IAPP CIPP-US Certified Information Privacy Professional/United States (CIPP/US) Exam Practice Test

• The Disposal Rule under the Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act (FACTA) is a federal regulation that requires any person or entity that maintains or possesses consumer information derived from consumer reports to dispose of such information in a secure and proper manner1.
• The Disposal Rule aims to protect consumers from identity theft and fraud by preventing unauthorized access to or use of their personal information1.
• The Disposal Rule is enforced by several federal agencies, depending on the type and sector of the entity that is subject to the rule1. These agencies include:
• The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) is NOT one of the federal agencies that enforces the Disposal Rule under FACTA. HHS has authority over health information privacy and security under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act (HITECH), but not under FACTA.

References: 1: Disposing of Consumer Report Information? Rule Tells How 2: FTC Enforcement 3: CFPB Enforcement 4: OCC Enforcement 5: FDIC Enforcement : [FRB Enforcement] : [NCUA Enforcement] : [SEC Enforcement] : [CFTC Enforcement] : [HHS Enforcement]

 The Red Flags Rule is a regulation that requires financial institutions and creditors to implement a written identity theft prevention program that is designed to detect, prevent, and mitigate identity theft in connection with the opening of a covered account or any existing covered account1. A creditor is any person who regularly extends, renews, or continues credit; any person who regularly arranges for the extension, renewal, or continuation of credit; or any assignee of an original creditor who participates in the decision to extend, renew, or continue credit2. A covered account is an account that a financial institution or creditor offers or maintains, primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, that involves or is designed to permit multiple payments or transactions, such as a credit card account, mortgage loan, automobile loan, margin account, cell phone account, utility account, checking account, or savings account2. A money wire service is a service that allows customers to send or receive money electronically3. The owner of a grocery store who uses a money wire service is not a creditor because he or she does not regularly extend, renew, or continue credit to customers. Therefore, the Red Flags Rule does not apply to the owner of a grocery store who uses a money wire service. References:

• 1: FTC, Red Flags Rule, https://www.ftc.gov/business-guidance/privacy-security/red-flags-rule
• 2: FTC, Fighting Identity Theft with the Red Flags Rule: A How-To Guide for Business, https://www.ftc.gov/tips-advice/business-center/guidance/fighting-identity-theft-red-flags-rule-how-guide-business
• 3: Alessa, Wire Transfer Red Flags: Understanding Money Laundering and Fraud Risks, https://alessa.com/webinars/wire-transfer-red-flags-and-fraud-risks/

 Employers have a duty to protect the personal information of their current and former employees, as well as applicants, from unauthorized access, use, or disclosure. This duty may arise from federal or state laws, such as the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA), the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA), or from contractual obligations, such as non-disclosure agreements or privacy policies. Employers may retain sensitive employment records, such as performance evaluations, disciplinary actions, medical records, or background checks, for a legitimate business purpose, such as complying with legal requirements, defending against lawsuits, or conducting audits. However, employers must ensure that these records are stored securely, accessed only by authorized personnel, and disposed of properly when no longer needed. References: IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.1, IAPP CIPP/US Body of Knowledge, Domain IV, Objective B

The Colorado Privacy Act (CPA) grants consumers the right to access, correct, or delete their personal data, including sensitive data, that is processed by a controller1. Sensitive data is defined as personal data that reveals racial or ethnic origin, religious beliefs, mental or physical health condition or diagnosis, sex life or sexual orientation, citizenship or citizenship status, genetic or biometric data, or personal data from a known child2. The CPA also grants consumers the right to opt out of the processing of their personal data for purposes of targeted advertising, the sale of personal data, or certain kinds of profiling3. However, the CPA does not grant consumers the right to limit the use of sensitive data for other purposes, such as providing a product or service requested by the consumer, complying with legal obligations, or protecting the vital interests of the consumer or another person. Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it is not a privacy right available under the CPA. References: 1: Colorado Privacy Act (CPA) - Colorado Attorney General 2: Protect Personal Data Privacy | Colorado General Assembly 3: SENATE BILL 21-190 Woodward, Garcia; PRIVACY. COLORADO PRIVACY ACT … : Colorado Privacy Act: What You Need to Know | OneTrust DataGuidance

The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) was originally intended to provide consumers with the ability to correct inaccurate credit information that could affect their access to credit, employment, insurance, and other benefits. The FCRA gives consumers the right to access their credit reports from the three major credit reporting agencies (Equifax, Experian, and TransUnion) for free once every 12 months, and to dispute any errors or inaccuracies with the credit reporting agencies or the information furnishers (such as lenders, creditors, or debt collectors). The FCRA also requires the credit reporting agencies and the information furnishers to investigate and resolve the disputes within 30 days, and to delete or correct any information that is found to be inaccurate, incomplete, or outdated. The FCRA also provides consumers with the right to place fraud alerts or security freezes on their credit reports if they are victims or potential victims of identity theft, and to receive notifications from users of their credit reports (such as employers or insurers) if any adverse action is taken based on their credit information. References:

• Fair Credit Reporting Act - Wikipedia
• What is the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA)? | Money
• The Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1970 - The Balance
• How the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) Protects Consumer Rights

Cheryl’s suggested method of communicating the new privacy policy by creating documents listing applicable parts of the new policy for each department and implementing it gradually over several months may create confusion and inconsistency among employees and customers. Different departments may have different interpretations and expectations of the policy, and customers may not be aware of the changes or their rights under the policy. This may lead to errors, complaints, and violations of the policy and the applicable laws. A better approach would be to communicate the policy in full to all employees and customers at once, and provide training and guidance on how to comply with it. The policy should also be easily accessible and updated on the company’s website and other channels. References:

• Privacy Policy for Health Coaches
• Privacy Policies for Online Coaches
• Privacy Policy - Coaching.com

The HIPAA Privacy Rule generally prohibits covered entities and business associates from disclosing protected health information (PHI) to law enforcement without the individual’s authorization, unless one of the exceptions in 45 CFR § 164.512 applies. These exceptions include disclosures required by law, disclosures for law enforcement purposes, disclosures about victims of abuse, neglect or domestic violence, disclosures for health oversight activities, disclosures for judicial and administrative proceedings, disclosures for research purposes, disclosures to avert a serious threat to health or safety, disclosures for specialized government functions, disclosures for workers’ compensation, and disclosures to coroners and medical examiners. None of these exceptions apply to the type of information in option D, which is personal health information that is not related to any of the above purposes. Therefore, an organization would generally not be required to disclose such information to law enforcement under the HIPAA Privacy Rule. References: 

The strongest example of excessive monitoring by the employer is C. An employer who installs video monitors in physical locations, such as a changing room, to reduce the risk of sexual harassment. This would be considered an unreasonable invasion of employees’ privacy, as it would violate their legitimate expectation of privacy in a place where they change their clothes. Such monitoring would also likely violate the Electronic Communications Privacy Act (ECPA), which prohibits the interception of oral communications without consent or authorization. Moreover, such monitoring would not be justified by a legitimate business interest, as there are less intrusive ways to prevent or address sexual harassment, such as policies, training, and reporting mechanisms. References:

• [IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide], Chapter 4: Workplace Privacy, pp. 109-110.
• IAPP CIPP/US Body of Knowledge, Section IV: Workplace Privacy, Subsection A: Employee Privacy Expectations, Topic 1: Employee Monitoring.
• IAPP CIPP/US Practice Questions, Question 134.

According to the CAN-SPAM Act of 2003, a federal law that regulates commercial email messages, a commercial message sender must honor a recipient’s opt-out request within 10 business days. The sender must provide a clear and conspicuous way for the recipient to opt out of receiving future emails, such as a link or an email address. The sender must not charge a fee, require the recipient to provide any personal information, or make the recipient take any steps other than sending a reply email or visiting a single web page to opt out. The sender must also not sell, exchange, or transfer the email address of the recipient who has opted out, unless it is necessary to comply with the law or prevent fraud.

References:

• IAPP CIPP/US Body of Knowledge, Domain II: Limits on Private-sector Collection and Use of Data, Section B: Communications and Marketing
• IAPP CIPP/US Certified Information Privacy Professional Study Guide, Chapter 2: Limits on Private-sector Collection and Use of Data, Section 2.2: Communications and Marketing
• Practice Exam - International Association of Privacy Professionals

• The Telemarketing Sales Rule (TSR) is a federal regulation that implements the Telemarketing and Consumer Fraud and Abuse Prevention Act of 1994. The TSR aims to protect consumers from deceptive or abusive telemarketing practices, such as unwanted calls, false or misleading claims, unauthorized billing, and privacy violations1.
• The TSR requires telemarketers and sellers to comply with the National Do Not Call Registry, which is a list of phone numbers of consumers who have indicated that they do not want to receive telemarketing calls2.
• The TSR also requires telemarketers and sellers to honor the do-not-call requests of individual consumers, regardless of whether their numbers are on the National Do Not Call Registry or not2.
• A do-not-call request is a statement made by a consumer, either orally or in writing, that they do not wish to receive any more calls from a specific telemarketer or seller2.
• The TSR requires an entity to share a do-not-call request across its organization when the operational structures of its divisions are not transparent to consumers3. This means that the entity must treat the do-not-call request as if it applies to all of its affiliates and subsidiaries that engage in telemarketing, unless the consumer would reasonably expect them to be separate and distinct entities based on their names, products, or services3.
• The TSR does not require an entity to share a do-not-call request across its organization in the following situations:

References: 1: Telemarketing Sales Rule 2: Q&A for Telemarketers & Sellers About DNC Provisions in TSR 3: Federal Register :: Telemarketing Sales Rule

According to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), a covered entity is a health plan, a health care clearinghouse, or a health care provider that transmits any health information in electronic form in connection with a transaction covered by HIPAA. A covered entity must report a breach of unsecured protected health information (PHI) to the following parties:

• The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), which is the federal agency responsible for enforcing HIPAA and issuing regulations and guidance on privacy and security issues. A covered entity must notify HHS of a breach affecting 500 or more individuals without unreasonable delay and in no case later than 60 days after discovery of the breach. A covered entity must also notify HHS of breaches affecting fewer than 500 individuals within 60 days of the end of the calendar year in which the breaches occurred.
• The affected individuals, who are the individuals whose PHI has been, or is reasonably believed to have been, accessed, acquired, used, or disclosed as a result of the breach. A covered entity must notify the affected individuals without unreasonable delay and in no case later than 60 days after discovery of the breach. The notification must be in writing by first-class mail or, if the individual agrees, by electronic mail. The notification must include a brief description of the breach, the types of information involved, the steps the individual should take to protect themselves, the steps the covered entity is taking to investigate and mitigate the breach, and the contact information of the covered entity.
• The local media, if the breach affects more than 500 residents of a state or jurisdiction. A covered entity must notify prominent media outlets serving the state or jurisdiction without unreasonable delay and in no case later than 60 days after discovery of the breach. The notification must include the same information as the notification to the affected individuals.

A covered entity does not have to report the breach to medical providers, unless they are also affected individuals or business associates of the covered entity. A business associate is a person or entity that performs certain functions or activities on behalf of, or provides certain services to, a covered entity that involve the use or disclosure of PHI. A covered entity must have a writtencontract or agreement with its business associates that requires them to protect the privacy and security of PHI and report any breaches to the covered entity.

References:

• IAPP CIPP/US Body of Knowledge, Domain II: Limits on Private-sector Collection and Use of Data, Section C: Sector-specific Requirements for Health Information
• IAPP CIPP/US Certified Information Privacy Professional Study Guide, Chapter 2: Limits on Private-sector Collection and Use of Data, Section 2.3: Sector-specific Requirements for Health Information
• Practice Exam - International Association of Privacy Professionals

 U.S. federal laws protect individuals from employment discrimination based on a number of protected characteristics, such as age, pregnancy, and genetic information. However, marital status is not one of them. There is no federal law that prohibits employment discrimination based on marital status, although some states and localities have enacted such laws. The other statements are incorrect because:

• A. Age is a protected characteristic under the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 (ADEA), which protects people who are 40 or older from discrimination because of age1.
• B. Pregnancy is a protected characteristic under the Pregnancy Discrimination Act, which amended Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 to make it illegal to discriminate against a woman because of pregnancy, childbirth, or a medical condition related to pregnancy or childbirth2.
• D. Genetic information is a protected characteristic under the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 (GINA), which makes it illegal to discriminate against employees or applicants because of genetic information, such as family medical history, genetic tests, or participation in genetic research2. References: Prohibited Employment Policies/Practices, Employment discrimination law in the United States, Civil Rights Requirements- Federal Employment Discrimination Laws

The correct answer is C because the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) is a state privacy law that grants California residents the right to request the deletion of their personal information that a business has collected from them. The CCPA applies to any business that collects personal information from California residents, regardless of where the business is located, as long as the business meets certain thresholds of revenue, data volume, or data sharing. Therefore, the social media platform that Sarah uses is subject to the CCPA and must honor Sarah’s deletion request, unless an exception applies. The CCPA also requires businesses to provide notice and choice to consumersabout their data collection and use practices, and to respond to consumer requests within 45 days.

The other answers are incorrect because:

• A is incorrect because the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a European Union privacy law that applies to the processing of personal data of individuals who are in the EU, regardless of where the data controller or processor is located. However, the GDPR does not apply to the processing of personal data of individuals who are outside the EU, unless the processing relates to the offering of goods or services to such individuals or the monitoring of their behavior within the EU. Therefore, the GDPR does not apply to Sarah’s personal data, since she is not in the EU and the social media platform is not targeting or tracking her in the EU.
• B is incorrect because Section 5 of the FTC Act is a federal law that prohibits unfair or deceptive acts or practices in or affecting commerce. The FTC has used its Section 5 authority to enforce privacy and data security standards against businesses that violate their own privacy policies, misrepresent their data practices, or fail to protect consumer data from unauthorized access or disclosure. However, the FTC has not held that refusing to delete an individual’s personal information upon request constitutes an unfair practice per se, unless the refusal is inconsistent with the business’s privacy policy or representations, or causes substantial injury to consumers that is not reasonably avoidable or outweighed by countervailing benefits.
• D is incorrect because the New York SHIELD Act is a state law that imposes data breach notification and data security requirements on any person or business that owns or licenses computerized data that includes the private information of a New York resident. The SHIELD Act does not grant New York residents the right to request the deletion of their personal information, nor does it apply to businesses that do not collect or hold the private information of New York residents. Therefore, the SHIELD Act does not apply to Sarah’s personal data, since she is not a New York resident and the social media platform may not have her private information as defined by the SHIELD Act. References:
• U.S. Private-Sector Privacy, Third Edition by Peter P. Swire, DeBrae Kennedy-Mayo, Chapter 7, Section 7.2.1, pp. 183-186.
• IAPP CIPP/US Certified Information Privacy Professional Study Guide by Mike Chapple and Joe Shelley, Chapter 7, Section 7.2, pp. 217-219.

Contact tracing apps are designed to help public health authorities track and contain the spread of COVID-19 or any other diagnosed virus by notifying users who have been in close contact with an infected person. However, these apps also raise privacy concerns, as they collect and process sensitive personal data, such as health status and location information. Therefore, contact tracing apps should follow the principles of privacy by design and default, which means that they should incorporate privacy measures into their development and operation, and offer the highest level of privacy protection to users.

Some of the privacy measures that should be considered when designing contact tracing apps are:

• Data retention: Contact tracing apps should only retain the personal data they collect for as long as necessary to achieve their public health purpose, and delete or anonymize the data afterwards. Data retention periods should be clearly communicated to users and based on scientific evidence and legal requirements.
• Use limitations: Contact tracing apps should only use the personal data they collect for the specific and legitimate purpose of contact tracing, and not for any other purposes, such as commercial, law enforcement, or surveillance. Use limitations should be enforced by technical and organizational measures, such as encryption, access controls, and audits.
• User confidentiality: Contact tracing apps should protect the confidentiality of users’ personal data and identity, and not disclose them to third parties without their consent or legal authorization. User confidentiality should be ensured by technical and organizational measures, such as pseudonymization, aggregation, and data minimization.

Opt-out choice, on the other hand, is not a privacy measure that should be considered when designing contact tracing apps, as it would undermine their effectiveness and public health objective. Contact tracing apps rely on voluntary participation and widespread adoption by users to function properly and achieve their purpose. Therefore, offering users the option to opt out of the app or certain features, such as data sharing or notifications, would reduce the app’s coverage and accuracy, and potentially expose users and others to greater health risks. Instead of opt-out choice, contact tracing apps should provide users with clear and transparent information about how the app works, what data it collects and how it uses it, what benefits and risks it entails, and what rights and controls users have over their data. This way, users can make an informed and voluntary decision to use the app or not, based on their own preferences and values.

References:

• [IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide], Chapter 2: Privacy by Design and Default, pp. 35-36.
• [IAPP CIPP/US Body of Knowledge], Section II: Limits on Private-sector Collection and Use of Data, Subsection B: Privacy by Design, pp. 9-10.
• [IAPP Glossary], Terms: Contact Tracing, Privacy by Design, Privacy by Default.

 Data breach notification laws in the United States vary by state and territory, and there is no comprehensive federal law that applies to all types of personal information. Some federal laws, such as HIPAA, GLBA, and the FDIC rule, impose data breach notification requirements for specific industries or sectors, but they do not cover all types of personal information or all entities that collect, store, or process such information. Therefore, the only obligations to provide data breach notification for the breach of personal information are under state law, unless a specific federal law applies to the entity or the information involved. The other statements are incorrect because:

• A. You do not have to notify the FTC in addition to affected individuals if over 500 individuals are receiving notice, unless you are a health care entity subject to HIPAA, in which case you have to notify the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) within 60 days of the breach.
• B. When providing an individual with required notice of a data breach, you do not have to identify what personal information was actually or likely compromised, unless the state law requires you to do so. Some states, such as California, require the notice to include the types of personal information that were or are reasonably believed to have been the subject of the breach, while others, such as Alabama, do not specify the content of the notice.
• C. When you are required to provide an individual with notice of a data breach under any state’s law, you do not have to provide the individual with an offer for free credit monitoring, unless the state law requires you to do so. Some states, such as Connecticut, require the offer of appropriate identity theft prevention and mitigation services for at least 12 months, while others, such as Arizona, do not impose such a requirement. References: Data Breach Notification in the United States and Territories, Data Breach Notification Laws in the United States: What is Required and How is that Determined?, US State Data Breach Notification Law Matrix, Breach Notification in United States, Data Breach Notification Laws: How to Manufacture a Confident Response

A consent decree is a legal document that resolves a dispute between a governmental agency and an adverse party without admission of guilt or liability by either side. It is approved by a judge and has the force of a court order. A consent decree may include terms such as compliance, monitoring, reporting, or remediation. A consent decree is often used to settle civil enforcement actions brought by federal agencies such as the Federal Trade Commission (FTC), the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), or the Department of Justice (DOJ). References:

• IAPP Glossary, entry for “consent decree”
• [IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide], p. 39, section 2.1.3
• [IAPP CIPP/US Body of Knowledge], p. 9, section B.1.a

The Department of Commerce (DOC) plays a role in privacy policy by promoting the development and adoption of voluntary codes of conduct, standards, and best practices for the private sector, as well as facilitating cross-border data transfers through mechanisms such as the EU-U.S. Privacy Shield and the APEC Cross-Border Privacy Rules. However, the DOC does not have regulatory authority to enforce privacy laws or impose sanctions for privacy violations. The other agencies listed have some degree of regulatory authority over privacy issues within their respective domains. For example, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) supervises national banks and federal savings associations and enforces the GLBA privacy and security rules for these institutions. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) regulates interstate and international communications and enforces the privacy and security rules for telecommunications carriers, broadband providers, and voice over internet protocol (VoIP) services. The Department of Transportation (DOT) oversees the transportation sector and enforces the privacy and security rules for airlines, travel agents, and other covered entities under the Aviation and Transportation Security Act (ATSA). References:

• IAPP CIPP/US Certified Information Privacy Professional Study Guide, Chapter 1: Introduction to the U.S. Privacy Environment, Section 1.3: Federal Agencies with a Role in Privacy, p. 18-19
• IAPP CIPP/US Body of Knowledge, Domain I: Introduction to the U.S. Privacy Environment, Objective I.B: Identify the major federal agencies with a role inprivacy, Subobjective I.B.4: Identify the role of the Department of Commerce, p. 7
• IAPP CIPP/US Exam Blueprint, Domain I: Introduction to the U.S. Privacy Environment, Objective I.B: Identify the major federal agencies with a role in privacy, Subobjective I.B.4: Identify the role of the Department of Commerce, p. 3

According to the HIPAA Security Rule, covered entities are responsible for ensuring that their business associates comply with the security standards and safeguards required by the rule. This includes conducting due diligence to assess the business associate’s security capabilities and practices, and monitoring their performance and compliance. Failure to do so may result in a violation of the rule and a penalty by the HHS. In this scenario, HealthCo did not perform due diligence on CloudHealth before entering the contract, and did not conduct audits of CloudHealth’s security measures. This is the most significant reason why HHS might impose a penalty on HealthCo, as it indicates a lack of oversight and accountability for the protection of ePHI. References:

• HIPAA Security Rule
• HIPAA Business Associate Contracts
• HIPAA Enforcement and Penalties

 Declan might directly violate the HIPAA Privacy Rule by using John’s name and personal health information (PHI) in his paper without his written authorization. The Privacy Rule protects the confidentiality of PHI that is created, received, maintained, or transmitted by a covered entity or its business associate. PHI includes any information that relates to the past, present, or future physical or mental health or condition of an individual, the provision of health care to an individual, or the past, present, or future payment for the provision of health care to an individual, and that identifies the individual or for which there is a reasonable basis to believe can be used to identify the individual1. Declan, as a nursing assistant, is part of the covered entity’s workforce and must comply with the Privacy Rule. He cannot disclose John’s PHI to anyone, including his classmates or instructors, without John’s authorization or a valid exception under the Privacy Rule. Even if he does not use John’s full name, hemay still reveal enough information to make John identifiable, such as his diagnosis, his father’s condition, or his location. This would be an impermissible use and disclosure of PHI, and a potential HIPAA violation. Declan should either obtain John’s written authorization to use his PHI in his paper, or de-identify the information according to the Privacy Rule’s standards2. References:

• Summary of the HIPAA Privacy Rule
• Guidance Regarding Methods for De-identification of Protected Health Information in Accordance with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule

The FTC alleged that Google violated its own privacy policies, engaged in deceptive trade practices, and failed to comply with Safe Harbor principles when it launched Google Buzz, a social networking service that automatically enrolled Gmail users and exposed their email contacts and other personal information without their consent or control. The FTC did not allege that Google failed to employ sufficient security safeguards, although it did require Google to implement a comprehensive privacy program and submit to regular privacy audits as part of the settlement. The other statements are incorrect because:

• A. Violated its own privacy policies: The FTC alleged that Google violated its own privacy policies by using information collected from Gmail users for a purpose that wasincompatible with the purpose for which the information was collected, without obtaining their affirmative consent. Google’s privacy policy stated that "When you sign up for a particular service that requires registration, we ask you to provide personal information. If we use this information in a manner different than the purpose for which it was collected, then we will ask for your consent prior to such use."1
• B. Engaged in deceptive trade practices: The FTC alleged that Google engaged in deceptive trade practices by misrepresenting the extent to which consumers could exercise control over the collection, use, and sharing of their personal information through Google Buzz. For example, Google offered consumers the option to decline or turn off Google Buzz, but the option was ineffective and did not fully remove the consumer from the social network. Google also misled consumers about how their email contacts would be treated on Google Buzz, and failed to disclose that certain information, such as the user’s frequent email contacts, would be made public by default.1
• C. Failed to comply with Safe Harbor principles: The FTC alleged that Google failed to comply with the U.S.-EU Safe Harbor Framework, which provides a method for U.S. companies to transfer personal data from the European Union to the United States in a way that meets EU data protection requirements. Google had self-certified to the Department of Commerce that it adhered to the Safe Harbor Privacy Principles, which include notice, choice, access, and enforcement. The FTC alleged that Google’s conduct violated the notice and choice principles, as well as the requirement to adhere to the Safe Harbor FAQs.1 References: FTC Charges Deceptive Privacy Practices in Google’s Rollout of Its Buzz Social Network, Google, Inc., In the Matter of, Google settles with FTC over Buzz; Privacy policies to be audited for two decades, Google Settles FTC Complaint over Google Buzz Privacy

• The Privacy Act of 1974 is a federal law that regulates the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information by federal agencies.
• The Privacy Act of 1974 applies to records that are maintained in a system of records, which is defined as a group of records under the control of an agency from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifier assigned to the individual.
• The Privacy Act of 1974 grants individuals the right to access and amend their records, and requires agencies to provide notice of their systems of records, establish safeguards for the protection of the records, and limit the disclosure of the records to certain authorized purposes.
• The Privacy Act of 1974 also establishes civil and criminal penalties for violations of the law, such as unauthorized disclosure, failure to publish a notice, or refusal to grant access or amendment.
• The Privacy Act of 1974 does NOT require agencies to obtain the consent of the individual before collecting their personal information. However, the Privacy Act of 1974 does require agencies to inform the individual of the authority for the collection, the purpose and use of the collection, and the effects of not providing the information.

References: : [Overview of the Privacy Act of 1974]

The Privacy Protection Act of 1980 (PPA) is a federal law that protects journalists and newsrooms from search and seizure by government officials in connection with criminal investigations or prosecutions. The PPA prohibits the government from searching for or seizing any work product materials or documentary materials possessed by a person who intends to disseminate them to the public through a newspaper, book, broadcast, or other similar form of public communication, unless certain exceptions apply. The PPA was drafted in response to the Supreme Court’s decision in Zurcher v. Stanford Daily, which upheld the constitutionality of a police search of a student newspaper’s office without a subpoena, based on probable cause that the newspaper had evidence of a crime. The PPA was intended to protect the First Amendment rights of the press and the privacy interests of journalists and their sources from unreasonable government intrusion123. References:

• 1: IAPP, Privacy Protection Act of 1980, https://epic.org/the-privacy-protection-act-of-1980/
• 2: DOJ, Privacy Protection Act of 1980, https://www.justice.gov/archives/jm/criminal-resource-manual-661-privacy-protection-act-1980
• 3: Wikipedia, Privacy Protection Act of 1980, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Privacy_Protection_Act_of_1980

 An intrusion upon seclusion tort occurs when someone intentionally intrudes, physically or otherwise, upon the solitude or seclusion of another or his private affairs or concerns, if the intrusion would be highly offensive to a reasonable person12. The intrusion does not need to involve a physical trespass, but can also be an electronic or optical intrusion, such as using a webcam to record a person who has a reasonable expectation of privacy2. The intrusion must also cause mental anguish or suffering to the plaintiff2.

In this case, option A would best support an employee claim for an intrusion upon seclusion tort, because the webcam is enabled to record video any time the computer is turned on, regardless of whether the employee is working or not, or whether the employee is in a private or public place. This would be an intentional and highly offensive intrusion into the employee’s seclusion or private affairs, and would likely cause the employee distress or anxiety.

Option B would not support an intrusion upon seclusion tort, because the creation and saving of a biometric template based on keystroke dynamics is not an intrusion into the employee’s seclusion or private affairs, but rather a data collection and processing activity that may implicate other privacy laws or principles, such as notice, consent, and security3.

Option C would not support an intrusion upon seclusion tort, because the software sending a notification to a supervisor when the employee’s mouse is dormant for more than five minutes is not an intrusion into the employee’s seclusion or private affairs, but rather a performance monitoring activity that may be justified by the employer’s legitimate business interests4.

Option D would not support an intrusion upon seclusion tort, because the webcam recording video of an employee using a company laptop to perform personal business while at a coffee shop during work hours is not an intrusion into the employee’s seclusion or private affairs, but rather a misuse of company property and time that may be subject to the employer’s policies and disciplinary actions5. Moreover, the employee may not have a reasonable expectation of privacy in a public place like a coffee shop. References: 1: Intrusion on seclusion - Wikipedia 2: Elements of an Intrusion Claim | Digital Media Law Project 3: Biometrics - IAPP 4: Employee Monitoring - IAPP 5: Employee Privacy - IAPP : Privacy in Public Places - IAPP

The HIPAA Security Rule requires covered entities and their business associates to implement three types of safeguards to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of electronic protected health information (ePHI): administrative, physical, and technical1. Security safeguards is not a separate category of safeguards, but rather a general term that encompasses all three types. Therefore, it is not a correct answer to the question.

• Administrative safeguards are the policies and procedures that govern the conduct of the workforce and the security measures put in place to protect ePHI. They include risk analysis and management, training, contingency planning, incident response, and evaluation12.
• Physical safeguards are the locks, doors, cameras, and other physical measures that prevent unauthorized access to ePHI. They include workstation and device security, locks and keys, and disposal of media12.
• Technical safeguards are the software and hardware tools that protect ePHI from unauthorized access, alteration, or destruction. They include access control, encryption, audit controls, integrity controls, and transmission security12.

In the scenario, HealthCo’s actions have potentially violated all three types of safeguards. For example:

• HealthCo did not perform due diligence on CloudHealth before entering the contract, and has not conducted audits of CloudHealth’s security measures. This could be a breach of the administrative safeguard of risk analysis and management12.
• HealthCo discovers that CloudHealth has not encrypted the PHI in accordance with the terms of its contract. This could be a breach of the technical safeguard of encryption12.
• HealthCo provides its investigative report of the breach and a copy of the PHI of the individuals affected to law enforcement. This could be a breach of the physical safeguard of disposal of media, if HealthCo did not ensure that the media was properly erased or destroyed after the transfer12.

References: 1: Summary of the HIPAA Security Rule, HHS.gov. 2: What is the HIPAA Security Rule? Safeguards … - Secureframe, Secureframe.com.

Janice’s first draft of the privacy policy may be too restrictive and impractical for Fitness Coach, Inc. to follow, given the nature of its business and the expectations of its customers. By limiting the retention of personal information to one year and requiring written consent for any third-party sharing, the policy may create operational challenges and customer dissatisfaction. For example, customers may want to resume their fitness programs after a long hiatus and expect the company to have their previous records and preferences. Similarly, third-party contractors may need access to customer information to provide better services and tailor their classes. If the company fails to adhere to its own privacy policy, it may face legal consequences, reputational damage, and loss of trust from its customers. Therefore, the company should adopt a more realistic and flexible privacy policy that balances its business needs and its customers’ privacy rights. References:

• Privacy Policy for Health Coaches
• Privacy Policies for Online Coaches
• Privacy Policy - Coaching.com

The Telemarketing Sales Rule (TSR) is a federal regulation that applies to telemarketing calls, which are defined as "a plan, program, or campaign which is conducted to induce the purchase of goods or services or a charitable contribution, by use of one or more telephones and which involves more than one interstate telephone call."1 The TSR requires telemarketers to make specific disclosures, prohibit misrepresentations, limit the times and number of calls, and set payment restrictions for the sale of certain goods and services. The TSR also gives consumers the right to opt out of receiving telemarketing calls by registering their phone numbers on the National Do Not Call Registry.2

The TSR applies to both for-profit and not-for-profit organizations, but there are some exemptions and partial exemptions for certain types of entities, calls, and transactions. For example, the TSR does not apply to nonprofit organizations calling on their own behalf, as they are not considered to be engaged intelemarketing. However, if a nonprofit organization hires a for-profit telemarketer or telefunder to solicit charitable contributions on its behalf, the for-profit entity must comply with the TSR, as it is engaged in telemarketing. Similarly, the TSR does not apply to for-profit organizations calling businesses when a binding contract exists between them, as they are not considered to be inducing the purchase of goods or services. However, if a for-profit organization calls businesses to sell additional services to established customers, the TSR applies, as it is considered to be inducing the purchase of goods or services.3

Therefore, among the four options, only for-profit organizations and for-profit telefunders regarding charitable solicitations must comply with the TSR, as they are engaged in telemarketing and do not fall under any of the exemptions or partial exemptions. References: 1: eCFR :: 16 CFR Part 310 – Telemarketing Sales Rule3, Section 310.22: Telemarketing Sales Rule | Federal Trade Commission1, Rule Summary3: Complying with the Telemarketing Sales Rule - Federal Trade Commission2, Exemptions to the TSR.

Under the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA), a business that collects personal information of California residents must notify them of a data breach if their personal information is subject to unauthorized access and exfiltration, theft, or disclosure as a result of the business’s violation of the duty to implement and maintain reasonable security procedures and practices. However, the CCPA excludes encrypted or redacted personal information from the definition of personal information, unless the encryption key or security credential is also compromised. Therefore, Privacy Is Hiring Inc. would need to notify the affected individuals only if the encryption keys were also taken along with the credit card information, as this would render the encryption ineffective and expose the personal information to unauthorized access. The other options are not relevant to the CCPA notification requirement, although they may be relevant to other laws or best practices. References: CCPA (Section 1798.150), IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide (p. 63-64)

The data privacy leader needs to identify all the personal data that the Company has received from the retailer, as well as the purposes, retention periods, and sharing practices of such data. Since the data inventory is obsolete, the data privacy leader cannot rely on it to provide accurate and complete information. Therefore, the next best source of information is to interview the key marketing personnel who are responsible for the partnership with the retailer and the use of the personal data. The marketing personnel can provide insights into the data flows, the data categories, the data processing activities, and the data protection measures that the Company has implemented. They can also help the data privacy leader to locate the relevant documents, contracts, and records that can support the investigation. References: [IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide], Chapter 5: Data Management, p. 97-98; IAPP Privacy Tech Vendor Report, Data Mapping and Inventory, p. 9-10.

 The Office for Civil Rights (OCR) within the HHS is the primary enforcer of the HIPAA Privacy Rule, which establishes national standards for the protection of individually identifiable health information by covered entities and business associates. The OCR investigates complaints, conducts compliance reviews, and provides technical assistance and guidance to ensure compliance with the Privacy Rule. The OCR can also impose civil monetary penalties for violations of the Privacy Rule, ranging from $100 to $50,000 per violation, up to a maximum of $1.5 million per year for the same violation. References: HIPAA Enforcement, IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1

 Under state breach notification laws, personal information is typically defined as an individual’s first name or first initial and last name plus one or more other data elements, such as Social Security number, state identification number, account number, medical information, etc. However, first and last name alone are not usually considered personal information, unless they are combined with other data elements that could identify the individual or compromise their security or privacy. Therefore, option B is the correct answer, as it is not typically included in the definition of personal information under state breach notification laws. References: 

The USA FREEDOM Act is a law that was enacted in 2015 to reform the surveillance practices of the U.S. government. The law was a response to the revelations by Edward Snowden about the mass collection of phone records and internet data by the National Security Agency (NSA) under the authority of Section 215 of the USA PATRIOT Act. The USA FREEDOM Act ended the bulk collection of telephone data and internet metadata by the NSA, and instead required the government to obtain a specific order from the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Court (FISC) to access such data from the telecommunication providers. The law also authorized the following practices:

• Emergency exceptions that allow the government to target roamers: The law allows the government to temporarily target a non-U.S. person who is using a phone number or identifier of a U.S. person, without a court order, if there is an emergency situation that involves a threat of death or serious bodily harm. The government must obtain a court order within seven days to continue the surveillance.
• An increase in the maximum penalty for material support to terrorism: The law increases the maximum prison term for providing material support or resources to a foreign terrorist organization from 15 years to 20 years.
• An extension of the expiration for roving wiretaps: The law extends the sunset date for the roving wiretap provision of the USA PATRIOT Act, which allows the government to obtain a single order from the FISC to conduct surveillance on a target who switches devices or locations, without specifying the device or location. The law extends the expiration date from June 1, 2015 to December 15, 2019. References:
• USA FREEDOM Act
• USA FREEDOM Act Summary
• USA FREEDOM Act FAQs

 The correct answer is D. If the algorithm uses information about protected classes to make automated decisions, Acme must ensure that the algorithm does not have a disparate impact on protected classes in the output. The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) protects consumers from unfair, inaccurate, and discriminatory treatment by creditors and other businesses that use credit reports. The FCRA prohibits creditors from using information about protected classes, such as race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age, or because they receive income from a public assistance program, to make decisions about credit. In the case of Acme Student Loan Company, the algorithm is using information about protected classes to make automated decisions about whether to send payment reminder calls. This could have a disparateimpact on protected classes, such as people of color or people with low incomes. For example, people of color may be more likely to be identified as being at risk of default, even if they are just as likely to repay their loans as people of other races. Acme Student Loan Company must ensure that the algorithm does not have a disparate impact on protected classes. This could be done by using a variety of methods, such as:

• Testing the algorithm for accuracy, fairness, and bias before and after deployment
• Providing consumers with notice and consent options for the use of their data
• Allowing consumers to access, correct, or delete their data
• Implementing accountability and oversight mechanisms for the algorithm
• Ensuring compliance with applicable laws and regulations

References: 

Larry has a misconception about the applicability of federal law to private-sector employee rights. He believes that the U.S. Constitution protects American workers from various forms of discrimination, harassment, and invasion of privacy by their employers. However, the U.S. Constitution only applies to government actions, not private actions, unless there is a specific federal statute that extends constitutional protections to the private sector1. For example, the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin by private employers2. The Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986 regulates the interception and disclosure of electronic communications by private parties3. The CAN-SPAM Act of 2003 sets the rules for commercial email and gives recipients the right to opt out of receiving unwanted messages4. These are examples of federal laws that apply to private-sector employees, but they do not cover all the situations that Larry faces at SunriseLynx. For instance, there is no federal law that protects private-sector employees from political discrimination or from having their personal mail opened by their employers. Larry may have to rely on state laws or common law torts to seek redress for these violations of his rights. References: 1: Private Sector vs. Public Sector Employee Rights2: [Civil Rights Act of 1964 - Wikipedia] 3: [Electronic Communications Privacy Act - Wikipedia] 4: CAN-SPAM Act: A Compliance Guide for Business : IAPP CIPP/US Certified Information Privacy Professional Study Guide, Chapter 5: Federal Trade Commission and Consumer Privacy, p. 141-142

Under the GDPR, the complainant’s request regarding her personal information is known as the right to be forgotten, also known as the right to erasure. This right allows individuals to ask organizations to delete their personal data in certain circumstances, such as when the data is no longer necessary, the consent is withdrawn, or the processing is unlawful. The right to be forgotten is not absolute and may not apply if the processing is necessary for legal, public interest, or legitimate purposes. The right to be forgotten also requires organizations to inform any recipients of the data about the erasure request, unless it is impossible or involves disproportionate effort. References:

• Everything you need to know about the “Right to be forgotten”
• Right to erasure | ICO
• Art. 17 GDPR – Right to erasure (‘right to be forgotten’) - General …
• [IAPP CIPP/US Certified Information Privacy Professional Study Guide], Chapter 6, page 213.

The Stored Communications Act (SCA) is a federal law that regulates the privacy of electronic communications that are stored by third-party service providers, such as email providers, cloud storage providers, or social media platforms. The SCA prohibits unauthorized access to or disclosure of such communications, unless authorized by law or by the consent of the user or the service provider . The SCA also provides exceptions for certain types of access or disclosure, such as those made for law enforcement purposes, for the protection of the service provider’s rights or property, or for the consent of the subscriber or customer .

One of the exceptions to the SCA is where the service provider gives consent to the access or disclosure of the stored communications. This means that if a third-party service provider agrees to cooperate with an investigation or a request for information, the access or disclosure is lawful under the SCA. Consent can be express or implied, depending on the circumstances and the terms of service of the provider. For example, if a service provider has a policy that allows it to disclose user information to third parties for legitimate purposes, the provider has impliedly consented to the access or disclosure of the stored communications. However, if a service provider has a policy that prohibits such disclosure, the provider has not consented to the access or disclosure of the stored communications.

In the scenario, Evan’s undercover investigation may have been authorized by the SCA if he obtained the consent of the third-party service provider that stored the electronic communications of the employee who was suspected of misconduct. For instance, if the employee used a company email account or a cloud storage service that had a policy that allowed the service provider to disclose user information to the employer or to law enforcement, Evan may have been able to access or disclose the stored communications with the consent of the service provider. However, if the employee used a personal email account or a cloud storage service that had a policy that protected user privacy and prohibited such disclosure, Evan may have violated the SCA by accessing or disclosing the stored communications without the consent of the service provider.

References: : [Stored Communications Act], 18 U.S.C. §§ 2701-2712 : [IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide], Chapter 8, Section 8.2.2. : [The Stored Communications Act: An Old Statute for Modern Problems], pp. 10-11.

The Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) is a federal law that protects the privacy of student education records and gives parents or eligible students the right to access, amend, and control the disclosure of their records. FERPA applies to all educational agencies and institutions that receive funds under any program administered by the U.S. Department of Education12

FERPA requires schools to do all of the following:

• Verify the identity of students who make requests for access to their records. Schools must use reasonable methods to identify and authenticate the identity of parents, students, school officials, and any other parties to whom they disclose education records12
• Provide students with access to their records within a specified amount of time. Schools must provide parents or eligible students with an opportunity to inspect and review the student’s education records within 45 days of receiving a request. Schoolsare not required to provide copies of records unless it is impossible for parents or eligible students to review the records at the school12
• Respond to all reasonable student requests regarding explanation of their records. Schools must provide parents or eligible students with an opportunity to request the amendment of the student’s education records that they believe are inaccurate, misleading, or otherwise in violation of the student’s privacy rights. Schools must consider the request and decide whether to amend the records within a reasonable time. If the school decides not to amend the records, it must inform the parent or eligible student of their right to a hearing on the matter12

FERPA does not require schools to do the following:

• Obtain student authorization before releasing directory information in their records. Directory information is information contained in a student’s education record that would not generally be considered harmful or an invasion of privacy if disclosed. Examples of directory information include the student’s name, address, phone number, e-mail address, date and place of birth, major field of study, participation in sports and activities, dates of attendance, degrees and awards received, and most recent school attended. Schools may disclose directory information without consent unless the parent or eligible student has opted out of such disclosure. Schools must notify parents and eligible students of the types of information they designate as directory information and of their right to opt out of directory information disclosure12

Therefore, the correct answer is D. Obtain student authorization before releasing directory information in their records.

References:

• Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA)
• IAPP CIPP/US Certified Information Privacy Professional Study Guide, Chapter 4: Federal Privacy Laws, Section 4.3: The Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA)

The annual privacy notice requirement under the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) applies to financial institutions that collect nonpublic personal information from customers and disclose it to nonaffiliated third parties, unless they qualify for an exception. A financial institution is any entity that engages in activities that are financial in nature or incidental to such activities, as defined by section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956. The King County Savings and Loan is a financial institution under this definition, as it engages in lending money and accepting deposits. Therefore, it is required to provide its customers with an annual privacy notice, unless it meets the conditions for an exception. The Four Winds Tribal College, the Golden Gavel Auction House, and the Breezy City Housing Commission are not financial institutions under the GLBA, as they do not engage in activities that are financial in nature or incidental to such activities. Therefore, they are not required to provide their customers with an annual privacy notice under the GLBA. References:

• Amendment to the Annual Privacy Notice Requirement Under the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, section I. Background, paragraph 2.
• 17 CFR § 248.5 - Annual privacy notice to customers required., paragraph (a) (1).
• IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide, page 65.

The Wireless Domain Registry is a list of domain names that are used to transmit electronic messages to wireless devices, such as cell phones and pagers. The purpose of the registry is to protect wireless consumers from unwanted commercial electronic mail messages, by identifying the domain names for those who send such messages. Marketers are required to use the registry to avoid sending unsolicited emails to wireless devices, which may incur costs or inconvenience for the recipients. Sending such emails without the express prior authorization of the recipient is a violation of the CAN-SPAM Act of 2003. References: 

https://www.prnewswire.com/in/news-releases/the-wireless-registry-launches-worlds-first-global-registry-for-wireless-names-240222521.html

Nevada’s privacy law, Senate Bill 260 (SB 260), is an amendment to the existing Nevada Revised Statutes (NRS) Chapter 603A that was enacted in June 2021 and will take effect on October 1, 2021. SB 260 expands the scope and definition of “covered information” under NRS 603A to include any information that identifies, relates to, describes, or is capable of being associated with a consumer, such as name, address, email, phone number, social security number, biometric data, geolocation data, and online identifiers. SB 260also grants Nevada consumers the right to opt out of the sale of their covered information by an operator of a website or online service that collects and maintains such information.

Under SB 260, an operator is defined as a person who owns or operates a website or online service for commercial purposes, collects and maintains covered information from consumers who reside in Nevada and use or visit the website or online service, and purposefully directs its activities toward Nevada. A sale is defined as the exchange of covered information for monetary consideration by the operator to a person for the person to license or sell the covered information to additional persons. However, there are some exceptions to the definition of a sale, such as:

• If the consumer has consented to the sale after being provided with clear and conspicuous notice of the sale and the opportunity to opt out.
• If the sale is to a person who processes the covered information on behalf of the operator.
• If the sale is to a person with whom the consumer has a direct relationship for the purposes of providing a product or service requested by the consumer.
• If the sale is to a person for purposes that are consistent with the reasonable expectations of the consumer considering the context in which the consumer provided the covered information to the operator.
• If the sale is to a person who is an affiliate of the operator.
• If the sale is to a person as an asset that is part of a merger, acquisition, bankruptcy, or other transaction in which the person assumes control of all or part of the operator’s assets.

To comply with SB 260, an operator that sells covered information must provide a designated request address through which a consumer may submit a verified request to opt out of the sale. The designated request address may be an email address, a toll-free telephone number, or an Internet website. The operator must respond to the verified request within 60 days, and may extend the response period for an additional 30 days if reasonably necessary. The operator must also provide a notice to the consumer that identifies the categories of covered information that the operator collects and the categories of third parties to whom the operator may disclose the covered information.

Therefore, the best privacy compliance step for SuperMart to comply with SB 260 is to provide a mechanism for consumers to opt out of sales, as this is the core requirement of the law. Option A is the correct answer.

Option B is incorrect, as SB 260 does not grant consumers the right to access or delete their covered information, unlike other state privacy laws such as the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) or the Virginia Consumer Data Protection Act (VCDPA).

Option C is incorrect, as SB 260 does not require operators to provide a notice of financial incentive for any loyalty programs offered to their customers, unlike the CCPA.

Option D is incorrect, as SB 260 does not impose service provider restrictions on the vendors of the operators, unlike the CCPA or the VCDPA.

References:

• [IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide], Chapter 10: State Data Security Laws, pp. 229-230.
• CIPP/US Practice Questions (Sample Questions), Question 33.

The California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) defines a ‘sale’ of personal information as any transfer or disclosure of personal information to another business or third party for monetary or other valuable consideration. However, the CCPA also provides some exceptions to this definition, such as:

• If the consumer has directed the business to intentionally disclose the personal information or use the personal information to interact with a third party, provided the third party does not also sell the personal information.
• If the business transfers the personal information to a service provider that is contractually prohibited from retaining, using, or disclosing the personal information for any purpose other than performing the services specified in the contract with the business.
• If the business transfers the personal information to a third party as part of a merger, acquisition, bankruptcy, or other transaction in which the third party assumes control of all or part of the business, provided the information is used or shared consistently with the CCPA.

The use of cookies on a website by a service provider is generally not deemed a sale of personal information by the CCPA, as long as the information collected by the service provider is necessary to perform the services specified in the contract with the business,and the service provider does not further collect, sell, or use the personal information of the consumer except as necessary to perform the business purpose. One of the examples of a valid business purpose is to perform debugging to identify and repair errors that impair existing intended functionality.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it describes a scenario where the use of cookies by a service provider is not a sale of personal information under the CCPA, assuming the service provider complies with the contractual obligations and does not further use or disclose the information.

Option A is incorrect, as it does not describe a valid exception to the definition of a sale. The third party that stores personal information to trigger a response to a consumer’s request to opt in is not acting as a service provider, but as a separate entity that may have its own interest in the personal information. The consumer’s request to opt in does not necessarily imply that the consumer has directed the business to disclose the personal information to the third party.

Option B is incorrect, as it does not describe a valid exception to the definition of a sale. The analytics cookies placed by the service provider may still constitute a sale of personal information, even if they cannot be linked to a particular consumer of that business. The CCPA defines personal information broadly to include any information that identifies, relates to, describes, is reasonably capable of being associated with, or could reasonably be linked, directly or indirectly, with a particular consumer or household. Therefore, the analytics cookies may still fall within the scope of personal information, and their use by the service provider may still be a sale, unless one of the exceptions applies.

Option C is incorrect, as it does not describe a valid exception to the definition of a sale. The service provider that retains personal information obtained in the course of providing the services specified in the agreement with the subcontractors is not acting as a service provider to the business, but as a separate entity that may have its own interest in the personal information. The agreement with the subcontractors does not necessarily imply that the business has authorized the service provider to retain, use, or disclose the personal information for any purpose other than performing the services specified in the contract with the business.

References:

• [IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide], Chapter 10: California Consumer Privacy Act, pp. 223-226.
• CIPP/US Practice Questions (Sample Questions), Question 30.

Redaction is the permanent removal of sensitive data—the digital equivalent of “blacking out” text in printed material. Redaction can be accomplished by simply deleting characters from a file or database record, or by replacing characters with asterisks or other placeholders. Redaction is often used to protect personal information, such as names, addresses, social security numbers, or financial data, on documents that are disclosed in litigation, such as pleadings, exhibits, or discovery responses. Redaction is required by courts to comply with privacy laws and rules, such as the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (FRCP), which mandate that parties must redact certain types of personal information from documents filed with the court or produced to the other party. Redaction is also a best practice to minimize the risk of unauthorized access, identity theft, or reputational harm that may result from exposing personal information in litigation. References:

• When to redact, or not, disclosable documents in litigation - Stewarts
• The approach to redaction – High Court guidance - Lexology
• IAPP CIPP/US Certified Information Privacy Professional Study Guide, Chapter 3: Federal Privacy Laws and Regulations, Section 3.2: Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (FRCP).

Most state laws require that a person or business that conducts business in the state and owns or licenses personal information of residents of that state must notify those residents of any breach of the security of the system involving their personal information. This means that the entity does not have to be physically located in the state, have employees in the state, or be registered inthe state to be subject to the breach notification requirements, as long as it conducts business in the state and holds personal information of state residents. Conducting business in the state can be interpreted broadly to include any transaction or activity that involves the state or its residents, such as selling goods or services, collecting payments, or maintaining a website accessible by state residents. The other options (B, C, and D) are not commonly required by most state laws, although some states may have additional or specific requirements for certain types of entities, such as information brokers, health care providers, or financial institutions. References:

• Security Breach Notification Chart | Perkins Coie
• Security Breach Notification Laws - National Conference of State Legislatures
• IAPP CIPP/US Certified Information Privacy Professional Study Guide, Chapter 4: State Privacy Laws and Regulations, Section 4.2: State Security Breach Notification Laws.

Access is the privacy concept that grants a consumer the right to view and correct errors on his or her credit report. The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) gives consumers the right to access their credit reports from the three nationwide credit reporting agencies (Equifax, Experian, and TransUnion) once every 12 months for free. Consumers also have the right to dispute any inaccurate or incomplete information in their credit reports and request that the credit reporting agencies investigate and correct the errors. The FCRA also requires the credit reporting agencies to provide consumers with a notice of their rights and a summary of the dispute process. References:

• IAPP CIPP/US Certified Information Privacy Professional Study Guide, Chapter 2: Limits on Private-sector Collection and Use of Data, Section 2.2: Consumer Privacy, p. 38-39
• IAPP CIPP/US Body of Knowledge, Domain II: Limits on Private-sector Collection and Use of Data, Objective II.B: Identify the privacy requirements for consumer data, Subobjective II.B.1: Identify the consumer rights under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, p. 13
• IAPP CIPP/US Exam Blueprint, Domain II: Limits on Private-sector Collection and Use of Data, Objective II.B: Identify the privacy requirements for consumer data, Subobjective II.B.1: Identify the consumer rights under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, p. 4

The FTC has stated that it is a deceptive practice to make retroactive changes to a privacy policy that affect how a company uses or shares previously collected personal information, unless the company obtains affirmative consent from the affected consumers. This means that the company must clearly and conspicuously disclose the changes and obtain the consumers’ express agreement to them. Simply describing the policy changes on the website, publicizing them through social media, or reassuring customers of the security of their information are not sufficient to comply with the FTC’s position. References:

• FTC Staff Revises Online Behavioral Advertising Principles, paragraph 3.
• Do I really have to obtain consent from all my customers to make a change to my privacy policy?, paragraph 2.
• IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide, page 64.

The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) is considered part of U.S. federal privacy law because it regulates the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information by consumer reporting agencies, such as credit bureaus, background check companies, and tenant screening services. The FCRA aims to protect the privacy, accuracy, and fairness of consumer credit information, and to ensure that consumers have access to and control over their own credit reports. The FCRA also imposes obligations on users and furnishers of consumer reports, such as creditors, employers, insurers, and landlords, to obtain consent, provide notice, and correct errors when using consumer reports for various purposes. The FCRA is enforced by the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) and other federal agencies, as well as by private lawsuits and state attorneys general. The FCRA was enacted in 1970 and has been amended several times, most notably by the Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act of 2003 (FACTA), which added provisions on identity theft prevention, fraud alerts, free credit reports, and disposal of consumer information. References:

• Fair Credit Reporting Act - Wikipedia
• Fair Credit Reporting Act | Federal Trade Commission
• Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) - Consumer Information
• Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) | Privacy Rights Clearinghouse

According to the Wiley study guide, one of the steps in developing a privacy policy is to conduct a privacy assessment, which involves identifying the organization’s information goals and needs, as well as the legal and regulatory requirements that apply to its data collection and use practices3. By spending more time understanding the company’s information goals, Janice would have been able to tailor the privacy policy to fit the company’s business model and customer expectations, while still complying with the relevant privacy laws and standards. This would have also helped Janice to address Cheryl’s concerns about the impact of the policy on the company’s operations and customer relationships, and to propose solutions that balance privacy protection and service delivery.

References:

1:

2:

3:

4:

5:

The Federal Trade Commission (FTC) is the primary federal agency that regulates advertising and marketing practices in the United States, including those targeting children via the Internet. The FTC enforces the Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA), which requires operators of websites and online services directed to children under 13 to obtain verifiable parental consent before collecting, using, or disclosing personal information from children. The FTC also enforces the FTC Act, which prohibits unfair or deceptive acts or practices in commerce, such as making false or misleading claims in advertising. The FTC has issued guidelines and reports on various aspects of digital advertising to children, such as sponsored content, influencers, data collection, persuasive design, and behavioral marketing. The FTC also hosts workshops and events to examine the impact of digital advertising on children and their ability to distinguish ads from entertainment. References:

• FTC website
• Digital Advertising to Children
• IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide, Chapter 5: Marketing and Privacy, pp. 169-170

The law that is not involved in the regulation of employee background checks is B. The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA). The GLBA is a federal law that regulates the privacy and security of financial information collected, used, or shared by financial institutions, such as banks, insurance companies, or securities firms. The GLBA does not apply to employee background checks, unless the employer is a financial institution that obtains financial information from a consumer reporting agency for employment purposes. In that case, the employer must comply with the GLBA’s notice and opt-out requirements, as well as the FCRA’s requirements for using consumer reports. References:

• [IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide], Chapter 4: Workplace Privacy, pp. 113-114.
• IAPP CIPP/US Body of Knowledge, Section IV: Workplace Privacy, Subsection A: Employee Privacy Expectations, Topic 3: Background Checks.
• IAPP CIPP/US Practice Questions, Question 150.

The Consumer Privacy Bill of Rights is a set of principles proposed by the Obama administration in 2012 to protect the privacy of consumers online and offline. The principles are based on the Fair Information Practice Principles, which are widely accepted as the foundation of privacy protection. One of the principles is the right to reasonable limits on the personal data that a company retains, which means that companies should collect and keep only the personal data they need for legitimate purposes, and dispose of it securely when it is no longer needed. This principle would best reform the company’s privacy program in the scenario, as it would address the major concerns that Roberta identified in her report, such as the lack of rules and procedures for purging and destroying outdated data, and the excessive access to customer information by low-level employees. By implementing reasonable limits on the personal data that the company retains, the company would reduce the risk of data breaches, enhance customer trust, and comply with state breach notification laws. References:

• Fact Sheet: Plan to Protect Privacy in the Internet Age by Adopting a Consumer Privacy Bill of Rights
• IAPP CIPP/US Certified Information Privacy Professional Study Guide, Chapter 1: Introduction to U.S. Privacy Law, Section 1.2: The Consumer Privacy Bill of Rights