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GIAC GSEC GIAC Security Essentials Exam Practice Test

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Total 385 questions

GIAC Security Essentials Questions and Answers

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Question 1

When you log into your Windows desktop what information does your Security Access Token (SAT) contain?

Options:

A.

The Security ID numbers (SIDs) of all the groups to which you belong

B.

A list of cached authentications

C.

A list of your domain privileges

D.

The Security ID numbers (SIDs) of all authenticated local users

Question 2

Which of the following Linux commands can change both the username and group name a file belongs to?

Options:

A.

chown

B.

chgrp

C.

chmod

D.

newgrp

Question 3

You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You are required to search for the error messages in the /var/log/messages log file. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

ps /var/log/messages

B.

cat /var/log/messages | look error

C.

cat /var/log/messages | grep error

D.

cat /var/log/messages

Question 4

John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. He is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to delete his private.txt file from his operating system. He knows that the deleted file can be recovered easily. Hence, he wants to delete the file securely. He wants to hide the shredding, and so he desires to add a final overwrite of the file private.txt with zero. Which of the following commands will John use to accomplish his task?

Options:

A.

rmdir -v private.txt

B.

shred -vfu private.txt

C.

shred -vfuz private.txt

D.

rm -vf private.txt

Question 5

What is the fundamental problem with managing computers in stand-alone Windows workgroups?

Options:

A.

Computers in workgroups are not able to create Security Access Tokens (SATs) for their users.

B.

Once a computer joins a workgroup, the Security IDs (SIDs) of its users are transferred to the other computers in the workgroup in clear text.

C.

Computers that have Joined a workgroup cannot subsequently Join a domain.

D.

They do not accept the Security Access Tokens (SATs) from other computer.

Question 6

Which of the following attack vectors are addressed by Xinetd and TCP Wrappers?

Options:

A.

Outsider attack from network

B.

Outsider attack from a telephone

C.

Insider attack from local network

D.

Attack from previously installed malicious code

E.

A and B

F.

A and C

G.

B and D

Question 7

One of your Linux systems was compromised last night. According to change management history and a recent vulnerability scan, the system's patches were up-to-date at the time of the attack. Which of the following statements is the Most Likely explanation?

Options:

A.

It was a zero-day exploit.

B.

It was a Trojan Horse exploit.

C.

It was a worm exploit.

D.

It was a man-in-middle exploit.

Question 8

Options:

A.

JSON

B.

XML

C.

CEF

D.

LEEF

Question 9

Which of the following is a benefit to utilizing Cygwin for Windows?

Options:

A.

The ability to install a complete Red Hat operating system Install on Windows.

B.

The ability to bring much more powerful scripting capabilities to Windows.

C.

The ability to run a production Apache server.

D.

The ability to install a complete Ubuntu operating system install on Windows.

Question 10

You have set up a local area network for your company. Your firewall separates your network into several sections: a DMZ with semi-public servers (web, dns, email) and an intranet with private servers. A penetration tester gains access to both sections and installs sniffers in each. He is able to capture network traffic for all the devices in the private section but only for one device (the device with the sniffer) in the DMZ. What can be inferred about the design of the system?

Options:

A.

You installed a router in the private section and a switch in the DMZ

B.

You installed a hub in the private section and a switch in the DMZ

C.

You installed a switch in the private section and a hub in the DMZ

D.

You installed a switch in the private section and a router in the DMZ

Question 11

Which Defense-in-Depth principle starts with an awareness of the value of each section of information within an organization?

Options:

A.

Information centric defense

B.

Uniform information protection

C.

General information protection

D.

Perimeter layering

Question 12

Use sudo to launch Snort with the, /etc /snort /snort.conf file In full mode to generate alerts based on incoming traffic to echo. What is the source IP address of the traffic triggering an alert with a destination port of 156?

Note: Snort Is configured to exit after It evaluates 50 packets.

Options:

A.

192.168.^.30

B.

10.72.101.210

C.

10.10.28.19

D.

10.11.10.11

E.

10.10.10.66

F.

192.168.87.68

G.

10.12.10.112

Question 13

Which of the following SIP methods is used to setup a new session and add a caller?

Options:

A.

ACK

B.

BYE

C.

REGISTER

D.

INVITE

E.

CANCEL

Question 14

Which of the following Unix syslog message priorities is the MOST severe?

Options:

A.

err

B.

emerg

C.

crit

D.

alert

Question 15

Which of the following defines the communication link between a Web server and Web applications?

Options:

A.

CGI

B.

PGP

C.

Firewall

D.

IETF

Question 16

The process of enumerating all hosts on a network defines which of the following activities?

Options:

A.

Port scanning

B.

Vulnerability scanning

C.

GPS mapping

D.

Network mapping

Question 17

Which logging capability is provided natively by syslog?

Options:

A.

Secure transit

B.

Collection

C.

MuIti-platform alerting

D.

Secure centralization

Question 18

John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to change the modified date and time of the file private.txt to 11 Nov 2009 02:59:58 am. Which of the following commands will John use to accomplish his task?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Options:

A.

rm private.txt #11 Nov 2009 02:59:58 am

B.

touch -d "11 Nov 2009 02:59:58 am" private.txt

C.

touch private.txt #11 Nov 2009 02:59:58 am

D.

touch -t 200911110259.58 private.txt

Question 19

An employee is currently logged into the corporate web server, without permission. You log into the web server as 'admin" and look for the employee's username: "dmaul" using the "who" command. This is what you get back:

Options:

A.

The contents of the /var/log/messages file has been altered

B.

The contents of the bash history file has been altered

C.

The contents of the utmp file has been altered

D.

The contents of the http logs have been altered

Question 20

Which of the following are network connectivity devices?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Options:

A.

Network analyzer

B.

Bridge

C.

Brouter

D.

Firewall

E.

Repeater

F.

Hub

Question 21

What is the command-line tool for Windows XP and later that allows administrators the ability to get or set configuration data for a very wide variety of computer and user account settings?

Options:

A.

IPCONFIG.EXE

B.

NETSTAT.EXE

C.

WMIC.EXE

D.

C0NF1G.EXE

Question 22

Which of the following utilities provides an efficient way to give specific users permission to use specific system commands at the root level of a Linux operating system?

Options:

A.

Snort

B.

Apache

C.

SSH

D.

SUDO

Question 23

Which of the following is a private, RFC 1918 compliant IP address that would be assigned to a DHCP scope on a private LAN?

Options:

A.

127.0.0.100

B.

169.254.1.50

C.

10.254.1.50

D.

172.35.1.100

Question 24

Which of the following networking topologies uses a hub to connect computers?

Options:

A.

Bus

B.

Ring

C.

Star

D.

Cycle

Question 25

A database is accessed through an application that users must authenticate with, on a host that only accepts connections from a subnet where the business unit that uses the data is located. What defense strategy is this?

Options:

A.

Information Centric

B.

Threat Modeling

C.

Uniform Production

D.

Vector Oriented

Question 26

Which of the following protocols allows an e-mail client to access and manipulate a remote e-mail file without downloading it to the local computer?

Options:

A.

IMAP

B.

SNMP

C.

POP3

D.

SMTP

Question 27

You work as a Network Administrator for Rick International. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. A user named Kevin wants to set an SSH terminal at home to connect to the company's network. You have to configure your company's router for it. By default, which of the following standard ports does the SSH protocol use for connection?

Options:

A.

443

B.

22

C.

21

D.

80

Question 28

A US case involving malicious code is brought to trial. An employee had opened a helpdesk ticket to report specific instances of strange behavior on her system. The IT helpdesk representative collected information by interviewing the user and escalated the ticket to the system administrators. As the user had regulated and sensitive data on her computer, the system administrators had the hard drive sent to the company's forensic consultant for analysis and configured a new hard drive for the user. Based on the recommendations from the forensic consultant and the company's legal department, the CEO decided to prosecute the author of the malicious code. During the court case, which of the following would be able to provide direct evidence?

Options:

A.

The IT helpdesk representative

B.

The company CEO

C.

The user of the infected system

D.

The system administrator who removed the hard drive

Question 29

When no anomaly is present in an Intrusion Detection, but an alarm is generated, the response is known as.

Options:

A.

False negative

B.

False positive

C.

True positive

D.

True negative

Question 30

There is not universal agreement on the names of the layers in the TCP/IP networking model. Which of the following is one of the functions of the bottom layer which is sometimes called the Network Access or Link Layer?

Options:

A.

Provides end-to-end data delivery service for user applications

B.

Handles the routing of the data packets over the network

C.

Manages IP addressing and encryption for data packets

D.

Defines the procedures for interfacing with Ethernet devices

Question 31

For most organizations, which of the following should be the highest priority when it comes to physical security concerns?

Options:

A.

Controlling ingress and egress

B.

Controlling access to workstations

C.

Ensuring employee safety

D.

Controlling access to servers

E.

Protecting physical assets

Question 32

Analyze the following screenshot. What conclusion can be drawn about the user account shown?

Options:

A.

The user is a domain administrator

B.

The user has a guest privilege level

C.

The user is a local administrator

D.

The user is not authenticated on the domain

Question 33

What is the maximum number of connections a normal Bluetooth device can handle at one time?

Options:

A.

2

B.

4

C.

1

D.

8

E.

7

Question 34

Which asymmetric algorithm is used only for key exchange?

Options:

A.

EI Gamal

B.

Diffuse-H an

C.

ECC

D.

DSA

Question 35

Use nmap to discover a host on the 10.10.10.0/24 network, scanning only port 8082 and using the SYN or Stealth scan approach. Which host has a service called -blackice-alerts"?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.115

B.

10.10.10.80

C.

10.10.10.5

D.

10.10.10

E.

10.10.10.30

F.

10.10.10.164

G.

10.10.10.37

Question 36

Which of the following statements about the integrity concept of information security management are true?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

Options:

A.

It ensures that unauthorized modifications are not made to data by authorized personnel or processes.

B.

It determines the actions and behaviors of a single individual within a system

C.

It ensures that internal information is consistent among all subentities and also consistent with the real-world, external situation.

D.

It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes.

Question 37

You are responsible for a Microsoft based network. Your servers are all clustered. Which of the following are the likely reasons for the clustering?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

Options:

A.

Reduce power consumption

B.

Ease of maintenance

C.

Load balancing

D.

Failover

Question 38

An organization monitors the hard disks of its employees' computers from time to time. Which policy does this pertain to?

Options:

A.

Privacy policy

B.

Backup policy

C.

User password policy

D.

Network security policy

Question 39

The following three steps belong to the chain of custody for federal rules of evidence. What additional step is recommended between steps 2 and 3?

STEP 1 - Take notes: who, what, where, when and record serial numbers of machine(s) in question.

STEP 2 - Do a binary backup if data is being collected.

STEP 3 - Deliver collected evidence to law enforcement officials.

Options:

A.

Rebuild the original hard drive from scratch, and sign and seal the good backup in a plastic bag.

B.

Conduct a forensic analysis of all evidence collected BEFORE starting the chain of custody.

C.

Take photographs of all persons who have had access to the computer.

D.

Check the backup integrity using a checksum utility like MD5, and sign and seal each piece of collected evidence in a plastic bag.

Question 40

What is the main reason that DES is faster than RSA?

Options:

A.

DES is less secure.

B.

DES is implemented in hardware and RSA is implemented in software.

C.

Asymmetric cryptography is generally much faster than symmetric.

D.

Symmetric cryptography is generally much faster than asymmetric.

Question 41

The TTL can be found in which protocol header?

Options:

A.

UDP

B.

TCP

C.

IP

D.

ICMP

Question 42

Why are false positives such a problem with IPS technology?

Options:

A.

File integrity is not guaranteed.

B.

Malicious code can get into the network.

C.

Legitimate services are not delivered.

D.

Rules are often misinterpreted.

Question 43

Your IT security team is responding to a denial of service attack against your server. They have taken measures to block offending IP addresses. Which type of threat control is this?

Options:

A.

Detective

B.

Preventive

C.

Responsive

D.

Corrective

Question 44

Users at the Marketing department are receiving their new Windows XP Professional workstations. They will need to maintain local work files in the first logical volume, and will use a second volume for the information shared between the area group. Which is the best file system design for these workstations?

Options:

A.

Both volumes should be converted to NTFS at install time.

B.

First volume should be FAT32 and second volume should be NTFS.

C.

First volume should be EFS and second volume should be FAT32.

D.

Both volumes should be converted to FAT32 with NTFS DACLs.

Question 45

Your CIO has found out that it is possible for an attacker to clone your company's RFID (Radio Frequency ID) based key cards. The CIO has tasked you with finding a way to ensure that anyone entering the building is an employee. Which of the following authentication types would be the appropriate solution to this problem?

Options:

A.

Mandatory Access Controls

B.

Bell-LaPadula

C.

Two-Factor

D.

TACACS

Question 46

Which of the following statements about IPSec are true?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

Options:

A.

It uses Internet Protocol (IP) for data integrity.

B.

It uses Authentication Header (AH) for data integrity.

C.

It uses Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) for user authentication.

D.

It uses Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) for data confidentiality.

Question 47

Which of the following protocols provides maintenance and error reporting function?

Options:

A.

UDP

B.

ICMP

C.

PPP

D.

IGMP

Question 48

An attacker is able to trick an IDS into ignoring malicious traffic through obfuscation of the packet payload. What type of IDS error has occurred?

Options:

A.

True Negative

B.

True Positive

C.

False Positive

D.

False Negative

Question 49

Which of the following types of computers is used for attracting potential intruders?

Options:

A.

Files pot

B.

Honey pot

C.

Data pot

D.

Bastion host

Question 50

What is SSL primarily used to protect you against?

Options:

A.

Session modification

B.

SQL injection

C.

Third-patty sniffing

D.

Cross site scripting

Question 51

What could be used to mitigate hash collisions?

Options:

A.

Using a larger key space for the encryption

B.

Using additional arbitrary data to append to the file

C.

Using separate keys for encryption and decryption

D.

Using a larger bit length for the algorithm

Question 52

Which of the following areas of a network contains DNS servers and Web servers for Internet users?

Options:

A.

VPN

B.

MMZ

C.

VLAN

D.

DMZ

Question 53

What does PowerShell remoting use to authenticate to another host in a domain environment?

Options:

A.

Two factor codes

B.

Unique application passwords

C.

PreShared keys

D.

Kerberos tickets

Question 54

To be considered a strong algorithm, an encryption algorithm must be which of the following?

Options:

A.

Secret

B.

Well-known

C.

Confidential

D.

Proprietary

Question 55

You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. To ensure the security of files, you encrypt data files using Encrypting File System (EFS).

You want to make a backup copy of the files and maintain security settings. You can backup the files either to a network share or a floppy disk. What will you do to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Copy the files to a network share on an NTFS volume.

B.

Copy the files to a network share on a FAT32 volume.

C.

Place the files in an encrypted folder. Then, copy the folder to a floppy disk.

D.

Copy the files to a floppy disk that has been formatted using Windows 2000 Professional.

Question 56

If a Linux administrator wanted to quickly filter out extraneous data and find a running process named RootKit, which command could he use?

Options:

A.

cat/proc;grep Rootkit

B.

ps-ef/ grep Rootkit

C.

sed’s/Rootkit/g’/var/log/messages

D.

tail/var/log/messages> Rootkit

E.

top-u Rootkit

Question 57

When discussing access controls, which of the following terms describes the process of determining the activities or functions that an Individual is permitted to perform?

Options:

A.

Authentication

B.

Identification

C.

Authorization

D.

Validation

Question 58

IPS devices that are classified as "In-line NIDS" devices use a combination of anomaly analysis, signature-based rules, and what else to identify malicious events on the network?

Options:

A.

Firewall compatibility rules

B.

Application analysis

C.

ICMP and UDP active scanning

D.

MAC address filtering

Question 59

You are examining a packet capture session in Wire shark and see the packet shown in the accompanying image. Based on what you see, what is the appropriate protection against this type of attempted attack?

Options:

A.

Block DNS traffic across the router

B.

Disable forwarding of unsolicited TCP requests

C.

Disable IP-directed broadcast requests

D.

Block UDP packets at the firewall

Question 60

Which of the following is a Personal Area Network enabled device?

Options:

A.

Corporate access point extender

B.

Bluetooth mouse

C.

Home Win router

D.

Network enabled printer

Question 61

You are doing some analysis of malware on a Unix computer in a closed test network. The IP address of the computer is 192.168.1.120. From a packet capture, you see the malware is attempting to do a DNS query for a server called iamabadserver.com so that it can connect to it. There is no DNS server on the test network to do name resolution. You have another computer, whose IP is 192.168.1.115, available on the test network that you would like for the malware connect to it instead. How do you get the malware to connect to that computer on the test network?

Options:

A.

You modify the HOSTS file on the computer you want the malware to connect to and add an entry that reads: 192.168.1.120 iamabadserver iamabadserver.com

B.

You modify the HOSTS file on the Unix computer your malware is running on and add an entry that reads: 192.168.1.115 iamabadserveriamabadserver.com

C.

You modify the HOSTS file on the Unix computer your malware is running on and add an entry that reads: 192.168.1.120 iamabadserver iamabadserver.com

D.

You modify the HOSTS file on the computer you want the malware to connect to and add an entry that reads: 192.168.1.115 iamabadserver iamabadserver.com

Question 62

In PKI, when someone wants to verify that the certificate is valid, what do they use to decrypt the signature?

Options:

A.

Receiver's digital signature

B.

X.509 certificate CA's private key

C.

Secret passphrase

D.

CA's public key

Question 63

On which of the following OSI model layers does IPSec operate?

Options:

A.

Physical layer

B.

Network layer

C.

Data-link layer

D.

Session layer

Question 64

Who is responsible for deciding the appropriate classification level for data within an organization?

Options:

A.

Data custodian

B.

Security auditor

C.

End user

D.

Data owner

Question 65

Which of the following TCP packet flags indicates that host should IMMEDIATELY terminate the connection containing the packet?

Options:

A.

FIN

B.

URG

C.

SYN

D.

RST

Question 66

Which common firewall feature can be utilized to generate a forensic trail of evidence and to identify attack trends against your network?

Options:

A.

NAT

B.

State Table

C.

Logging

D.

Content filtering

Question 67

Open the MATE terminal and use the tcpdump program to read - /pcaps /cass tech.pcap.

What is the source port number?

Options:

A.

878733706

B.

123

C.

443

D.

878732274

E.

36480

F.

2398730476

G.

1432

Question 68

Which of the below choices should an organization start with when implementing an effective risk management process?

Options:

A.

Implement an incident response plan

B.

Define security policy requirements

C.

Conduct periodic reviews

D.

Design controls and develop standards for each technology you plan to deploy

Question 69

How many clients Is a single WSUS server designed to support when the minimum system requirements are met?

Options:

A.

10000

B.

B. 5OOO

C.

1000

Question 70

Which of the following statements about Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

Options:

A.

It uses TCP port 443 as the default port.

B.

It is a protocol used in the Universal Resource Locater (URL) address line to connect to a secure site.

C.

It is a protocol used to provide security for a database server in an internal network.

D.

It uses TCP port 80 as the default port.

Question 71

Which of the following tasks is the responsibility of a Linux systems administrator who is deploying hardening scripts to his systems?

Options:

A.

Run them immediately after installation and before configuring system services.

B.

Ensure they are automatically run during the default installation of the OS.

C.

Test in a development environment before rolling out to production.

D.

Apply the same script(s) to every Linux host within the enterprise.

Question 72

Regarding the UDP header below, what is the length in bytes of the UDP datagrarn?

04 1a 00 a1 00 55 db 51

Options:

A.

161

B.

81

C.

219

D.

85

Question 73

What is the term for a game in which for every win there must be an equivalent loss?

Options:

A.

Asymmetric

B.

Untenable

C.

Zero-sum

D.

Gain-oriented

Question 74

The TTL can be found in which protocol header?

Options:

A.

It is found in byte 8 of the ICMP header.

B.

It is found in byte 8 of the IP header.

C.

It is found in byte 8 of the TCP header.

D.

It is found in byte 8 of the DNS header.

Question 75

Which of the following are the types of access controls?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

Options:

A.

Physical

B.

Administrative

C.

Automatic

D.

Technical

Question 76

Which of the following is more commonly used for establishing high-speed backbones that interconnect smaller networks and can carry signals over significant distances?

Options:

A.

Bluetooth

B.

Ethernet

C.

Token ring

D.

Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)

Question 77

What cryptographic technique does file Integrity monitoring employ?

Options:

A.

Public-key cryptography

B.

One-way hashes

C.

Elliptical curve algorithms

D.

Shared key cryptography

Question 78

In the AGULP model, who should be assigned permissions and privileges?

Options:

A.

Universal Groups

B.

Local Groups

C.

Individual User Accounts

D.

Global Groups

Question 79

Which of the four basic transformations in the AES algorithm involves the leftward circular movement of state data?

Options:

A.

SubBytes

B.

MixColumns

C.

AddRoundKey

D.

Shift Rows

Question 80

Which access control mechanism requires a high amount of maintenance since all data must be classified, and all users granted appropriate clearance?

Options:

A.

Mandatory

B.

Discretionary

C.

Rule set-based

D.

Role-Based

Question 81

You work as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You want to mount an SMBFS share from a Linux workstation. Which of the following commands can you use to accomplish the task?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

Options:

A.

smbmount

B.

mount smb

C.

smbfsmount

D.

mount -t smbfs

Question 82

Which of the following statements would describe the term "incident" when used in the branch of security known as Incident Handling?

Options:

A.

Any observable network event

B.

Harm to systems

C.

Significant threat of harm to systems

D.

A and C

E.

A, B, and C

F.

B and C

G.

A and B

Question 83

What defensive measure could have been taken that would have protected the confidentiality of files that were divulged by systems that were compromised by malware?

Options:

A.

Ingress filtering at the host level

B.

Monitoring for abnormal traffic flow

C.

Installing file integrity monitoring software

D.

Encrypting the files locally when not in use

Question 84

An email system administrator deploys a configuration blocking all inbound and outbound executable files due to security concerns.

What Defense in Depth approach is being used?

Options:

A.

Protected Enclaves

B.

Uniform Protection

C.

Vector Oriented

D.

Information Centric

Question 85

Which of the following applications cannot proactively detect anomalies related to a computer?

Options:

A.

Firewall installed on the computer

B.

NIDS

C.

HIDS

D.

Anti-virus scanner

Question 86

Which of the following is a backup strategy?

Options:

A.

Differential

B.

Integrational

C.

Recursive

D.

Supplemental

Question 87

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the ability of attackers to eavesdrop on wireless communications?

Options:

A.

Eavesdropping attacks cannot be performed through concrete walls.

B.

Eavesdropping attacks can take place from miles away.

C.

Eavesdropping attacks are easily detected on wireless networks.

D.

Eavesdropping attacks require expensive devices.

Question 88

Which Windows event log would you look in if you wanted information about whether or not a specific diver was running at start up?

Options:

A.

Application

B.

System

C.

Startup

D.

Security

Question 89

Which of the following should be implemented to protect an organization from spam?

Options:

A.

Auditing

B.

System hardening

C.

E-mail filtering

D.

Packet filtering

Question 90

What is the SHA1 hash of the Ale /bin/Is?

Options:

A.

a895bac9c3

B.

54771b4r

C.

a39bed3C496fC764fc518d3e2d56f7d0f4C625fb

D.

93c1 ffbd22ebcad798886fb4aa46fa 357b23d80a

E.

aa40739f465ded2245872b1e4972e33d5bObb1cb

F.

494a 192859f 244c69d5bdc46255d b44l9e 7d051 f

G.

d3a21675a8f 19518d8b8f3cefOf6a21 del da6cc7

Question 91

What does Authentication Header (AH) add to the packet in order to prevent an attacker from lying about the source?

Options:

A.

Integrity Check Value

B.

AES-128 encryption

C.

Triple DES encryption

D.

32-bit sequence number

Question 92

Which of the following protocols are used to provide secure communication between a client and a server over the Internet?

Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.

Options:

A.

SSL

B.

HTTP

C.

TLS

D.

SNMP

Question 93

A new data center is being built where customer credit information will be processed and stored. Which of the following actions will help maintain the confidentiality of the data?

Options:

A.

Environmental sensors in the server room

B.

Access control system for physical building

C.

Automated fire detection and control systems

D.

Frequent off-site backup of critical databases

Question 94

A Windows administrator wants to automate local and remote management tasks in Active Directory. Which tool is most appropriate for this?

Options:

A.

Ipsec

B.

VisualBasic

C.

PowerShell

D.

netsh

E.

ipconfig

Question 95

What is it called when an OSI layer adds a new header to a packet?

Options:

A.

Switching

B.

Encapsulation

C.

fragmentation

D.

Routing

Question 96

What protocol is a WAN technology?

Options:

A.

802.11

B.

802.3

C.

Ethernet

D.

Frame Relay

Question 97

Which of the following radio frequencies is used by the IEEE 802.11a wireless network?

Options:

A.

3.7 GHz

B.

7.0 GHz

C.

2.4 GHz

D.

5.0 GHz

Question 98

Which Linux command could a systems administrator use to determine if an attacker had opened up a new listening port on her system?

Options:

A.

nfsstat

B.

netreport

C.

ps

D.

netstat

E.

vrnstat

Question 99

What does it mean if a protocol such as HTTP is stateless?

Options:

A.

The client responds to server request and keeps track of the conversation.

B.

If a stateless protocol is used it cannot be traced.

C.

It means it is unreliable.

D.

The server responds to a single request and then forgets about it.

Question 100

Which of the following heights of fence deters only casual trespassers?

Options:

A.

8 feet

B.

2 to 2.5 feet

C.

6 to 7 feet

D.

3 to 4 feet

Question 101

A Network Engineer is charged with maintaining and protecting a network with a high availability requirement. In addition to other defenses, they have chosen to implement a NIPS. How should the NIPS failure conditions be configured to ensure availability if the NIPS is installed in front of the Firewall that protects the DMZ?

Options:

A.

Fail safe

B.

Fail smart

C.

Fail-closed

D.

Fail-open

Question 102

Where could you go in Windows XP/2003 to configure Automatic Updates?

Options:

A.

Right click on the Start Menu and choose select Properties in the pop-up Menu.

B.

Open the MMC and choose the Automatic Updates snap-in.

C.

Right click on your desktop and choose the automatic updates.

D.

Go to the System applet in Control Panel and click on the Automatic Updates icon.

Question 103

Which of the following is Azure's version of a superuser?

Options:

A.

Network administrator

B.

Global administrator

C.

Security administrator

D.

Intune administrator

Question 104

When are Group Policy Objects (GPOs) NOT applied automatically to workstations?

Options:

A.

At 90-minute intervals

B.

At logon

C.

Every time Windows Explorer is launched

D.

At boot-up

Question 105

Which of the following is the reason of using Faraday cage?

Options:

A.

To prevent Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack

B.

To prevent shoulder surfing

C.

To prevent mail bombing

D.

To prevent data emanation

Question 106

What is the name of the Windows XP/2003 tool that you can use to schedule commands to be executed on remote systems during off-peak hours?

Options:

A.

SCHTASKS.EXE

B.

SCHEDULETSKS.EXE

C.

SCHEDULR.EXE

D.

SCHRUN.EXE

Question 107

You are an Intrusion Detection Analyst and the system has alerted you to an Event of Interest (EOI) that appears to be activity generated by a worm. You investigate and find that the network traffic was normal. How would this type of alert be categorized?

Options:

A.

False Positive

B.

True Negative

C.

True Positive

D.

False Negative

Question 108

SSL session keys are available in which of the following lengths?

Options:

A.

40-bit and 128-bit.

B.

64-bit and 128-bit.

C.

128-bit and 1,024-bit.

D.

40-bit and 64-bit.

Question 109

Which of the following proxy servers provides administrative controls over the content?

Options:

A.

Content filtering web proxy server

B.

Caching proxy server

C.

Forced proxy server

D.

Web proxy server

Question 110

Which of the following are used to suppress gasoline and oil fires? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

Options:

A.

Halon

B.

CO2

C.

Soda acid

D.

Water

Question 111

What is the first thing that should be done during the containment step of incident handling?

Options:

A.

Change all the passwords

B.

Secure the area

C.

Prepare the Jump bag

D.

Notify management

E.

Prepare a report

Question 112

Which of the following is an UDP based protocol?

Options:

A.

telnet

B.

SNMP

C.

IMAP

D.

LDAP

Question 113

Which of the following books deals with confidentiality?

Options:

A.

Purple Book

B.

Orange Book

C.

Red Book

D.

Brown Book

Question 114

What is a recommended defense against SQL injection, OS injection, and buffer overflows?

Options:

A.

Put in an application layer

B.

Validate user input

C.

Use a secure protocol like HTTPS

D.

Use stored procedures

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Total 385 questions