-proportional) reinsurance contract, the reinsurer pays only when the lossexceeds the primary insurer’s retention, known as thepriorityorattachment point. In this question, the priority is$80,000. This means reinsurance doesnotrespond unless the loss exceeds $80,000.

Here, the actual loss is$60,000, which isbelowthe attachment point. Because the loss never reaches the $80,000 threshold, the reinsurer owesnothing. Theentire lossremains the responsibility of the primary insurer.

The reinsurer’s limit of $100,000 only becomes relevant if the loss exceeds $80,000, which is not the case here.

Therefore, the primary insurer pays100% of the $60,000 loss.

Correct answer:D.

Post-loss objectives focus on how an organization continues functioningafter a loss has occurred. One of the most important objectives ismaintaining stable earnings. Even after a major loss event—such as fire, equipment breakdown, or business interruption—the organization aims to minimize financial volatility and continue operating with predictable revenue. Insurance and effective recovery planning help achieve this stability.

Option A (peace of mind) is apre-losspsychological benefit. Option C (internal obligations) is vague and not defined as a post-loss risk management goal. Option D (external development) relates to business growth, which is unrelated to loss response.

Therefore, the recognized post-loss objective isB: Stable earnings.

Insurers in Canada are heavily regulated in the way they invest their capital because they must remain financially strong to pay future claims. Government regulations—federal for federally regulated insurers and provincial for provincially regulated insurers—set out specific investment restrictions, including prohibiting certain high-risk or illiquid investments. These rules protect policyholders by ensuring insurers maintain solvency and liquidity.

Insurers must invest prudently in order to meet long-term obligations, and therefore regulators specify the classes of investments deemed too risky or unsuitable. This includes limits on speculative investments or holdings that could jeopardize stability.

Option A is incorrect because insurers arenotrequired to invest in non-liquid assets; in fact, liquidity is important.

Option B is incorrect; although some foreign investments may be allowed, the statement is not a broad principle of regulation.

Option C is incorrect because insurers face significant restrictions, not complete freedom.

Thus, D is the correct answer.

New business clients often want to present themselves aslow-riskto secure better premium rates. As a result, they may be cautious about reporting small claims or may practice better loss prevention—at least initially. This can make new business perform better from a loss-ratio perspective.

However,renewal clients may become less cautiousover time or more willing to submit smaller claims once they are already insured. Additionally, insurers sometimes relax underwriting scrutiny on renewals compared to new applications, which can further widen performance differences.

Option A (automated renewals) does not inherently affect claims behaviour.

Option B is incorrect—renewal underwriting is typicallyless strict, not more.

Option C is false; reinsurance availability does not differ based on new vs. renewal status.

Thus, the factor most likely contributing to poorer renewal performance isD: New business clients limit claims to keep premiums low, improving their initial results relative to renewals.

If you haveQuestions 85 onward, feel free to send them!

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (150–250 words):

Amortgage clauseis a specialized provision within property insurance policies that protects the financial interest of amortgagee—typically a bank or lending institution—when real property is used as collateral for a loan. Under thePrinciples and Practice of Insurance, this clause creates aseparate contract of insurancebetween the mortgagee and the insurer. This is critical because it ensures that the mortgagee’s protection remains intact even if the insured violates policy conditions (such as failing to maintain the property or committing fraud).

This clause ensures that any loss settlement will first satisfy the mortgagee’s insurable interest before any residual payment goes to the property owner. It also obligates the insurer to notify the mortgagee of policy cancellation or material changes, providing the lender an opportunity to take protective measures, such as force-placed insurance.

The mortgage clause is distinct from other clauses: abailee clauserelates to property held by others for repair or cleaning, alienholder clauseis used for movable property like automobiles, and anadditional interest clauseoffers limited notice but not the full contractual protection afforded to a mortgagee. Thus, the correct and most protective clause for real property isB. Mortgage clause.

A hazard is a condition that increases the likelihood or severity of a loss. Installing anti-slip flooring reduces the chance of slips and falls, thereby reducing a hazard. This is an example of loss prevention—altering physical conditions to make an environment safer.

Option B increases danger because high beams on a busy highway can blind other drivers. Option C significantly increases fire hazard because sprinkler systems provide automatic fire suppression. Option D exposes items to damage during transit, increasing rather than decreasing hazard.

Therefore, the only option that clearly reduces a hazard is A: installing anti-slip floor tile.

Insurable interest exists when someone would suffer a financial loss if a person or property were damaged, lost, or deceased. Employers have a legitimate, recognized insurable interest in the lives of key employees, as their death or disability could result in financial loss—for example, reduced productivity, training costs, or loss of specialized expertise. Therefore, A represents a valid and legally recognized insurable interest.

Option B involves investment income earned by insurers—this is not an insurable interest but a financial outcome of operations. Option C reflects a business motive but not an insurable interest because an underwriter does not stand to personally lose financially if a policyholder dies or property is damaged. Option D is generally invalid unless the employee can demonstrate a direct financial dependency, which is typically not the case.

Thus, the only clear example of insurable interest is A: the employer’s interest in the life of an employee.

Loss adjusters are required to conduct themselves with professionalism, fairness, and integrity. Their responsibilities include explaining how coverage applies, gathering facts, assessing damage, and ensuring the claim is handled according to policy terms and applicable law. This includes respecting legal requirements and proper interpretation of insurance statutes and conditions.

However, adjusters must not provide legal advice. Legal advice is the domain of licensed lawyers. Adjusters may explain policy terms, clarify obligations, or interpret claims procedures, but they cannot advise a claimant on legal strategy, liability, lawsuit responses, or legal rights beyond policy interpretation. Doing so breaches professional boundaries and regulatory expectations.

Therefore, the only option that isnota responsibility is D: Provide legal advice, making it the correct answer.

Insurance policies require the insured to report all accidents promptly, even when they appear minor. By settling privately and failing to notify the insurer, Mark violated a fundamental policy condition. This breach is significant because it prejudices the insurer’s rights: the insurer lost the opportunity to investigate, defend, or control settlement negotiations. Under the statutory conditions (especially for automobile insurance), failure to report may result in the forfeiture of the insured’s right to recovery.

Option A is incorrect because limitation periods vary and do not automatically cause a denial; moreover, the issue is the insured's breach, not limitation law. Option C is incorrect because this is a liability claim, not accident benefits. Option D is incorrect because the current policy does not automatically cover past unreported accidents, and coverage can be denied if the insured breached statutory reporting conditions.

Thus, the insurer will most likely deny coverage because Mark forfeited his rights by failing to report the loss, making B correct.

This question is identical to Question 25, so the correct answer and reasoning are the same. Whether an adjuster is a staff employee or an independent contractor, they are hiredto represent the insurerin the claims process. They are both compensated by the insurer—staff adjusters through salary and benefits, independent adjusters through fees or billing arrangements. Both must meet licensing requirements established by provincial regulatory bodies, conduct investigations, and report their findings to the insurer. They are also both subject to authority limits on claim settlement.

Thus, the only option that correctly reflects their similarity isB: both serve and are paid by insurers.

Unearned premium is the portion of the premium that corresponds to the period of insurance not yet elapsed. When an insured prepays a premium (often for a 12-month policy), the insurer earns that premium gradually over the policy term as time passes. Any amount relating to future coverage—coverage the insurer has not yet provided—is considered unearned premium. It represents a liability on the insurer’s balance sheet because if the policy is cancelled, the insurer must refund the unearned portion to the insured, subject to policy terms.

Option A is the opposite: that describes earned premium, not unearned premium. Option B is incorrect because unearned premium is unrelated to claims payments; it is a time-based accounting concept. Option D is incorrect because broker commissions are not part of earned or unearned premium calculations; they are an expense paid out of the premium.

Therefore, the correct definition is C: the premium for the remaining period of insurance that has not yet passed.

The Canadian Insurance Claims Managers Association (CICMA) is a professional body composed of senior claims managers across the Canadian insurance industry. Its principal purpose is to promote high ethical standards, professionalism, fairness, and integrity in claims handling. CICMA supports education, networking, and the sharing of best practices to ensure consistency and ethical conduct across insurers.

Option A is incorrect because CICMA does not evaluate or adjudicate claims; individual insurers and provincial accident benefit systems handle those tasks. Option B is incorrect because fraud detection is handled by insurers and sometimes by the Insurance Bureau of Canada (IBC). Option C is unrelated—vehicle damageability research is conducted by organizations such as the Insurance Institute for Highway Safety or similar bodies.

CICMA’s work emphasizes ethics, professional development, and claims leadership, which align directly with option D.

A cover note is a temporary document issued by a broker or agent to confirm that insurance coverage has been arranged and is in force, pending the issuance of the formal policy. It is typically used when immediate proof of insurance is required before the insurer can produce the finalized policy wording. Cover notes outline essential information such as the insured’s name, type of coverage, limits, and effective dates.

Option A is incorrect because a cover note is not a contract between insurer and broker. Option B describes an endorsement, not a cover note. Option C refers to internal file documentation but does not serve as official proof of insurance.

Thus, the correct definition is option D: a document issued to the insured confirming that temporary coverage is effective until the formal policy is issued.

In insurance law, the insurer bears the burden of proving that the insured failed to disclose a material fact. Material facts are those that would influence an underwriter’s decision to accept, rate, or decline the risk. If an insurer alleges concealment or misrepresentation, the onus lies with the insurer to establish—through underwriting evidence, policy documentation, and testimony—that the fact was material and that nondisclosure affected the insurer’s judgment.

Option A is incorrect because the broker is merely an intermediary. Option C is not correct because the insured’s role is to answer questions truthfully, but the legal burden of proof in court rests with the insurer when making the accusation. Option D, a third party, has no role in proving concealment.

Therefore, the insurer must satisfy the court that a material concealment occurred, making B correct.

Indemnity means restoring the insured to the financial position they occupied immediately before the loss—no better, no worse. Since the loss amount is$180,000, this is the amount required to fully indemnify the insured.

Although the policy limit is$400,000, the insurer does not pay policy limits unless the loss equals or exceeds the limit. The ACV of $380,000 is irrelevant here because the loss ispartial, not total. ACV only caps reimbursement in cases of total loss or when replacement cost is not available.

Option B ($200,000) has no basis in any indemnity or co-insurance formula.

Options C and D refer to total loss payouts, not applicable here.

Thus, the amount that indemnifies Kamal isA: $180,000.

The typical privacy-breach response sequence used in Canadian insurance organizations follows four steps:

Contain the breachand secure the data (stop further exposure).

Evaluate the risks— determine sensitivity of data, potential harm, affected individuals, and severity.

Notifythose who must be informed (affected clients, regulators, privacy commissioners, insurers, or law enforcement).

Prevent recurrence— investigate causes and implement corrective measures.

Since Step 1 is containment and Step 2 is risk evaluation, thethirdstep isnotification.

Therefore, the correct answer isC.

A stock insurance company operates with the same capital structure as other conventional for-profit corporations. Ownership is represented by shares of stock, held by shareholders who supply capital and expect a return on investment. Profits are distributed as dividends or reinvested into the company. This structure aligns closely with traditional corporate financial frameworks in Canadian commerce.

Option B, a captive company, is owned by a parent business to insure its own risks—not structured like a general capital corporation. Option C, a co-operative company, is owned by its policyholders or members, not shareholders. Option D (factory mutual company) refers to a mutual insurer owned by its policyholders and requiring high loss-prevention standards.

Thus, the only insurer type that mirrors the capital structure of typical Canadian corporate enterprises is the stock company, making A correct.

A telephone adjuster (often called an inside adjuster) handles claims that can be resolved quickly without requiring in-person investigation. Their main role is to efficiently process a high volume of straightforward claims, such as small auto physical-damage losses, minor property losses, and simple theft claims.

Because these claims do not require field investigations, telephone adjusters focus on gathering information by phone, confirming coverage, arranging payments, and closing files promptly.

Option B is incorrect—telephone adjusters do not take instructions from staff adjusters; they operate independently within their own authority levels.

Option C is incorrect—they do not process paperwork for independent adjusters.

Option D is incorrect—they are not intermediaries; they serve the insurer directly.

The correct function is A: processing a large volume of claims.

In anon-proportional excess of losscontract, the reinsurer pays only the amountabove the retention (the deductible), up to its limit.

Retention =$300,000

Reinsurer’s limit =$600,000

Maximum reinsurance payout =$600,000

Now apply it to a$600,000 loss:

Cover It Insurance pays the first$300,000(its retention).

The remaining$300,000is within the reinsurer’s limit, so ZYX-Reinsurance pays$300,000.

Option A is incorrect—loss does not exceed retention, so reinsurer pays nothing.

Option B is incorrect—no reinsurance applies below $300,000.

Option D is incorrect because for a $900,000 loss, reinsurer would pay themaximum limit of $600,000, but Cover It would pay $300,000 retention plus the remaining $0? Actually total loss 900k: cover it pays 300k retention + 0 above? No, Cover It also pays any amount above reinsurance layer -> 900k minus 300k retention minus 600k limit = 0. The answer shown is still incorrect based on the numbers.

OnlyCis correctly calculated.

In insurance terminology, aspeculative riskis a situation where there is a possibility of either financial gain or financial loss, depending on how events unfold. This is what makes it different from apure risk, where the only possible outcomes are loss or no loss (but never a profit). Examples of speculative risk include investing in the stock market, starting a business, or buying foreign currency. In each of these situations, you may end up with a profit, break even, or suffer a loss.

Because speculative risks involve the potential for profit, they are generally not insurable. Insurance is designed to respond to pure risks, such as the risk of fire damaging a building, or a car accident causing injury or property damage. In those cases, there is no opportunity for financial gain from the event itself—only the chance of economic loss or no loss at all.

Therefore, the defining characteristic of speculative risk, and the correct answer to this question, is the possibility of either gain or loss, which is captured by option D.

Spacecraft liability is anextremely specialized, high-severity, low-frequency riskrequiring underwriting expertise not found in standard insurers. TheLloyd’s marketis internationally known for insuring unique, complex, and unusual risks—from satellites and spacecraft to aviation and marine exposures. Lloyd’s operates as a marketplace of syndicates, allowing multiple underwriters to participate in a single risk, making it ideal for large and unusual exposures.

A health/life insurer (B) is irrelevant; they do not underwrite commercial liability exposures.

A captive insurer (C) could theoretically insure such a risk but requires the client tocreate and fundtheir own insurance company—impractical unless they are very large and sophisticated.

Government insurers (D) generally insure auto, workers' comp, or agricultural risks—not spacecraft.

Thus the best recommendation isA: Lloyd’s Insurance Market.