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IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 Practice of Internal Auditing Exam Practice Test

Practice of Internal Auditing Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Which of the following is not a primary reason for outsourcing a portion of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

To gain access to a wider variety of skills, competencies and best practices.

B.

To complement existing expertise with a required skill and competency for a particular audit engagement.

C.

To focus on and strengthen core audit competencies.

D.

To provide the organization with appropriate contingency planning for the internal audit function.

Question 2

According to IIA guidance, which of the following describes the primary reason to implement environmental and social safeguards within an organization?

Options:

A.

To enable Triple Bottom Line reporting capability.

B.

To facilitate the conduct of risk assessment

C.

To achieve and maintain sustainable development.

D.

To fulfill regulatory and compliance requirements.

Question 3

Internal control questionnaires are used to achieve which of the following objectives?

Options:

A.

To ascertain the operating effectiveness of a procedure

B.

To verify the accuracy of Information in a report

C.

To assess the controls mitigating major risks

D.

To determine whether specified contra procedures are in place

Question 4

An engagement team is being assembled to audit of one of the organization's vendors Which of the following statements best applies to this scenario?

Options:

A.

The engagement team should include internal auditors who have expertise in investigating vendor fraud

B.

The engagement team should be composed of certified accountants who are proficient In financial statement analysis and local accounting principles

C.

To preserve independence and objectivity, an auditor who worked for the vendor two years prior may not participate on the engagement team

D.

The engagement team may include an auditor who lacks knowledge of the industry in which the vendor operates

Question 5

An internal auditor wants to assess whether the organization's governing body was involved in strategic decisions for the use of social media. What could provide the most relevant evidence?

Options:

A.

The board's meeting minutes

B.

The executive committee’s social media budget report

C.

The organization’s marketing plan

D.

The organization’s procedures manual for daily social media management

Question 6

While conducting a review of the logistics department the internal audit team identified a crucial control weakness. The chief audit executive (CAE) decided to prepare an audit memorandum for management of the logistics department followed by an informal meeting What is the most likely reason the CAE decided to prepare the audit memorandum?

Options:

A.

To report up-to-date audit progress to management

B.

To ensure that the internal audit team and the CAE are aligned with regard to the identified weakness

C.

To allow management to address the identified weakness timely

D.

To obtain management's agreement with regard to the identified weakness

Question 7

Which of the following would be the most helpful to a chief audit executive when developing a talent management strategy?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Staff preferences

C.

Maturity analysis

D.

Extent of external audit coverage

Question 8

Which of the following is not an outcome of control self-assessment?

Options:

A.

Informal, soft controls are omitted, and greater focus is placed on hard controls.

B.

The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructure of an organization is subject to greater monitoring and continuous improvement.

C.

Internal auditors become involved in and knowledgeable about the self-assessment process.

D.

Nonaudit employees become experienced in assessing controls and associating control processes with managing risks.

Question 9

Which of the following is an advantage of utilizing an external fraud specialist in a suspected fraud investigation?

Options:

A.

Increased access to the organization’s employees.

B.

Increased ability to preserve evidence and the chain of command.

C.

Increased ability to scrutinize the organization's key business processes.

D.

Increased access to the organization’s software and proprietary data.

Question 10

Which of the following components should be included in an audit finding?

1. The scope of the audit.

2. The standard(s) used by the auditor to make the evaluation.

3. The engagement's objectives.

4. The factual evidence that the internal auditor found in the course of the examination.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

Question 11

Which of the following best describes the risk contained in an initial public offering for a new stock?

Options:

A.

Residual risk.

B.

Net risk.

C.

Inherent risk.

D.

Underlying risk

Question 12

During planning, the chief audit executive submits a risk-and-control questionnaire to management of the activity under review. Which of the following statements is true regarding the questionnaire?

Options:

A.

It would be an inefficient way for internal auditors to address multiple controls in the activity under review.

B.

It would limit certain members of the internal audit team from being fully involved in the engagement.

C.

It would be the most effective way for the internal audit team to obtain a detailed understanding of the processes and controls in the activity to be audited.

D.

It would be an efficient way for the internal audit team to determine whether specified control activities are in place.

Question 13

Some lime after the final audit report was issued, the engagement supervisor teamed that several internal control deficiencies were not remedied, despite management's previous agreement to remedy them According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate response'5

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor must notify the chief audit executive (CAE) that the deficiencies have not been rectified

B.

The engagement supervisor should rely on professional judgment as to whether the CAE should be informed, or the management action plan should be adjusted

C.

The engagement supervisor should rely on his negotiation skills and issue an ultimatum to management to remedy the control deficiencies

D.

Ensure that these deficiencies are captured in the documentation as high-priority areas to be reviewed during the next audit.

Question 14

According to the IIA Code of Ethics, which of the following is required with regard to communicating results?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor should present material information to appropriate personnel within the organization without revealing confidential matters that could be detrimental to the organization

B.

The internal auditor should disclose all material information obtained by the date of the final engagement communication.

C.

The internal auditor should obtain all material information within the established time and budget parameters.

D.

The internal auditor should reveal material facts that could potentially distort the reporting of activities under review

Question 15

An internal auditor is analyzing sates records and is concerned whether a transaction is recorded in the coned period. The accounting manager explains that the external auditor approved the records and produces an email from the external audit team leader. How should tie internal auditor respond?

Options:

A.

Ask the external auditor to review the same transaction again as an independent third party

B.

Consult account accounting principles, standards, and relevant guidelines in regard to timing of the entry

C.

Interview the chief financial officer and obtain her opinion on how the transactions should be recorded

D.

Compare the recording of this transaction to now similar ones were executed last year

Question 16

Which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The scope of the engagement should be planned according to the internal audit activity’s budget and then aligned to the risk universe.

B.

The audit engagement objectives should be based on operational management's view of risk objectives.

C.

The planning phase of the engagement should be completed and approved before the fieldwork of the engagement begins.

D.

The main purpose of the engagement work program is to determine the nature and timing of procedures required to gather audit evidence.

Question 17

Which of the following best demonstrates internal auditors performing their work with proficiency?

Options:

A.

internal auditors meet with operational management at each phase of the audit process.

B.

Internal auditors adhere to The IIA's Code of Ethics.

C.

Internal auditors work collaboratively with their engagement team.

D.

Internal auditors complete a program of continuing professional development.

Question 18

In addition to gathering information, which of the following is a primary objective of a client interview conducted during the planning stage of an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

To obtain sufficient audit evidence.

B.

To test the client's knowledge.

C.

To agree on the auditor’s scope of authority.

D.

To establish rapport.

Question 19

Which of the following statements describes an engagement planning best practice?

Options:

A.

It is best to determine planning activities on a case-by-case basis because they can vary widely from engagement to engagement.

B.

If the engagement subject matter is not unique, it is not necessary to outline specific testing procedures during the planning phase.

C.

The engagement plan includes the expected distribution of the audit results, which should be kept confidential until the audit report is final.

D.

Engagement planning activities include setting engagement objectives that align with audit client's business objectives.

Question 20

Which of the following situations is most critical for the chief audit executive to report to the board?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive disagreed with the business unit manager's initial decision to accept a particular risk Management ultimately agreed to address the risk only after discussing the issue with senior management.

B.

The internal audit activity was restructured, which resulted in a significant change in responsibilities among audit managers and supervisors for some audits

C.

A staff internal auditor had difficulties completing a portion of the audit because management of the area under review was unwilling to cooperate and provide information timely.

D.

The resignation of an internal audit manager during the year caused the chief audit executive to defer a number of audit engagements to the following year.

Question 21

During an audit of the accounts payable process, an internal auditor was assigned to confirm the quantity of goods received on receiving documents to invoices for those goods and subsequent postings in the accounting system. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate for this test?

Options:

A.

Independent confirmation

B.

Tracing

C.

Vouching

D.

Reperformance

Question 22

An organization does not have a formal risk management function. According to the Standards, which of the following are conditions where the internal audit activity may provide risk management consulting?

There is a clear strategy and timeline to migrate risk management responsibility back to management.

The internal audit activity has the final approval on any risk management decisions.

The internal audit activity gives objective assurance on all parts of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

The nature of services provided to the organization is documented in the internal audit charter.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

2 and 4 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

2 and 3 only.

Question 23

The chief audit executive (CAE) of an organization has completed this year’s risk-based audit plan and realized that current staff resources are insufficient to meet the needs of the plan. What course of action should the CAE take?

Options:

A.

Amend the audit plan so that available audit resources are adequate to meet the plan’s requirements.

B.

Inform the board and senior management of the resources needed, as well as the associated risks.

C.

Communicate early to those unit managers whose areas would most likely not be able to get reviewed.

D.

Get approval from human resources regarding overtime payment to be made in an effort to complete the audit plan.

Question 24

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes the purpose of a planning memorandum for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

It documents the audit steps and procedures to be performed.

B.

It documents preliminary information useful to the audit team.

C.

It documents events that could hinder the achievement of process objectives.

D.

It documents existing measures that manage risks in the area under review.

Question 25

The following is a list of major findings in the executive summary report for an audit of the contract management process

- Noncompliance with contract provisions requiring vendors to obtain insurance policies with indemnity value of not less than $1 million

- Compliance with contract obligations and deliverables is not monitored

- No contract agreement with five vendors providing core services

Which of the following is an appropriate conclusion that can be drawn from these findings?

Options:

A.

These are weaknesses resulting from a lack of a documented contracting policy

B.

Substandard service delivery by vendors may not be detected

C.

Management should expedite actions to rectify the observations identified

D.

The internal controls guiding contract management are not operating effectively

Question 26

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal controls?

Options:

A.

For assurance engagements internal auditors should plan to assess the effectiveness of all entity-level controls

B.

Poorly designed or deficient entity-level controls can prevent well-designed process controls from working as intended.

C.

During engagement planning, internal auditors should not discuss the identified key risks and controls with management of the area under review to prevent tipping off probable audit lasts

D.

Reviewing process maps and flowcharts is an appropriate method for the internal a auditor to identify all key risks and controls during engagement planning

Question 27

Senior IT management requests the internal audit activity to perform an audit of a complex IT area. The chief audit executive (CAE) knows that the internal audit activity lacks the expertise to perform the engagement. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Decline the audit engagement, because the Standards prohibit internal auditors from performing engagements where they lack the necessary competencies.

B.

Accept the audit engagement and use the engagement as an opportunity to develop the audit team's IT expertise while performing the audit work.

C.

Temporarily hire an experienced and knowledgeable IT analyst from the organization's IT department to lead the audit.

D.

Outsource the audit engagement to a reputable IT audit consulting firm.

Question 28

Which of the following audit steps would an internal auditor perform when reviewing cash disbursements to satisfy IIA guidance on due professional care?

Options:

A.

The calculated statistical sample size is 50 however the internal auditor believes errors exist so he decides to increase the sample size to 80

B.

The internal auditor traces serial numbers of computer equipment listed on an invoice to the fixed asset inventory

C.

The internal auditor reviews the accounts payable manager's petty cash fund and vouchers

D.

The internal auditor reviews the related invoice purchase order and receiving report for each sample selection

Question 29

While reviewing warehouse inventory records, an internal auditor noticed that the warehouse has a surprisingly high number of products in storage. Over the past three years, the auditor had visited this particular warehouse numerous times for previous engagements and remembered that the warehouse was rather small. The auditor then decided to compare the square footage of the warehouse to the recorded number of products in storage. The auditor’s action is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Performing a reasonableness test.

B.

Conducting a fraud investigation.

C.

Conducting trend analysis.

D.

Operating with impaired objectivity.

Question 30

An examination of the accounts payable function evidenced multiple findings with respect to segregation of duties. After management's response and action plan are received and documented in the final report, which of the following is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Follow up after the applicable changes have been incorporated to validate management’s response.

B.

Include the items in the scope of the next scheduled audit of the accounts payable function.

C.

Because management agreed with the findings, no further action is deemed necessary.

D.

Have an internal audit staff member placed into the accounting department until corrections are made.

Question 31

Which of the following best describes the guideline for preparing audit engagement workpapers?

Options:

A.

Workpapers should be understandable to the auditor in charge and the chief audit executive.

B.

Workpapers should be understandable to the audit client and the board.

C.

Workpapers should be understandable to another internal auditor who was not involved in the engagement.

D.

Workpapers should be understandable to external auditors and regulatory agencies.

Question 32

The audit plan requires a review of the testing procedures used in pre-production of a large information system prior to its live launch. If the chief audit executive (CAE) is uncertain that the current audit team has all the required knowledge to conduct the engagement, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the CAE to take to preserve independence?

Options:

A.

Contract with the software vendor to provide an appropriate resource

B.

Ask for a knowledgeable resource from the IT department

C.

Make use of an external service provider.

D.

Request audit resources through the external auditor.

Question 33

The internal audit activity plans to assess the effectiveness of management’s self-assessment activities regarding the risk management process. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Review corporate policies and board minutes for examples of risk discussions.

B.

Conduct interviews with line and senior management on current practices.

C.

Research and review relevant industry information concerning key risks.

D.

Observe and test control and monitoring procedures and related reporting.

Question 34

A bakery chain has a statistical model that can be used to predict daily sales at individual stores based on a direct relationship to the cost of ingredients used and an inverse relationship to rainy days. What conditions would an auditor look for as an indicator of employee theft of food from a specific store?

Options:

A.

On a rainy day, total sales are greater than expected when compared to the cost of ingredients used.

B.

On a sunny day, total sales are less than expected when compared to the cost of ingredients used.

C.

Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are greater than expected.

D.

Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are less than expected.

Question 35

The chief audit executive of a medium-sized financial institution is evaluating the staffing model of the internal audit activity (IAA). According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most appropriate strategies to maximize the value of the current IAA resources?

• The annual audit plan should include audits that are consistent with the skills of the IAA.

• Audits of high-risk areas of the organization should be conducted by internal audit staff.

• External resources may be hired to provide subject-matter expertise but should be supervised.

• Auditors should develop their skills by being assigned to complex audits for learning opportunities.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

Question 36

An internal auditor is planning an engagement at a financial institution. Toe engagement objective is to identify whether loans were granted in accordance with the organization's policies. When of the following approaches would provide the auditor with the best information?

Options:

A.

Randomly select 30 cases of loans and verify whether they were repaid timely and in full

B.

Randomly select 30 cases of loans and validate them against applicable underwriting guidelines

C.

Randomly select 30 employees to complete a survey regarding whether policies and standards are followed

D.

Randomly select several months obtain ageing reports for these months and compare them with the poor year

Question 37

While conducting an information security audit, an internal auditor learns that the existing disaster recovery plan is four years old and untested. The auditor also learns that in the four years since the recovery plan was implemented, the information systems have undergone extensive changes. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Inform management and request that the plan be tested immediately.

B.

Update the recovery plan for management, as part of the review.

C.

Evaluate the recovery plan and report weaknesses to management.

D.

Recommend that management and users update and test the recovery plan.

Question 38

Which of the following factors would the auditor in charge be least likely to consider when assigning tasks to audit team members for an engagement?

Options:

A.

The amount of experience the auditors have conducting audits in the specific area of the organization.

B.

The availability of the auditors in relation to the availability of key client staff.

C.

Whether the budgeted hours are sufficient to complete the audit within the current scope.

D.

Whether outside resources will be needed, and their availability.

Question 39

During an audit, the chief audit executive reviews and approves changes to the audit program. Which of the following describes this activity?

Options:

A.

Engagement reporting

B.

Continuous monitoring

C.

Engagement supervision

D.

Engagement risk assessment

Question 40

Which of the following is the advantage of using internal control questionnaires (ICQs) as part of a preliminary survey for an engagement?

Options:

A.

ICQs provide testimonial evidence.

B.

ICQs are efficient.

C.

ICQs provide tangible evidence to be quantified.

D.

ICQs put observations into perspective.

Question 41

An internal auditor is performing an engagement to determine whether quality control checks of electronic gaming systems are performed consistently among a technology company’s factories. Which of the following tests would support the audit engagement objectives?

Options:

A.

Obtain and review the organization’s policies and procedures to gain an understanding of the quality control checks performed on the gaming systems.

B.

Perform unannounced onsite observations at factories to help determine how employees perform quality control checks of the gaming systems in real time.

C.

Meet and discuss with the quality control supervisors at the facilities to obtain information about the processes related to the quality control of gaming systems.

D.

Use the organization’s manufacturing documentation to create a flowchart that shows how the gaming systems are built to meet the established quality control standards.

Question 42

According to the International Professional Practices Framework, which of the following is an appropriate reason for issuing an interim report?

To keep management informed of audit progress when audit engagements extend over a long period of time.

To provide an alternative to a final report for limited-scope audit engagements.

To communicate a change in engagement scope for the activity under review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

1 and 3 only.

C.

2 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2, and 3.

Question 43

Which informal ion- gathering method would be most efficient for an internal auditor to determine whether specified control procedures are in place?

Options:

A.

Interviews

B.

Observations

C.

Reperformance

D.

Internal control questionnaires

Question 44

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the authority of the chief audit executive (CAE) to release previous audit reports to outside parties?

Options:

A.

The CAE can release prior internal audit reports with the approval of the board and senior management.

B.

The CAE can employ judgment and release prior audit results as they deem appropriate and necessary.

C.

The CAE can only release prior information outside the organization when mandated by legal or statutory requirements.

D.

The CAE can release prior information provided it is as originally published and distributed within the organization.

Question 45

A chief audit executive (CAE) determined that management chose to accept a high-level risk that may be unacceptable lo the organization. Which is the best course of action for the CAE to Follow?

Options:

A.

Include using in a subsequent audit to determine if the risks are still present

B.

Discuss the matter with senior management and it not reserved with the board

C.

Require that management implement controls to mitigate lie risks

D.

Report the risks to the process owners so that they can modify their process

Question 46

The board has asked the internal audit activity (IAA) to be involved in the organization's enterprise risk management process. Which of the following activities is appropriate for IAA to perform without safeguards?

Options:

A.

Coach management in responding to risks.

B.

Develop risk management strategies for board approval.

C.

Facilitate identification and evaluation of risks.

D.

Evaluate risk management processes.

Question 47

To effectively communicate the acceptance of risk in an organization a chief audit executive must first consider which of the following?

Options:

A.

The organization's view on risk tolerance

B.

The organization's principal risk events.

C.

The organization's risk response strategies

D.

The organization's major control activities

Question 48

The chief audit executive (CAE) should determine whether the internal audit activity has confirmed the status of all of management's corrective actions Doing so would help the CAE assess which of the following?

Options:

A.

Disclosure risk.

B.

Residual risk

C.

Compliance risk

D.

Inherent risk

Question 49

In which of the following situations would it be most appropriate for an internal audit function to issue an interim report or memo?

Options:

A.

A scheduled audit observed that several agreed improvements from the previous audit were still being implemented.

B.

A planned inventory count at the production plant revealed a material variance.

C.

An employee shared concerns of suspected fraud but did not provide evidence.

D.

An auditor responsible for the fieldwork has carried out only half of the planned audit procedures and has no observations so far.

Question 50

An internal auditor wants to determine if employees spend more than their approved daily stipend for meals. Which technique would be most appropriate to identify meal expenses that exceed the approved threshold?

Options:

A.

Using compliance verification data analytics

B.

Using regression analysis

C.

Using software with a gap testing function

D.

Drafting a flowchart of the meal expense reporting process

Question 51

Which of the following would help the internal audit activity assess compliance with the organization's standard operating procedures for bank deposits during a preliminary survey?

Options:

A.

Issue an internal control questionnaire to select branch customers.

B.

Issue an internal control questionnaire to the president of the organization.

C.

Issue an internal control questionnaire to the director of bank operations.

D.

Issue an internal control questionnaire to select branch managers.

Question 52

Which of the following conditions are necessary for successful change management?

1. Decisions and necessary actions are taken promptly.

2. The traditions of the organization are respected.

3. Changes result in improvement or reform.

4. Internal and external communications are controlled.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 53

To compete in the global market, an organization is restructuring and consolidating many of its divisions. Prior to the consolidation, senior management requested assistance from tie internal audit activity. Which of the following consulting services would be most appropriate in this situation?

Options:

A.

Assess controls for potential compliance issues that may affect me consolidation

B.

Brief vendors on the potential risks that will occur without continued business

C.

Advise division managers on how to streamline operations for better efficiency

D.

Determine whether the organization’s controls are effective in meeting business objectives

Question 54

If an engagement supervisor discovers insufficient information to draw a conclusion in workpapers, which action should she take first?

Options:

A.

Assign another auditor to complete the audit step and produce a new error-free workpaper.

B.

Document the problem as a review comment and continue with the audit.

C.

Discuss the matter with the auditor who produced the workpapers and improve the training manual.

D.

Complete the audit step herself to ensure accuracy and take additional steps to improve the audit training plan.

Question 55

During the preliminary survey of the procurement department, an internal auditor noted a major control weakness in the organization's ordering and receiving process. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action the internal auditor should take?

Options:

A.

Issue a final report on the control weakness to senior management.

B.

Bring the control weakness to the attention of the process owner for resolution.

C.

Note the control weakness for discussion during the exit meeting.

D.

Carry out an investigation of the control weakness for disciplinary action.

Question 56

Which of the following is the primary reason for internal auditors to conduct interim communications with management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

To demonstrate good project oversight

B.

To provide timely discussion of results

C.

To demonstrate internal auditor proficiency

D.

To follow up on previously requested information

Question 57

According to HA guidance on IT, which of the following actions would be performed as part of the "Define IT Universe" stage of the IT audit plan development process?

Options:

A.

Identify significant applications that support the business operations

B.

Assess risk and rank subjects using business risk factors

C.

Identify how the organization structures its business operations

D.

Select audit subjects and bundle into distinct audit engagements

Question 58

Which of The following best describes a risk that is deemed "unacceptable" to the organization?

Options:

A.

A risk where likelihood and impact are high

B.

A risk where inherent risk exceeds its residual risk

C.

A risk where inherent risk exceeds the tolerance level

D.

A risk where residual risk exceeds the tolerance level

Question 59

An internal auditor has discovered that duplicate payments were made to one vendor. Management has recouped the duplicate payments as a corrective action. Which of the following describes management’s action in this case?

Options:

A.

A condition-based action plan.

B.

A cause-based action plan.

C.

A root cause-based action plan.

D.

An effect-based action plan.

Question 60

In the years after the mid-service point of a depreciable asset, which of the following depreciation methods will result in the highest depreciation expense?

Options:

A.

Sum of the years’ digits.

B.

Declining balance.

C.

Double-declining balance.

D.

Straight line.

Question 61

An internal auditor discovered that a new employee was granted inappropriate access to the payroll system Apparently the IT specialist had made a mistake and granted access to the wrong new employee. Which of the following management actions would be most effective to prevent a similar issue from occurring again?

Options:

A.

Remove the new employee's excessive access rights and request that he report any future access error.

B.

Perform a complete review of all users who have access to the payroll system lo determine whether there are additional employees who were granted inappropriate access

C.

Review the system activity log of the employee to determine whether he used the inappropriate access to conduct any unauthorized activities in the payroll system

D.

Provide coaching to the IT specialist and introduce a secondary control to ensure system access is granted in accordance with the approved access request.

Question 62

The objective of an upcoming engagement is to review the wind park projects and assess compliance with established project management principles. Which of the following is most likely to be the aim of the engagement work program?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the application of project management guidance in the development of wind parks.

B.

Identify key risks and mitigation plans pertaining to the management of wind parks.

C.

Assess whether development of wind parks is compliant with relevant legal acts and international best practices.

D.

Review the wind park development strategy and compare its goals with operational targets and metrics.

Question 63

An internal auditor plans to conduct a walk-through to evaluate the control design of a process. Which of the following techniques is the auditor most likely to use?

Options:

A.

Observation and inspection.

B.

Inquiry and observation.

C.

Inspection and reperformance.

D.

Inquiry and reperformance.

Question 64

A new internal auditor is overwhelmed by the number of tasks they need to complete at the engagement planning stage. Which of the following could support the auditor’s organization and delivery of planned work?

Options:

A.

Review the auditor's job description

B.

Create a checklist

C.

Develop a control questionnaire

D.

Prepare a fishbone diagram

Question 65

An internal auditor wants to examine the intensity of correlation between electricity price and wind speed. Which of the following analytical approaches would be most appropriate for this purpose?

Options:

A.

A Gantt chart

B.

A scatter diagram

C.

A RACI chart

D.

A SIPOC diagram

Question 66

Which of the following statements is true regarding risk assessments, including the evaluation and prioritization of risk and control factors?

Options:

A.

A risk-by-process matrix enables the user to determine associations between any of the processes and the risks.

B.

The risk-factor approach for linking business processes and risks is more direct than the use of a risk-by-process matrix.

C.

Internal risk factors are built into the environment and the nature of the process itself.

D.

A risk map is used primarily to depict which risks will be reduced and which will be shared.

Question 67

Which of the following actions should the chief audit executive take when senior management decides to accept risks by choosing to do business with a questionable vendor?

Options:

A.

Persuade senior management to take appropriate action.

B.

Cancel issuing the engagement report due to the assumed risks.

C.

Accept senior management’s assumption of the risks.

D.

Discuss the issue with the board for them to take appropriate action.

Question 68

According to IIA guidance which of the following best describes reliable information?

Options:

A.

Reliable information is factual adequate, and convincing so that a prudent informed person would reach the same conclusions as the internal auditor

B.

Reliable information is the best attainable information through the use of appropriate engagement techniques

C.

Reliable information supports engagement observations and recommendations and is consistent with the objectives for the engagement

D.

Reliable information helps the organization and the internal audit activity meet its goals

Question 69

Which of the following is true regarding the monitoring of internal audit activities?

Options:

A.

The form and content of monitoring policies could vary by industry

B.

The board of directors is responsible for the establishment of monitoring polities

C.

Both large and small audit departments must have written policies on monitoring.

D.

The chief audit executive must develop all monitoring policies related to the activity

Question 70

Which of the following factors should be considered when determining the staff requirements for an audit engagement?

    The internal audit activity's time constraints.

    The nature and complexity of the area to be audited.

    The period of time since the area was last audited.

    The auditors’ preference to audit the area.

    The results of a preliminary risk assessment of the activity under review.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

1, 2, and 5 only.

C.

2, 3, and 5 only.

D.

1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.

Question 71

Which of the following is most appropriate for internal auditors to do during the internal audit recommendations monitoring process?

Options:

A.

Report the monitoring status to senior management when requested.

B.

Assist management with implementing corrective actions.

C.

Determine the frequency and approach to monitoring.

D.

Include all types of observations in the monitoring process.

Question 72

The internal audit activity has requested that new vendor information be summarized once per week in a single report, and that all invoices each week for these vendors be automatically flagged in the invoice processing system. Which of the following computerized audit techniques is the internal audit activity most likely applying?

Options:

A.

Enabling continuous auditing.

B.

Employing generalized audit software.

C.

Facilitating electronic workpapers.

D.

Using machine learning.

Question 73

Which of the following manual audit approaches describes testing the validity of a document by following it backward to a previously prepared record?

Options:

A.

Tracing

B.

Reperformance

C.

Vouching

D.

Walkthrough

Question 74

Which of the following best describes how an internal auditor would use a flowchart during engagement planning?

Options:

A.

To prepare for testing the effectiveness of controls

B.

To plan for evaluating potential losses

C.

To prepare a sampling plan for the engagement

D.

To evaluate the design of controls

Question 75

In which of the following populations would the internal auditor most likely choose to use a stratified sampling approach?

Options:

A.

Inventory comprised of the same items stored in different warehouses

B.

Batches of materials that must be confirmed as meeting quality standards

C.

Revenue that is earned by an organization through cash receipts or as receivable.

D.

Tax reports submitted to meet the requirements of the local taxation authority

Question 76

According to ISO 31000, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

The board is responsible for setting the organizational attitude through tone at the top.

B.

The internal audit activity will provide assurance over operating effectiveness but not over the design of risk management activities

C.

The internal audit activity can give objective assurance on any part of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

D.

The framework is designed to be effective for organizations no matter how small.

Question 77

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding audit supervision?

1. Supervision should be performed throughout the planning, examination, evaluation, communication, and follow-up stages of the audit engagement.

2. Supervision should extend to training, time reporting, and expense control, as well as administrative matters.

3. Supervision should include review of engagement workpapers, with documented evidence of the review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

Question 78

An organization invests excess short-term cash in trading securities Which of the following actions should an internal auditor take to test the valuation of those securities'*

Options:

A.

Use the equity method to recalculate the investment carrying value

B.

Confirm the securities held by the broker.

C.

Perform a calculation of premium or discount amortization.

D.

Compare the carrying value with current market quotations

Question 79

Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for a chief audit executive to conduct an external assessment more frequently than five years?

Options:

A.

Significant changes in the organization's accounting policies or procedures would warrant timely analysis and feedback.

B.

More frequent external assessments can serve as an equivalent substitute for internal assessments.

C.

The parent organization's internal audit activity agreed to perform biennial reciprocal external assessments to provide greater assurance at a reduced cost.

D.

A change in senior management or internal audit leadership may change expectations and commitment to conformance

Question 80

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities are typically primary objectives of engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

Enable training and development of staff, identify engagement objectives, and assign responsibilities to individual auditors.

B.

Identify engagement objectives, assign responsibilities to individual auditors, and approve the engagement program.

C.

Assign responsibilities to individual auditors, approve the engagement program, and enable training and development of staff.

D.

Approve the engagement program, enable training and development of staff, and identify engagement objectives.

Question 81

An internal auditor and engagement client are deadlocked over the auditor's differing opinion with management on the adequacy of access controls for a major system. Which of the following strategies would be the most helpful in resolving this dispute?

Options:

A.

Conduct a joint brainstorming session with management.

B.

Ask the chief audit executive to mediate.

C.

Disclose the client's differing opinion in the final report.

D.

Escalate the issue to senior management for a decision.

Question 82

During engagement planning, which party provides the most accurate and up-to-date description of how organizational processes and key controls operate?

Options:

A.

The management responsible for the activity under review

B.

The individuals who perform the daily tasks and functions of the activity under review

C.

The external auditors since they understand the key controls behind the financial statements

D.

The board of directors since they provide overall oversight for the organization

Question 83

Which of the following processes does the board manage to ensure adequate governance?

Options:

A.

Establish and measure performance objectives for the internal audit activity

B.

Select board members with necessary knowledge and skills.

C.

Develop, approve, and execute the strategic plan of the organization

D.

Develop strategies to mitigate the risks to achieving the organization's objectives

Question 84

The final engagement communication contains the following observation:

The internal auditor discovered that three of the 10 contracts reviewed failed to meet the organization's competitive bidding requirements Management explained that senior management deemed these purchases to be critical and awarded them as sole-source."

Which of the following components is missing in the documentation of the observation?

Options:

A.

Criteria.

B.

Effect

C.

Condition

D.

Cause

Question 85

An internal auditor was assigned to review controls in the accounts payable function. Most of tie accounts payable processes are performed by a third-party service provider. The auditor included in the audit report a number of control deficiencies involving processes performed by the service provider. The service provider requested a copy of the report Which of Vie following would be the most appropriate response from the chief audit executive (CAE)?

Options:

A.

The CAE would automatically sand a copy of the report to the service provider as many of the findings relate to Via area managed by the service provider

B.

The CAE may distribute the report to tie service provider at no cost, after consulting with legal counsel and tie chief compliance officer

C.

The CAE may provide a copy of the audit report to the service provider If an agreement & signed and the service provider agrees to reimburse the cost of the auditD, The CAE should benchmark with other organization in the industry by consorting with colleagues and distribute the report only I it is an acceptable practice m the industry

Question 86

Which of the following is essential for ensuring that the internal audit activity’s findings and recommendations receive adequate consideration?

Options:

A.

Reporting results of audits with recommendations to management.

B.

Providing formal follow-up procedures to ensure that management complies with an action plan or accepted risk of not taking action.

C.

Reporting quarterly to management that the audit plan is focused on higher exposures of risk.

D.

Discussing audit findings with independent auditors.

Question 87

Which of the following behaviors could represent a significant ethical risk if exhibited by an organization's board?

1. Intervening during an audit involving ethical wrongdoing.

2. Discussing periodic reports of ethical breaches.

3. Authorizing an investigation of an unsafe product.

4. Negotiating a settlement of an employee claim for personal damages.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

Question 88

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding audit workpapers?

Options:

A.

Review notes on audit workpapers must be retained to provide a record of questions raised by the reviewer.

B.

Audit workpaper documentation policies are reviewed and approved by the audit committee.

C.

Management of the department being audited should review the prepared workpapers for accuracy.

D.

Audit workpaper preparation contributes to the professional development of the internal audit staff.

Question 89

Which of the following would not be a typical activity for the chief audit executive to perform following an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Report follow-up activities to senior management.

B.

Implement follow-up procedures to evaluate residual risk.

C.

Determine the costs of implementing the recommendations.

D.

Evaluate the extent of improvements.

Question 90

An internal auditor has been assigned to facilitate a risk and control self-assessment for the finance group. Which of the following is the most appropriate role that she should assume when facilitating the workshop?

Options:

A.

Express an opinion on the participants' inputs and conclusions as the assessment progresses.

B.

Provide appropriate techniques and guidelines on how the exercise should be undertaken.

C.

Evaluate and report on all issues that may be uncovered during the exercise.

D.

Screen and vet participants so that the most appropriate candidates are selected to participate in the exercise.

Question 91

Which of the following statistical sampling approaches is the most appropriate for testing a population for fraud?

Options:

A.

Discovery sampling.

B.

Stop-or-go sampling.

C.

Haphazard sampling.

D.

Stratified attribute sampling.

Question 92

Which of the following would be the most effective fraud prevention control?

Options:

A.

Email alert sent to management for checks issued over S100.000.

B.

installation of a video surveillance system in a warehouse prone to inventory loss

C.

New hire training to explain fraud and employee misconduct.

D.

Daily report that Identifies unsuccessful system log-in attempts

Question 93

The head of customer service asked the chief audit executive (CAE) whether eternal auditors could assist her staff with conducting a risk self-assessment in the customer service department. The CAE promised to meet with customer service managers analyze relevant business processes, and come up with a proposal. Who is most likely to be the final approver of the engagement objectives and scope?

Options:

A.

Senior management of the organization

B.

The chief audit executive

C.

The head of customer service

D.

The board of directors

Question 94

For a new board chair who has not previously served on the organization’s board, which of the following steps should first be undertaken to ensure effective leadership to the board*?

Options:

A.

Chair should learn the current organizational culture of the company.

B.

Chair should learn the current risk management system of the company

C.

Chair should determine the appropriateness of the current strategic risks.

D.

Chair should gain an understanding of the needs of key stakeholders.

Question 95

Which of the following is not a direct benefit of control self-assessment (CSA)?

Options:

A.

CSA allows management to have input into the audit plan.

B.

CSA allows process owners to identify, evaluate, and recommend improving control deficiencies.

C.

CSA can improve the control environment.

D.

CSA increases control consciousness.

Question 96

What is the best course of action for a chief audit executive if an internal auditor identifies in the early stage of an audit that some employees have inappropriate access to a key system?

Options:

A.

Contact the audit committee chair to discuss the finding

B.

Obtain verbal assurance from management that the inappropriate access will be removed

C.

Issue an interim audit report so that management can implement action plans

D.

Ask the auditor to create a ticket with the IT help desk requesting to revoke the inappropriate access

Question 97

An internal auditor is conducting a preliminary survey of the investments area, and sends an internal control questionnaire to the management of the function. (An extract of the survey is provided below).

1. Are there any restrictions for any company's investments?

2. Are there any written policies and procedures that document the flow of investment processing?

3. Are investment purchases recorded in the general ledger on the date traded?

4. Is the documentation easily accessible to an persons who need in to perform their job?

Which of the following is a drawback of testing methods like this?

Options:

A.

They ore kitted as they do not allow the auditor to test many controls.

B.

They do not highlight control gaps

C.

They are not useful for identifying areas on which the auditor should locus.

D.

They are limited as there is a risk that management may not answer fairly.

Question 98

An internal auditor has suspicions that the management of a department splits me number of planned purchases to avoid the approval process required for larger purchases. Which of the following would be the most efficient technique to help the auditor identify the seventy of this malpractice?

Options:

A.

Examining the entire population

B.

Asking management about the malpractice

C.

Testing a sample of random transactions.

D.

Using data analytics

Question 99

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements regarding the internal audit charter is true?

Options:

A.

The nature of consulting services typically is not included in the charter.

B.

The chief audit executive must formally review the charter at least once a year

C.

The nature of assurances provided to parties outside of the organization typically is not included in the charter.

D.

The charter typically defines the internal audit activity’s position within the organization.

Question 100

An audit observation states the following:

"Despite the rules of the organization there is no approved credit risk management policy in the subsidiary. The subsidiary is concluding contacts with clients who have very high credit ratings. The internal audit team tested 50 contacts and 17 showed clients with a poor credit history"

Which of the following components are missing in the observation?

Options:

A.

Cause and effect.

B.

Effect and criteria

C.

Condition and cause

D.

Criteria and condition.

Question 101

Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take during an audit engagement when examining the effectiveness of risk management processes?

Options:

A.

Evaluate how the organization manages fraud risk.

B.

Establish procedures for improving risk management processes.

C.

Ensure risk responses are aligned with industry standards

D.

Verify that organizational objectives are aligned with each departments objectives.

Question 102

A corporate merger decision prompts the chief audit executive (CAE) lo propose interim changes to the existing annual audit plan to account for emerging risks Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take regarding the changes made to the audit plan''

Options:

A.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the board for approval.

B.

Communicate with the chief financial officer and present the revised audit plan to the CEO tor approval

C.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the CEO for approval

D.

Communicate with the CEO and present the revised audit plan to the board for approval.

Question 103

When taken by a chief audit executive, which of the following actions would be most likely to prevent division management from exaggerating sales reports

1.Announcing a series of internal audit engagements focusing on compliance with corporate sales-reporting policies.

2.Asking the president and the board to issue a statement of corporate policy stressing the importance of accurate management reporting and the negative consequences of intentional misreporting

3.Setting up a hotline for employees to report fraudulent behavior anonymously.

4.Assisting the controller in developing and monitoring a series of business process indicators, which are historically correlated with, but independent of. sales.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

2 and 4 only.

D.

3 and 4 only.

Question 104

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is based on the results of a preliminary assessment of risks relevant to the area under review?

Options:

A.

Audit findings

B.

Audit resources

C.

Audit objectives

D.

Audit plan

Question 105

An organization s inventory is stored m multiple warehouses. During an inventory audit which of the following activities would most benefit from the use of computerized audit tools?

Options:

A.

Verifying the existence of inventory items in each warehouse

B.

Assigning the tolerable deviation rate to determine the sample size

C.

Valuating the obsolete Inventory from all the warehouse locations

D.

Confirming that the purchased items are recorded In the correct period

Question 106

As part of the preliminary survey, an internal auditor sent an internal control questionnaire to the accounts payable function Based on the questionnaire responses, the auditor determines that there is no established procedure for adding and approving new vendors. What would the auditor do next?

Options:

A.

Determine that this situation is acceptable and focus on more significant issues

B.

Document the issue m the draft audit report

C.

Document the observation for further follow up when testing the operating effectiveness of controls

D.

Interview the personnel associated with this observation.

Question 107

When setting the scope for the identification and assessment of key risks and controls in a process, which of the following would be the least appropriate approach?

Options:

A.

Develop the scope of the audit based on a bottom-up perspective to ensure that all business objectives are considered.

B.

Develop the scope of the audit to include controls that are necessary to manage risk associated with a critical business objective.

C.

Specify that the auditors need to assess only key controls, but may include an assessment of non-key controls if there is value to the business in providing such assurance.

D.

Ensure the audit includes an assessment of manual and automated controls to determine whether business risks are effectively managed.

Question 108

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities are typically primary objectives of engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

Enable training and development of staff, identify engagement objectives, and assign responsibilities to individual auditors.

B.

Identify engagement objectives, assign responsibilities to individual auditors, and approve the engagement program.

C.

Assign responsibilities to individual auditors, approve the engagement program, and enable training and development of staff.

D.

Approve the engagement program, enable training and development of staff, and identify engagement objectives

Question 109

According to an internal audit observation, the organization’s rules of record management require all contracts to be registered and stored in a specific electronic system. One subsidiary has thousands of client contracts on paper, which are kept in the office because there are not enough assistants to scan the contracts into the system. Which of the following component should be added to this observation?

Options:

A.

Criteria

B.

Cause

C.

Effect

D.

Condition

Question 110

A chief audit executive's report to the board showed a significant trend of recent aud4s going over planned budgeted hours. Which of the following factors could cause this trend?

Options:

A.

Poor engagement supervision

B.

ineffective board reporting

C.

Untimely observation follows up and closure

D.

Limited staff resources

Question 111

Which of the following engagements is likely to be most appropriate for an organization that is planning an acquisition?

Options:

A.

A performance engagement.

B.

A system security engagement.

C.

A due diligence engagement.

D.

A compliance engagement.

Question 112

An organization recently acquired a subsidiary in a new industry, and management asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to perform a comprehensive audit of the subsidiary prior to recommencing operations The CAE is unsure her team has the necessary skills and knowledge to accept the engagement According to IIAguidance, which of the following responses by the CAE would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

The CAE should accept the engagement and ensure that an explanation of the expertise limitations is included in the final audit report.

B.

The CAE should ask management to hire an external expert who is familiar with the industry to perform an independent audit for management

C.

The CAE should accept the engagement and hire an external expert to assist the audit team with the audit of the subsidiary

D.

The CAE should recommend postponing the engagement until the internal audit team is able to develop sufficient knowledge of the new industry

Question 113

Which of the following would best prevent phishing attacks on an organization?

Options:

A.

An intrusion detection system

B.

Use of firewalls

C.

Regular security awareness training

D.

Application hardening

Question 114

According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most important objectives for helping to ensure the appropriate completion of an engagement?

1. Coordinate audit team members to ensure the efficient execution of all engagement procedures.

2. Confirm engagement workpapers properly support the observations, recommendations, and conclusions.

3. Provide structured learning opportunities for engagement auditors when possible.

4. Ensure engagement objectives are reviewed for satisfactory achievement and are documented properly.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 115

According to IIA guidance, which of the following objectives was most likely formulated for a non-assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity will assess the effects of changes in maintenance strategy on the availability of production equipment

B.

The internal audit activity will inform management on the possible risks of moving the data warehouse to a cloud server maintained by a third party.

C.

The internal audit activity will ascertain whether the data center security arrangements are compliant with agreed terms

D.

The internal audit activity will ensure equipment downtime risks have been managed in accordance with the internal policy.

Question 116

Which of the following statements is true regarding managements use of judgement to design, implement, and conduct internal control?

Options:

A.

The use of judgment enhances managements ability to make better decisions about internal control, but cannot guarantee perfect outcomes.

B.

introducing judgment generally diminishes managements ability to make good decisions about internal control

C.

It is inappropriate for management to exercise judgement in areas such as specifying and using suitable accounting principles.

D.

It is inappropriate for management to exercise judgement in assessing whether components are present, functioning, and operating together

Question 117

Which of the following would most likely form part of the engagement scope?

Options:

A.

Potential legislation on privacy topics will be employed as a compliance target O Wire transfers that exceeded $10,000 in the last 12 months will be analyzed.

B.

Both random and judgmental samplings will be used during the engagement

C.

The probability of significant errors will be considered via risk assessment.

Question 118

An internal auditor determines that certain information from the engagement results is not appropriate for disclosure to all report recipients because it is privileged. In this situation, which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Disclose the information in a separate report.

B.

Distribute the information in a confidential report to the board only

C.

Distribute the reports through the use of blind copies.

D.

Exclude the results from the report and verbally report the conditions to senior management and the board.

Question 119

An internal auditor s testing tor proper authorization of contracts and finds that the rate of deviations discovered in the sample is equal to the tolerable deviation rate. When of the following is the most appropriate conclusion for the internal auditor to make based on this result?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor concludes that management may be placing undue reliance on me specified control

B.

The internal auditor concludes that the specified control is more effective than it really is.

C.

The internal auditor concludes that the specified control is acceptably effective

D.

The internal auditor concludes that additional testing will be required to evaluate the specified control

Question 120

Which of the following statements best demonstrates application of due professional care during an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The engagement detected irregularities and noncompliance instances.

B.

The engagement supervisor had no significant comments in the supervisory review.

C.

The audit procedures were systematically planned: executed, and documented.

D.

The engagement objectives were designed to assist the engagement client

Question 121

Which of the following is an appropriate activity when supervising engagements?

Options:

A.

During engagement planning, the audit work program should be discussed between auditors and the engagement supervisor with the supervisor approving the work program.

B.

During fieldwork, scope changes made to the work program are at the auditor's discretion and should be supported adequately in the workpapers.

C.

Engagement supervision is most critical to the fieldwork and reporting phases of the audit, as this is where the majority of the work takes place.

D.

A degree of high supervision to no supervision may be provided to an auditor depending on his level of competence and the complexity of the engagement.

Question 122

Due to emerging new technologies that greatly affect the organization, the chief audit executive (CAE) wants to conduct frequent IT audit and is particularly focused on improving the quality of these engagements. Which of the following is the most viable solution for the CAE to ensure that IT audit quality is immediately enhanced and maintained long-term?

Options:

A.

Each year send a different member of the internal audit staff to an IT audit conference to learn about emerging technologies

B.

Contract an external IT special to offer advice and consult on IT audits

C.

Employ an independent external IT specialist to perform IT audits for the first year

D.

Invite qualified staff from the IT department to serve as guest auditors and lead IT audits

Question 123

The internal auditors available to perform the engagement do not have sufficient skills related to the area under review. Which of the following iss an appropriate action for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

Continue the engagement with the available staff, providing more hands-on supervision than usual

B.

Limit the objectives and scope of the engagement to align them with the skills available among the current staff.

C.

Cosource the performance of the engagement using personnel in the area that will be reviewed to supplement the knowledge of the staff and complete the engagement

D.

Supplement the internal auditors assigned to the engagement by bringing onto the engagement team a consultant who is independent of the area under review and has the missing expertise

Question 124

Which of the following statement is consistent with IIA guidance the use of mentoring for internal auditors?

Options:

A.

The member and the internal auditor should opt for informal meetings even if it means that no formal documentation will be created.

B.

The mentor relationship is usually not suitable for internal audit staff, as it does not leas to professional development.

C.

The value of mentoring is derived primarily from the personal relationship between the two parties involved, and the mentor’s level of relevant experience should not be a key factor.

D.

The mentor should be the internal auditor’s supervisor to ensure that the auditor performance is assessed in a relevant and meaningful context.

Question 125

The internal audit activity is responsible for which of the following actions related to an organization’s internal controls9

Options:

A.

Mitigating risks affecting achievement of organizational objectives.

B.

Enabling opportunities affecting achievement of organizational objectives.

C.

Analyzing and advising regarding costs versus benefits of control activities.

D.

Attesting to fairness of financial statements

Question 126

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors and other assurance providers?

Options:

A.

Assurance providers who report to management and/or are part of management cannot provide control self-assessments services

B.

Internal auditors should always reperform and validate audit work completed by external assurance providers.

C.

Internal auditors may rely on the work of internal compliance teams to expand their coverage of the organization without increasing direct audit hours.

D.

internal auditors can rely on the work of other assurance providers only if the other assurance providers report directly to the board

Question 127

In which of the following ways can the internal audit activity new engagement opportunities?

Options:

A.

By defining activities by business processes.

B.

By looking external factors such as product complaints.

C.

By looking at activities by businesses cost centers.

D.

By defining activities by the organization chart.

Question 128

As part of an audit engagement, an internal auditor verifies whether raw material is regularly delivered to the organization's warehouse in a timely manner. What type of objective does this exemplify?

Options:

A.

Operations

B.

Compliance

C.

Financial reporting

D.

Strategic

Question 129

Which of the following is the primary purpose of financial statement audit engagements?

Options:

A.

To assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the accounting department.

B.

To evaluate organizational and departmental structures, including assessments of process flows related to financial matters.

C.

To provide a review of routine financial reports, including analyses of selected accounts for compliance with generally accepted accounting principles.

D.

To provide an analysis of business process controls in the accounting department, including tests of compliance with internal policies and procedures.

Question 130

The internal audit activity is planning an assurance engagement for a foreign subsidiary. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be included in the preliminary communication to management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

The scope of the engagement, the estimated time frame, and the names of the auditors.

B.

The estimated time frame, the names of the auditors, and the resources and travel budget

C.

The names of the auditors, the resources and travel budget, and the scope of the engagement.

D.

The resources and travel budget, the scope of the engagement, and the estimated time frame.

Question 131

According to the Standards, which of the following is leastimportant in determining the adequacy of an annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency.

B.

Appropriateness.

C.

Effective deployment.

D.

Cost effectiveness.

Question 132

According to HA guidance, the chief audit executive is directly responsible for which of the following?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a quality assurance program even in the absence of management support

B.

Periodically reviewing and approving the internal audit charier

C.

Providing opportunities for all staff auditors to satisfy their professional development requirements

D.

Establishing the objectives scope and plan for each engagement

Question 133

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor discovered that a sales manager approved numerous sales contracts for values exceeding his authorization limit. The auditor reported the finding to the audit supervisor, noting that the sales manager had additional new contracts under negotiation. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

The audit supervisor should include the new contracts in the finding for the final audit report.

B.

The audit supervisor should communicate the finding to the supervisor of the sales manager through an interim report.

C.

The audit supervisor should remind the sales manager of his authority limit for the contracts under negotiation.

D.

The auditor should not reference the new contracts, because they are not yet signed and therefore cannot be included in the final report.

Question 134

At a conference an internal auditor presented a new computer-assisted audit technique developed by his organization The presentation included sample data derived from performing audit engagements for the organization. Travel costs were paid by the conference organizers and the trip was approved by the chief audit executive (CAE). However, neither management nor the CAE was aware that the internal auditor would be making a presentation based on work completed for the organization According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is most relevant regarding the actions of the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor did not violate the standard of objectivity because the presentation had no impact on the organization.

B.

The auditor violated the principle of confidentiality by disclosing information about the organization without approval.

C.

The auditor should have obtained permission before using the material, but did not violate the IIA Code of Ethics or Standards

D.

The auditor breached the conflict of interest standard by accepting payment for travel costs

Question 135

Management requested internal audit consulting services. During fieldwork significant control issues were identified by the internal audit team. Which of the following is an appropriate response from the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

End the consulting engagement and report the results to management as planned

B.

Report the significant control issues to senior management and the board and recommend corrective action

C.

Mutually agree with the engagement client on corrective actions

D.

Focus on the consulting engagement and schedule an assurance engagement next to address the control issues

Question 136

According to HA guidance, which of the following statements regarding audit workpapers is true?

Options:

A.

Audit reports should include the workpapers as a reference for the audit conclusions.

B.

The internal auditor's workpapers are the primary reference for reported control deficiencies.

C.

Ad-hoc communications with management of the area under review should be excluded from the workpapers.

D.

Both draft and final versions of workpapers should be saved at the end of the engagement

Question 137

When constructing a staffing schedule for the internal audit activity (IAA), which of the following criteria are most important for the chief audit executive to consider for the effective use of audit resources?

1. The competency and qualifications of the audit staff for specific assignments.

2. The effectiveness of IAA staff performance measures.

3. The number of training hours received by staff auditors compared to the budget.

4. The geographical dispersion of audit staff across the organization.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 138

An internal auditor reviewed bank reconciliations prepared by management of the area under review. The auditor noted that the bank statements attached did not have the

bank heading, logo, or address. Which of the following statements is true regarding this situation?

Options:

A.

The evidence may not be reliable.

B.

The evidence is not relevant.

C.

The evidence may not be sufficient.

D.

The information missing is not relevant to the audit.

Question 139

An internal auditor observed that sales staff are able to modify or cancel an order in the system prior to shipping She wonders whether they can also modify orders after shipping. Which of the following types of controls should she examine?

Options:

A.

Batch controls.

B.

Application controls

C.

General IT controls.

D.

Logical access controls

Question 140

A financial services organization's CEO requests that the internal audit function carry out fraud scenario testing over the supplier payment process. The engagement supervisor intends to identify these scenarios using a technique that motivates the sharing of ideas. Which of the following provides the internal audit function with this information?

Options:

A.

Fraud risk matrix

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Brainstorming

D.

Walkthroughs

Question 141

The internal audit manager has been delegated the task of preparing the annual internal audit plan for the forthcoming fiscal year All engagements should be appropriately categorized and presented to the chief audit executive for review Which of the following would most likely be classified as a consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

Evaluating procurement department process effectiveness

B.

Helping in the design of the risk management program

C.

Assessing financial reporting control adequacy

D.

Reviewing environmental, social, and governance reporting compliance

Question 142

Which of the following describes (he primary reason why a preliminary risk assessment is conducted during engagement planning?

Options:

A.

To identify the greatest risks organizationwide

B.

To ensure that the engagement work program covers all risk areas

C.

To ensure that risks identified during previous audits of the area have been adequately addressed

D.

To ensure that significant risks are included in the engagement scope

Question 143

According to Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory of Motivation, which of the following factors are mentioned most often by satisfied employees9

Options:

A.

Salary and status.

B.

Responsibility and advancement

C.

Work conditions and security.

D.

Peer relationships and personal life

Question 144

Which is the most appropriate evaluation criterion regarding the quality of audit engagement workpapers?

Options:

A.

Every workpaper should provide reasonable evidence of work conducted.

B.

Every workpaper should result in appropriately worded audit findings.

C.

Every workpaper should include a conclusion regarding the likelihood of fraud.

D.

Every workpaper should be approved by the engagement client.

Question 145

The internal audit function is in the fieldwork stage of the annual staff performance appraisal assurance engagement. A new auditor is hired and added to the engagement team. The auditor reviews the engagement work program with another member of the team and suggests improvements to make the fieldwork easier to complete. What action should be taken next?

Options:

A.

Refer the suggested changes to the engagement supervisor for approval.

B.

Note the suggested changes to be included in next year’s engagement program.

C.

Update the engagement work program with the suggested changes.

D.

No action is required as the work program has been approved and is underway.

Question 146

While reviewing the workpapers and draft report from an audit engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) found that an important compensating control had not been considered adequately by the audit team when it reported a major control weakness. Therefore, the CAE returned the documentation to the auditor in charge for correction. Based on this information, which of the following sections of the workpapers most likely would require changes?

Effect of the control weakness.

Cause of the control weakness.

Conclusion on the control weakness.

Recommendation for the control weakness.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3.

B.

1, 2, and 4.

C.

1, 3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

Question 147

An internal auditor wants to compare performance information from one quarter to another. Which analytics procedure would the auditor use?

Options:

A.

Ratio analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Vertical analysis

D.

Benchmarking analysis

Question 148

Which of the following types of policies best helps promote objectivity in the internal audit activity’s work?

Options:

A.

Policies that are distributed to all members of the internal audit activity and require a signed acknowledgment.

B.

Policies that match internal auditors' performance with feedback from management of the area under review

C.

Policies that keep internal auditors in areas where they have vast audit expertise.

D.

Policies that provide examples of Inappropriate business relationships

Question 149

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding the exit conference for an internal audit engagement?

Options:

A.

A primary purpose of the exit conference is to provide for the timely communication of observations that call for immediate management action.

B.

Both the chief audit executive and the chief executive over the activity or function reviewed must attend the exit conference to validate the findings.

C.

The exit conference provides only anticipated results for inclusion in the final audit communication.

D.

During the exit conference, the performance of the internal auditors who executed the engagement is reviewed.

Question 150

An internal auditor discovered fraud while performing an audit of an organization's procurement process. Which of the following describes the greatest benefit of using forensic auditing techniques in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Enhanced capability to prevent frauds from occurring.

B.

Greater assurance that procurement frauds will be detected in a timely manner

C.

Improved capability of evaluating fraud risks within the organization.

D.

Greater understanding of fraud through better evidence collection

Question 151

According to IIA guidance, which of the following factors should the auditor in charge consider when determining the resource requirements for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The number, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

B.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources and the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

C.

The number, proficiency, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

D.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

Question 152

Which of the following best describes the guideline for preparing audit engagement workpapers?

Options:

A.

Workpapers should be understandable to the auditor in charge and the chief audit executive

B.

Workpapers should be understandable to the audit client and the board.

C.

Workpapers should be understandable to another internal auditor who was not involved in the engagement.

D.

Workpapers should be understandable to external auditors and regulatory agencies

Question 153

Which of the following would be considered a violation of The IIA’s mandatory guidance on independence?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the board and administratively to the chief financial officer

B.

The board seeks senior managements recommendation before approving the annual salary adjustment of the CAE.

C.

The CAE confirms to the board, at least once every five years, the organizational independence of the internal audit act/vity.

D.

The CAE updates the internal audit charter and presents it to the board for approval periodically, not on a specific timeline

Question 154

Which of the following would most likely form part of the engagement scope?

Options:

A.

Potential legislation on privacy topics will be employed as a compliance target.

B.

Wire transfers that exceeded $10,000 in the last 12 months will be analyzed.

C.

Both random and judgmental samplings will be used during the engagement.

D.

The probability of significant errors will be considered via risk assessment.

Question 155

When reviewing workpapers, engagement supervisors may ask for additional evidence or clarification via review notes. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the engagement supervisors review notes?

Options:

A.

The review notes may be cleared from the final documentation once the engagement supervisors concerns have been addressed

B.

Management of the area under review must address the engagement supervisors review notes before the audit report can be finalized.

C.

The chief audit executive must initial or sign the engagement supervisors review notes to provide evidence of appropriate engagement supervision.

D.

Review notes provide documented proof that the engagement is supervised properly and must be retained for the quality assurance and improvement program

Question 156

An internal auditor notes that employees continue to violate segregation-of-duty controls in several areas of the finance department, despite previous audit recommendations. Which of the following recommendations is the most appropriate to address this concern?

Options:

A.

Recommend additional segregation-of-duty reviews.

B.

Recommend appropriate awareness training for all finance department staff.

C.

Recommend rotating finance staff in this area.

D.

Recommend that management address these concerns immediately.

Question 157

Which of the following methods is most closely associated to year over year trends?

Options:

A.

Horizontal analysts

B.

Vertical analysis.

C.

Common-size analysis.

D.

Ratio analysis.

Question 158

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of internal control questionnaires (ICOs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs are efficient because they minimize the need for follow-up with survey respondents

B.

Controls with positive survey responses can be eliminated from further testing

C.

Answers to survey questions can be easily misinterpreted

D.

ICQs offer limited value for organizations with uniform procedures

Question 159

An internal auditor wants to determine whether the key risks identified by management in the risk register are reflective of the key risks in the industry. Which of the following techniques would the auditor apply to achieve this goal?

Options:

A.

Perform benchmarking

B.

Perform a trend analysis

C.

Perform a ratio analysis

D.

Perform observation to gather evidence

Question 160

An organization does not have a formal risk management function. According to the Standards, which of the following are conditions where the internal audit activity may provide risk management consulting?

1.There is a clear strategy and timeline to migrate risk management responsibility back to management.

2.The internal audit activity has the final approval on any risk management decisions.

3.The internal audit activity gives objective assurance on all parts of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

4.The nature of services provided to the organization is documented in the internal audit charter.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

2 and 4 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

2 and 3 only.

Question 161

Which of the following must be in existence as a precondition to developing an effective system of internal controls?

Options:

A.

A monitoring process

B.

A risk assessment process.

C.

A strategic objective-setting process.

D.

An information and communication process

Question 162

During the planning phase of an assurance engagement, an internal auditor seeks to gam an understanding of now when the area under review is accomplishing its objectives When of the

Following information-gathering techniques is the auditor most likely to use?

Options:

A.

A review of the key performance indicators of me area under review.

B.

A walkthrough of the key processes of the area under review.

C.

An interview with the manager regarding the area's business plan.

D.

A review of previous audit and follow- up results of the area under review

Question 163

A snow removal company is conducting a scenario planning exercise where participating employees consider the potential impacts of a significant reduction in annual snowfall for the coming winter. Which of the following best describes this type of risk?

Options:

A.

Residual

B.

Net

C.

inherent.

D.

Accepted.

Question 164

The audit manager asked the internal auditor to perform additional testing because several irregularities were found in the financial information. Which of the following would be the most appropriate analytical review for the auditor to perform?

Options:

A.

Compare the firm's financial performance with organizations in the same industry

B.

Interview all managers involved in preparing the financial statements

C.

Perform a bank reconciliation to confirm the cash balance in the financial statements.

D.

Trace each financial transaction to the original supporting document

Question 165

Applying ISO 31000; which of the following is part of the external context for risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk treatment method based on risk evaluation.

B.

Organizational culture, objectives, and processes.

C.

The regulatory and competitive environment.

D.

The method of determining the risk level

Question 166

Management has taken immediate action to address an observation received during an audit of the organization's manufacturing process Which of the following is true regarding the validity of the observation closure?

Options:

A.

Valid closure requires evidence that ensures the corrected process will function as expected in the future

B.

Valid closure requires the client lo address not only the condition, but also the cause of the condition

C.

Valid closure of an observation ensures it will be included in the final engagement report

D.

Valid closure requires assurance from management that the original problem will not recur in the future

Question 167

During a review of data privacy an internal auditor is tasked with testing management's identification and prioritization of critical data collected by the organization. Which of the following steps would accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

interview management to determine what types of data are collected and maintained

B.

Trace data from storage to the collection sources to determine how critical data is collected and organized

C.

Review a sample of data to determine whether the risk classification is reasonable

D.

Document and test a data inventory and classification program by determining the data classification levels and framework

Question 168

An internal auditor recommended that an organization implement computerized controls in its sales system in order to prevent sales representatives from executing contracts in excess of their delegated authority levels A follow-up review found that the sales system had not been modified, but a process had been implemented to obtain written approval by the vice president of sales for all contracts in excess of S1 million The chief audit executive (CAE) would be justified in reporting this situation to the organization's board under which of the tollowing circumstances'?

1. In the opinion of the CAE the level of residual risk assumed by senior management is too high

2. Testing of compliance with the new process finds that all new contracts in excess of $1 million have been approved by the vice president of sales

3. The cost of modifying the sales system to include a preventive control is less than S100.000

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

3 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and3

Question 169

An internal auditor determined that the organization's accounting system was designed to reject duplicate invoices if they were issued with identical invoice numbers. However, if an invoice number was changed by at least one digit, the system would accept the duplicate invoice as new. Which of the following would be the most appropriate criteria to refer to in the audit observation?

Options:

A.

Each invoice for goods or services acquired by the organization must be recorded only once in the accounting system.

B.

The accounting system lacks efficient controls for the identification of duplicate invoices.

C.

Disbursements may be made inappropriately, and liabilities may be overstated.

D.

The accounting system is at the end of its lifetime and is no longer developed by the provider.

Question 170

The chief risk officer (CRO) of a large manufacturing organization decided to facilitate a workshop for process managers and staff to identify opportunities for improving productivity and reducing defects. Which of the following is the most likely reason the CRO chose the workshop approach?

Options:

A.

It minimizes the amount of time spent and cost incurred to gather the necessary information.

B.

Responses can be confidential, thus encouraging participants to be candid expressing their concerns.

C.

Workshops do not require extensive facilitation skills and are therefore ideal for nonauditors.

D.

Workshop participants have an opportunity to learn while contributing ideas toward the objectives.

Question 171

An internal auditor discovered a control weakness that needs to be communicated to management. Which of the following is the best method for first communicating the weakness?

Options:

A.

Draft report, to be reviewed by management just prior to final report issuance.

B.

Preliminary observation document, discussed during the engagement.

C.

Final report, after review by audit management.

D.

Verbal communication during the engagement, followed by the final report issuance.

Question 172

Which of the following is a detective control for managing the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Awareness of prior incidents of fraud.

B.

Contractor non-disclosure agreements.

C.

Verification of currency exchange rates.

D.

Receipts for employee expenses.

Question 173

Which of the following statements is true regarding the final assurance engagement report issued to management?

Options:

A.

Ratings are only used to assess the condition of an observation made by an internal auditor.

B.

Audit findings may be communicated to management prior to issuance of the final approved audit report.

C.

Communications must be relevant logical, and free from errors before they are disseminated.

D.

The audit report must present the information in the following order (1) audit scope, (2) engagement objectives, and (3) engagement results

Question 174

During the review of an organization's retail fraud deterrence program, an employee mentions that an expensive fraud surveillance information system is rarely used. The internal auditor concludes that additional staff are required to properly utilize the system to its full potential. According to IIA guidance, which criteria for evidence is most lacking to reach this conclusion?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency.

B.

Reliability.

C.

Relevancy.

D.

Usefulness.

Question 175

Which of the following recognized competitive strategies focuses on gaining efficiencies?

Options:

A.

Focus

B.

Cost leadership.

C.

Innovation

D.

Differentiation

Question 176

During an entity-level controls assessment, internal auditors deploy an internal control questionnaire to test the controls. Which of the following is a major drawback of this testing method?

Options:

A.

Information obtained by this method can be repudiated.

B.

Information obtained by this method is difficult to quantify.

C.

It is an inefficient method of gathering evidence.

D.

Limited information can be gathered with this method.

Question 177

To which of the following aspects should the chief audit executive give the most consideration while communicating an identified unacceptable risk to management?

Options:

A.

The organization's attitude to hierarchy

B.

The organization's whistleblowing strategy

C.

The organization's ongoing risk monitoring process

D.

The organization's risk management policy

Question 178

During an audit of the human resources department, an internal auditor adopts benchmarking to test the employee turnover rate. How should the internal auditor apply this technique?

Options:

A.

Compare turnover m the organization to published turnover rates of peer organizations.

B.

Compare turnover in one period with turnover in the previous period in the organization

C.

Compare turnover in the period to total employees in the organization

D.

Compare turnover with the auditor's general knowledge of the organization

Question 179

Which of the following statements about assurance maps is correct?

Options:

A.

An assurance map is used by the chief audit executive to coordinate assurance activities with other internal and external assurance providers

B.

An assurance map is a picture of all assurance engagements performed by the internal audit activity across the organization

C.

An assurance map is used by the engagement supervisor to coordinate the roles of various internal audit team members assigned to assurance engagements

D.

An assurance map lists the procedures and testing activities performed by an internal audit team during an assurance engagement

Question 180

Internal auditors map a process by documenting the steps in the process, which provides a framework for understanding Which of the following is a reason to use narrative memoranda?

Options:

A.

To create a detailed risk assessment

B.

To identify individuals who perform key roles

C.

To explain a simple process.

D.

To document which outputs support other activities.

Question 181

According to IIA guidance, which of re following actions should the internal auditor take immediately after having considered fraud scenarios and identified and prioritized fraud risks?

Options:

A.

Determine which controls if any are in place to mitigate the fraud risks

B.

Follow protocol for internal reporting and investigating fraud allegations

C.

Research frauds that nave occurred t\ similar organizations

D.

Incorporate the fraud risk assessment into the engagement plan

Question 182

When is an organic organizational structure likely to be more successful than a mechanistic organizational structure?

Options:

A.

When a manufacturing organization has stable demand for its products.

B.

When an organization is subjected to strong political and social pressures

C.

When a manufacturer has reliable resources and suppliers.

D.

When an organization is infrequently affected by technological advances

Question 183

Which of the following engagement techniques would be best to meet the objective of denting a personal conflict -of -interest situation affecting an organization’s procurement function?

Options:

A.

Inquiry

B.

Analytical review

C.

Observation

D.

Inspection of documents

Question 184

An internal audit activity has to confirm the validity of the activities reported by a grantee that received a charitable contribution from the organization. Which of the following methods would best help meet this objective?

Options:

A.

Visiting the grantee to assess whether the execution of the project was in line with the defined grant scope.

B.

Verifying that the grantee's final report is in line with what was depicted in the initial budget request.

C.

Reconciling general ledger accounts used by management of the area under review for reflecting expenses on charitable contributions.

D.

Interviewing employees of the corporate affairs department, which is responsible for charitable activities.

Question 185

Which of the following is most likely the subject of a periodic report from the chief audit executive to the board?

Options:

A.

A complete, accurate, and comprehensive account of engagement observations and recommendations.

B.

Oversight of the coordination between the internal audit activity and independent outside auditors.

C.

The internal audit activity's purpose, authority, responsibility, and performance relative to plan.

D.

Management's assertions regarding the system of internal controls.

Question 186

Which of the following statements is true regarding different competitive strategies?

Options:

A.

An organization that adopts a cost leadership competitive strategy generally maintains standard operating procedures to ensure efficiency.

B.

An organization that adopts a differentiation strategy generally maintains a targeted strategic approach to its operations.

C.

An organization that adopts a focus strategy is known for taking the lead in technological advancement.

D.

An organization that adopts a cost leadership strategy is known for cherishing employees who think creatively and emphasize uniqueness.

Question 187

An internal audit team was conducting an assurance engagement to review segregation of duties in the purchasing function. The internal auditors reviewed a sample of purchase orders from the past two year and discovered that 2 percent were signed by employees who were operating in a designated acting capacity due to employee absence. According to IIA guidance, which of the following attributes of information would most likely assist the auditor in deciding whether to report this finding?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency

B.

Reliability

C.

Relevance

D.

Usefulness

Question 188

A toy manufacturer receives certain components from an overseas supplier and uses them to assemble final products Recently quality reviews have identified numerous issues regarding the components' compliance with mandatory quality standards. Which type of engagement would be most appropriate to assess the root causes of the quality issues?

Options:

A.

A risk assessment

B.

An operational audit

C.

A third-party audit

D.

A fraud investigation

Question 189

When addressing the excessive overtime being paid lo employees in an organization's customer service call center, which of the following would be most relevant for the internal auditor to use?

1 Confirmation.

2. Trend analysis.

3 External benchmarking

4. Internal benchmarking

Options:

A.

1.2 and 3

B.

1.2. and 4.

C.

1.3. and 4.

D.

2. 3. and 4.

Question 190

According to IIA guidance, which of the following describes the primary reason the chief audit executive (CAE) should actively network and build relationships with senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

To fulfill the CAE's responsibility to keep the board appropriately informed.

B.

To expand the CAE's understanding of management issues.

C.

To help maintain the objectivity of the internal audit activity.

D.

To increase opportunities to demonstrate the internal audit activity performance.

Question 191

According to IIA guidance, how should an internal auditor apply any relevant information obtained from an internal consulting engagement during a related internal audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Document any facts obtained and include them as part of the audit engagement workpapers.

B.

Rely upon the information to draw conclusions about the effectiveness of controls.

C.

Use the knowledge obtained to evaluate the effectiveness of internal control processes.

D.

Objectivity requires that this information should not be used in any part of the audit engagement.

Question 192

The chief audit executive (CAF) determined that the residual risk identified in an assurance engagement is acceptable. When should this be communicated to senior management?

Options:

A.

When the CAE reports the audit outcome to senior management.

B.

When the residual risk is identified before the engagement is complete.

C.

Immediately, as residual risk should be communicated as soon as possible

D.

When management of the area under review has resolved and mitigated the residual risk

Question 193

Which of the following is the primary reason the chief audit executive should consider the organization's strategic plans when developing the annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

Strategic plans reflect the organization's business objectives and overall attitude toward risk.

B.

Strategic plans are helpful to identify major areas of activity, which may direct the allocation of internal audit activity resources.

C.

Strategic plans are likely to show areas of weak financial controls.

D.

The strategic plan is a relatively stable document on which to base audit planning.

Question 194

An organization is expanding into a new line of business selling natural gas. The internal auditor is planning an engagement and wants to obtain a general understanding of the natural gas market the market share that the organization wants to win, and the competitive advantage that the organization may have. Which of the following would be the best source of such information?

Options:

A.

Interview responsible managers and read strategic documents

B.

Conduct internet searches on gas sales and analyze market players

C.

Review gas clients' portfolio and compile statistics on sales margins

D.

Analyze the organization's revenues and calculate the proportion of gas

Question 195

If observed during fieldwork by an internal auditor, which of the following activities is least important to communicate formally to the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

Acts that may endanger the health or safety of individuals.

B.

Acts that favor one party to the detriment of another.

C.

Acts that damage or have an adverse effect on the environment.

D.

Acts that conceal inappropriate activities in the organization.

Question 196

Which of the following describes the primary objective of an internal audit engagement supervisor?

Options:

A.

Uphold the quality of the internal audit actively

B.

Provide engagement progress updates to management of the area under review

C.

Assure risks and controls are identified and assessed

D.

Ensure timely completion of the engagement

Question 197

An internal auditor tested whether purchase orders were supported by appropriately approved purchase requisitions She sampled a population of purchase documents and identified instances where purchase requisitions were missing However, she did not notice that n some cases purchase requisitions were approved by an unauthorized person Which of the following risks most appropriately describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Nonsampling risk

B.

Sampling risk

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Due diligence risk

Question 198

Which of the following steps should an internal auditor complete when conducting a review of an electronic data interchange application provided by a third-party service?

Ensure encryption keys meet ISO standards.

Determine whether an independent review of the service provider's operation has been conducted.

Verify that the service provider’s contracts include necessary clauses.

Verify that only public-switched data networks are used by the service provider.

Options:

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

Question 199

Which of the following should the chief audit executive do when evaluating the possibility of relying on external auditors' work?

Options:

A.

Perform comprehensive background checks on all independent auditors on the engagement.

B.

Recalculate all financial calculations to confirm competency.

C.

Examine objectivity and any perceived or actual conflicts of interest.

D.

Review audit tests employed in all previous audits.

Question 200

Which of the following is an example of a properly supervised engagement?

Options:

A.

Auditors are asked to keep a daily record of their activity for review by the auditor in charge following the engagement.

B.

The senior internal auditor requires each auditor to review and initial colleagues’ workpapers for completeness and format

C.

A new internal auditor is accompanied by an experienced auditor during a highly sensitive fraud investigation.

D.

The auditor in charge provides reasonable assurance that engagement objectives were met

Question 201

Which of the following statements is false regarding roles and responsibilities pertaining to risk management and control?

Options:

A.

Senior management is charged with overseeing the establishment risk management and control processes.

B.

The chief audit executive is responsible for overseeing the evaluation risk management and control processes.

C.

Operating managers are responsible for assessing risks and controls in their departments.

D.

Internal auditors provide assurance about risk management and control process effectiveness.

Question 202

Which of the following is an appropriate documentation of proper engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

A completed engagement workpaper review checklist.

B.

The supervisor's review notes on engagement workpapers.

C.

The email exchanges between the audit team and the supervisor.

D.

A supervisor's approval of resources allocated to the engagement

Question 203

An audit identified a number of weaknesses in the configuration of a critical client/server system. Although some of the weaknesses were corrected prior to the issuance of the audit report, correction of the rest will require between 6 and 18 months for completion. Consequently, management has developed a detailed action plan, with anticipated completion dates, for addressing the weaknesses. What is the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

Assess the status of corrective action during a follow-up audit engagement after the action plan has been completed.

B.

Assess the effectiveness of corrections by reviewing statistics related to unplanned system outages, and denials of service.

C.

Reassign information systems auditors to assist in implementing management's action plan.

D.

Evaluate the ability of the action plan to correct the weaknesses and monitor key dates and deliverables.

Question 204

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding due professional care?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors must exercise due professional care to ensure that all significant risks will be identified.

B.

Internal auditors must apply the care and skill expected of a reasonably prudent and competent internal auditor.

C.

Due professional care requires the internal auditor to conduct extensive examinations and verifications to ensure fraud does not exist.

D.

Due professional care is displayed during a consulting engagement when the internal auditor focuses on potential benefits of the engagement rather than the cost

Question 205

Which of the following is an example of a directive control?

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Exception reports

C.

Training programs,

D.

Supervisory review.

Question 206

Which of the following represents the best example of a strategic goal?

Options:

A.

Customer satisfaction index has to be 90% each quarter.

B.

Ten rapid charging stations will be installed next year.

C.

The organization aims to decrease the budget by 10%.

D.

The organization will be carbon neutral within 5 years.

Question 207

Which of the following resources would be most effective for an organization that would like to improve how it informs stakeholders of its social responsibility performance?

Options:

A.

ISO 26000

B.

Global Reporting Initiative.

C.

Open Compliance and Ethics Group.

D.

COSO’s enterprise risk management framework.

Question 208

An internal auditor observes a double payment transaction on a supplier invoice during an accounts payable engagement. Which of the following steps would be the most effective in helping the auditor determine whether fraud exists?

Options:

A.

Switch the existing assurance engagement into a fraud investigation engagement

B.

Extend the audit scope and perform additional testing of controls on other related areas

C.

Review the poor year's transaction volume and amounts paid compared to the poor year's budget

D.

Perform data analytics on the supplier's information, invoiced amounts, and payments performed

Question 209

Which of the following is the best approach for the internal audit function to communicate moderate and high risk observations to management?

Options:

A.

Prepare a formal observation worksheet for all observations identified and send to management to review and provide feedback at the end of fieldwork.

B.

Verbally communicate the high risk observations to management when identified and prepare a documented worksheet that includes the root cause, effect, and recommendations.

C.

Prepare a formal observation worksheet for the high risk observations and a separate worksheet for the medium risk observations in an email to management.

D.

Verbally communicate all observations to management at the end of fieldwork and provide a formal worksheet for review and feedback.

Question 210

Which of the following situations is most likely to heighten an internal auditors professional skepticism regarding potential fraud?

Options:

A.

A procurement manager does not have the expected academic credentials for his position

B.

A salesperson frequently complains about the organization's policy on sales commissions.

C.

The accounts payable supervisor has requested advances against her monthly salary on several occasions

D.

A financial accountant is absent from work frequently due to regular medical procedures

Question 211

Which of the following is the most appropriate approach for the internal audit activity to follow up on management action plans?

Options:

A.

Create a tracking system for follow up

B.

Ensure that follow-up activities are performed at least weekly.

C.

Delegate follow-up activities to qualified administrative staff within the business unit

D.

Ensure that follow-up activities are performed by the most senior auditor on staff

Question 212

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding reporting the results of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Results of internal assessments need to be reported to the board at least once every five years.

B.

The external assessor must present the findings from the external assessment to senior management and the board upon completion.

C.

Deficiencies within the internal audit activity must be reported to the board as soon as they are noted

D.

Results of ongoing monitoring of the internal audit activity’s performance must be reported to senior management and the board at least annually

Question 213

An internal auditor collected several employee testimonials Which of the following is the best action for the internal auditor to take before drawing a conclusion?

Options:

A.

Ensure the testimonials are well documented

B.

Substantiate the testimonials with physical or documentary evidence

C.

Corroborate testimonials with the results from other soft control techniques

D.

Review the testimonials with the interviewed employees

Question 214

Which of the following statements generally true regarding audit engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The best source tor detailed process information is senior management

B.

Audit objectives should be general and do not change.

C.

Computer-assisted audit techniques are typically not useful during engagement planning

D.

Internal auditors should prepare a dented audit program for testing controls

Question 215

Which of the following would be most useful for an internal auditor to obtain during the preliminary survey of an engagement on internal controls over user access management?

Options:

A.

The policy for granting, modifying, and deleting user access to ensure processing requirements are clearly articulated.

B.

A sample of change request forms to verify whether the forms bear the required approval for the user access change.

C.

User access reports that were reviewed by management to ensure that access rights are appropriate for employee roles.

D.

A current listing of system users and an employee listing to determine whether system users are active employees of the organization.

Question 216

Besides a chief audit executive's professional experience what determines the frequency and approach to assessing residual risk?

Options:

A.

The frequency of executing the internal audit engagements

B.

The frequency of changes in the organization environment

C.

The expectations set by the board and senior management

D.

The expectations set by operating management and senior management

Question 217

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a small internal audit activity (IAA) plans to test conformance with the Standards through a quality assurance review. According to the Standards, which of the following are acceptable practice for this review?

1. Use an external service provider.

2. Conduct a self-assessment with independent validation.

3. Arrange for a review by qualified employees outside of the IAA.

4. Arrange for reciprocal peer review with another CAE.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 4

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 218

When determining the level of staff and resources to be dedicated to an assurance engagement, which of the following would be the most relevant to the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

The overall adequacy of the internal audit activity's resources

B.

The availability of guest auditors for the engagement

C.

The number of internal auditors used for the previous review of the same area.

D.

The available resources with the specific skill set required

Question 219

The internal audit function is performing an assurance engagement on the organization’s environmental, social, and governance (ESG) program. The engagement objective is to determine whether the ESG program’s activities are meeting the program’s established goals. The internal audit function has completed a risk and control assessment of the ESG program's activities. What is the appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

Conclude whether the ESG program's activities are meeting the established goals

B.

Communicate the results of the assessment to senior management

C.

Develop recommendations based on the results of the assessment

D.

Perform testing on the activities selected based on the assessment

Question 220

Which of the following evaluation criteria would be the most useful to help the chief audit executive determine whether an external service provider possesses the knowledge, skills, and other competencies needed to perform a review?

Options:

A.

The financial interest the service provider may have in the organization.

B.

The relationship the service provider may have had with the organization or the activities being reviewed.

C.

Compensation or other incentives that may be applicable to the service provider.

D.

The service provider's experience in the type of work being considered.

Question 221

How do internal auditors generally determine the priority of the areas within the engagement scope?

Options:

A.

By calculating the period of time when the area was last audited try internal auditors

B.

By totaling the monetary value of the processes within the organization in the scope of the engagement

C.

By counting the number of red flags indicating the potential fraudulent activities within the area.

D.

By estimating the likelihood of a risks occurring and the potential impact of that risk on the organization

Question 222

When forming an opinion on the adequacy of management's systems of internal control, which of the following findings would provide the most reliable assurance to the chief audit executive?

• During an audit of the hiring process in a law firm, it was discovered that potential employees' credentials were not always confirmed sufficiently. This process remained unchanged at the following audit.

• During an audit of the accounts payable department, auditors calculated that two percent of accounts were paid past due. This condition persisted at a follow up audit.

• During an audit of the vehicle fleet of a rental agency, it was determined that at any given time, eight percent of the vehicles were not operational. During the next audit, this figure had increased.

• During an audit of the cash handling process in a casino, internal audit discovered control deficiencies in the transfer process between the slot machines and the cash counting area. It was corrected immediately.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

Question 223

An internal auditor is conducting an assurance engagement in the procurement area. The auditor follows a checklist of tasks prepared for the engagement. During the process, the auditor notices some deviations from the procurement procedure requirements. However, these deviations are not directly linked to and do not prevent the auditor from completing the checklist tasks. So, the auditor does not investigate these deviations further. Which checklist drawback most likely applies to this situation?

Options:

A.

Over-reliance and a false sense of security

B.

Limited flexibility

C.

Inability to keep the checklist up to date

D.

Standardization and a systematic approach

Question 224

An internal auditor accessed accounts payable records and extracted data related to fuel purchased tor the organization's vehicles As a first step, she sorted the data by vehicle and used spreadsheet functions to identify all instances of refueling on the same or sequential dates She then performed other tests Based on the auditor's actions which of the following is most likely the objective of this engagement1?

Options:

A.

To identify whether fuel was purchased for work-related purposes

B.

To estimate future fuel costs for the organization's fleet of vehicles

C.

To determine trends in average fuel consumption by vehicle

D.

To determine whether the organization is paying more than the industry average for fuel