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GARP 2016-FRR Financial Risk and Regulation (FRR) Series Exam Practice Test

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Total 342 questions

Financial Risk and Regulation (FRR) Series Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Which one of the four following statements regarding foreign exchange (FX) swap transactions is INCORRECT?

Options:

A.

FX swap is a common short-term transaction.

B.

FX swap is normally used for hedging various currency positions.

C.

FX swap generates more exchange rate risk than simple forward transactions.

D.

FX swap is generally used to for funding foreign currency balances and currency speculation.

Question 2

Alpha Bank determined that Delta Industrial Machinery Corporation has 2% change of default on a one-year no-payment of USD $1 million, including interest and principal repayment. The bank charges 3% interest rate spread to firms in the machinery industry, and the risk-free interest rate is 6%. Alpha Bank receives both interest and principal payments once at the end the year. Delta can only default at the end of the year. If Delta defaults, the bank expects to lose 50% of its promised payment.

What may happen to the Delta's initial credit parameter and the value of its loan if the machinery industry experiences adverse structural changes?

Options:

A.

Probability of default and loss at default may decrease simultaneously, while duration rises causing the loan value to decrease.

B.

Probability of default and loss at default may decrease simultaneously, while duration falls causing the loan value to decrease.

C.

Probability of default and loss at default may increase simultaneously, while duration rises causing the loan value to decrease.

D.

Probability of default and loss at default may increase simultaneously, while duration falls causing the loan value to decrease.

Question 3

ThetaBank has extended substantial financing to two mortgage companies, which these mortgage lenders use to finance their own lending. Individually, each of the mortgage companies has an exposure at default (EAD) of $20 million, with a loss given default (LGD) of 100%, and a probability of default of 10%. ThetaBank's risk department predicts the joint probability of default at 5%. If the default risk of these mortgage companies were modeled as independent risks, what would be the probability of a cumulative $40 million loss from these two mortgage borrowers?

Options:

A.

0.01%

B.

0.1%

C.

1%

D.

10%

Question 4

Which one of the following four exotic option types has another option as its underlying asset, and as a result of its construction is generally believed to be very difficult to model?

Options:

A.

Spread options

B.

Chooser options

C.

Binary options

D.

Compound options

Question 5

All of the four following exotic options are path-independent options, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Chooser options

B.

Power options

C.

Asian options

D.

Basket options

Question 6

Which one of the following four statements on the seniority of corporate bonds is incorrect?

Options:

A.

Senior bonds typically have lower credit spreads than junior bonds with the same maturity and payment characteristics.

B.

Seniority refers to the priority of a bond in bankruptcy.

C.

Junior bonds always pay higher coupons than subordinated bonds.

D.

In bankruptcy, holders of senior bonds are paid in full before any holders of subordinated bonds receive payment.

Question 7

To manage its credit portfolio, Beta Bank can directly sell the following portfolio elements:

I. Bonds

II. Marketable loans

III. Credit card loans

Options:

A.

I

B.

II

C.

I, II

D.

II, III

Question 8

Which one of the following four global markets for financial assets or instruments is widely believed to be the most liquid?

Options:

A.

Equity market.

B.

Foreign exchange market.

C.

Fixed income market

D.

Commodities market

Question 9

Which one of the following four statements correctly describes an American call option?

Options:

A.

An American call option gives the buyer of that call option the right to buy the underlying instrument on any date up to and including the expiry date.

B.

An American call option gives the buyer of that call option the right to sell the underlying instrument on any date up to and including the expiry date.

C.

An American call option gives the buyer of that call option the right to buy the underlying instrument on the expiry date.

D.

An American call option gives the buyer of that call option the right to sell the underlying instrument on the expiry date.

Question 10

To safeguard its capital and obtain insurance if the borrowers cannot repay their loans, Gamma Bank accepts financial collateral to manage its credit risk and mitigate the effect of the borrowers' defaults. Gamma Bank will typically accept all of the following instruments as financial collateral EXCEPT?

Options:

A.

Unrated bonds issued and traded on a recognized exchange

B.

Equities and convertible bonds included in a main market index

C.

Commercial debts owed to a company in a form of receivables

D.

Mutual fund shares and similar unit investment vehicles subject to daily quotes

Question 11

Which one of the following four metrics represents the difference between the expected loss and unexpected loss on a credit portfolio?

Options:

A.

Credit VaR

B.

Probability of default

C.

Loss given default

D.

Modified duration

Question 12

Which of the following attributes are typical for early models of statistical credit analysis?

Options:

A.

These models assumed the default of any obligor was independent of the default of any other.

B.

The underlying default assumptions were analytically inconvenient.

C.

The underlying default assumptions failed to develop relatively simple formulas for the determination of portfolio credit risk.

D.

These models effectively incorporated herd behavior.

Question 13

An asset manager for a large mutual fund is considering forward exchange positions traded in a clearinghouse system and needs to mitigate the risks created as a result of this operation. Which of the following risks will be created as a result of the forward exchange transaction?

Options:

A.

Exchange rate risk

B.

Exchange rate and interest rate risk

C.

Credit risk

D.

Exchange rate and credit risk

Question 14

Which one of the following four variables of the Black-Scholes model is typically NOT known at a point in time?

Options:

A.

The underlying relevant exchange rates

B.

The underlying interest rates

C.

The future volatility of the exchange rates

D.

The time to maturity

Question 15

From the bank's point of view, repricing the retail debt portfolio will introduce risks of fluctuations in:

I. Duration

II. Loss given default

III. Interest rates

IV. Bank spreads

Options:

A.

I

B.

II

C.

I, II

D.

III, IV

Question 16

Which one of the following four statements does identify correctly the relationship between the value of an option and perceived exchange rate volatility?

Options:

A.

With increases in perceived future foreign exchange volatility, the value of all foreign exchange

B.

As the perceived future foreign exchange volatility decreases, the value of all options increases.

C.

As the perceived future foreign exchange volatility increases, the value of all options increases.

D.

Option values can only change due to the factors related to the demand for specific options

Question 17

A credit analyst wants to determine if her bank is taking too much credit risk. Which one of the following four strategies will typically provide the most convenient approach to quantify the credit risk exposure for the bank?

Options:

A.

Assessing aggregate exposure at default at various time points and at various confidence levels

B.

Simplifying individual credit exposures so that they can be combined into a simplified expression of portfolio risk for the bank

C.

Using stress testing techniques to forecast underlying macroeconomic factors and bank's idiosyncratic risks

D.

Analyzing distribution of bank's credit losses and mapping credit risks at various statistical levels

Question 18

Which of the following statements about parametric and nonparametric methods for calculating Value-at-risk is correct?

Options:

A.

Parametric methods generally assume returns are normally distributed, and non-parametric methods make no assumptions about return distributions.

B.

Parametric methods make no assumptions about return distributions, and non-parametric methods assume returns are normally distributed.

C.

Both parametric and nonparametric methods assume returns are normally distributed.

D.

Both parametric and nonparametric methods make no assumptions about return distributions.

Question 19

Banks duration match their assets and liabilities to manage their interest risk in their banking book. Currently, the bank's assets and liabilities both have a duration of 10. To hedge against the risk of decreasing interest rates, the bank should

I. Increase the duration of the liabilities

II. Increase the duration of the assets

III. Decrease the duration of the liabilities

IV. Decrease the duration of the assets

Options:

A.

I only.

B.

I and II.

C.

II and III.

D.

I and IV

Question 20

Present value of a basis point (PVBP) is one of the ways to quantify the risk of a bond, and it measures:

Options:

A.

The change in value of a bond when yields increase by 0.01%.

B.

The percentage change in bond price when yields change by 1 basis point.

C.

The present value of the future cash flows of a bond calculated at a yield equal to 1%.

D.

The percentage change in bond price when the yields change by 1%.

Question 21

In the United States, stock investors must comply with the Regulation T of the Federal Reserve Bank and may borrow up to ___ of the value of the securities from their brokers.

Options:

A.

30%

B.

40%

C.

50%

D.

60%

Question 22

Which one of the following four statements best describes challenges of delta-normal method of mapping options positions?

Delta-normal method understates

Options:

A.

Risks of long and short positions for both calls and puts.

B.

Risks of long option positions for puts and overstates risks of short option positions for calls.

C.

Risks of long option positions for calls and overstates risks of short option positions for puts.

D.

Risks of short option positions and overstates risks of long option positions for both calls and puts.

Question 23

Forward rate agreements (FRA) are:

Options:

A.

Exchange traded derivative contracts that allow banks to take positions in forward interest rates.

B.

OTC derivative contracts that allow banks and customers to obtain the risk/reward profile of long-term interest rates by relying on long-term funding.

C.

Exchange traded derivative contracts that allow banks to take positions in future exchange rates.

D.

OTC derivative contracts that allow banks to take positions in forward interest rates.

Question 24

Alpha Bank estimates its 1-month, 95% VaR is 30 million EUR. This means that in the next month, there is a

Options:

A.

95% chance that AlphaBank can lose more than 30 million EUR.

B.

95% chance that AlphaBank will lose exactly 30 million EUR.

C.

95% chance that AlphaBank can lose at most 30 million EUR.

D.

95% chance that AlphaBank will at least lose 30 million EUR.

Question 25

Bank customers traditionally trade commodity futures with banks in order to achieve which of the following goals?

I. To express their own price views

II. To reverse undesired short-term exposure created from fixed commodity sales

III. To reach short-term budgetary targets

Options:

A.

I

B.

II

C.

I, III

D.

I, II, III

Question 26

The probability of default on a bond is 3%, and in the case of default, investors expect to lose 70% of their investment. The bond's risk premium is 1.9%. The expected loss and the credit spread of the bond are, respectively:

Options:

A.

1.6% and 2.5%.

B.

2.1% and 3%.

C.

1.6% and 3.5%.

D.

2.1% and 4%.

Question 27

Arnold Wu owns a floating rate bond. He is concerned that the rates may fall in the future decreasing his payment amount. Which of the following instruments should he buy to hedge against the fall in interest rates?

Options:

A.

Interest rate floor

B.

Interest rate cap

C.

Index amortizing swap

D.

Interest rate swap that receives floating and pays fixed

Question 28

What do option deltas measure?

Options:

A.

The rate of change of the option value with respect to changes in volatility of the underlying instrument.

B.

The sensitivity of the option value to changes risk free interest rate.

C.

The rate of change of the option value with respect to changes in the price of the underlying instrument.

D.

The sensitivity of the option value to the passage of time.

Question 29

If the yield on the 3-month risk free bonds issued by the U.S government is 0.5%, and the 3-month LIBOR rate is 2.5%, what is the TED spread?

Options:

A.

0.5%

B.

-2.0%

C.

2.0%

D.

3.0%

Question 30

Gamma Bank estimates its monthly portfolio volatility at 5%.The portfolio's annual volatility is closest to which of the following?

Options:

A.

8%

B.

17%

C.

30%

D.

35%

Question 31

James Johnson has a $1 million long position in ThetaGroup with a VaR of 0.3 million, and $1 million long position in VolgaCorp with a VaR of 0.4 million. The returns of the two companies have zero correlation. What is the portfolio VaR?

Options:

A.

$1 million

B.

$0.7 million

C.

$0.5 million

D.

$0.4 million

Question 32

A corporate bond gives a yield of 6%. A same maturity government bond yields 2%. The probability of the corporate bond defaulting is 2.5%. In case of default, investors expect to lose 60% of their investment. The risk premium in the credit spread is:

Options:

A.

1.5%

B.

4.5%

C.

2.5%

D.

0.5%

Question 33

To estimate the responsiveness of a particular equity portfolio to the overall market, a trader should use the portfolio's

Options:

A.

Alpha

B.

Beta

C.

CVaR

D.

VaR

Question 34

Which one of the following four physical commodities markets has the right combination of characteristics that generally allows short selling in the market, without making the short-selling transaction prohibitively expensive?

Options:

A.

Oil

B.

Natural Gas

C.

Grain

D.

Gold

Question 35

Company A needs to provide a risk probability/frequency score for its RCSA program. If the event is likely to happen once in 2 years, then the frequency score will be equal to:

Options:

A.

0.2

B.

0.5

C.

1

D.

2

Question 36

An asset-sensitive bank will have a ___ cumulative gap and will benefit from ___ interest rates.

Options:

A.

Positive; dropping

B.

Positive; rising

C.

Negative; dropping

D.

Negative; rising

Question 37

Which one of the following four statements correctly identifies the Basel II Accord's definition of operational risk?

Options:

A.

Operational risk is all the risk that is not captured by market and credit risks.

B.

Operational risk is the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed processes, people and systems or from external events.

C.

Operational risk is a risk arising from execution of a company's business functions.

D.

Operational risk is a form of risk that summarizes the risks a company or firm undertakes when it attempts to operate within a given field or industry.

Question 38

Which of the following attributes of duration gap model typically cause criticism?

I. Basis risk

II. Errors in the linear model

III. Costs of immunization

IV. Constant nature of calculation

Options:

A.

I, II

B.

II, III, IV

C.

I, II, III

D.

I, III, IV

Question 39

Which of the following statements describes a bank's reasons to set risk limits?

I. To control and minimize a bank's current risk exposure.

II. To predict future risks.

III. To allocate risks to business units.

IV. To keep risk within tolerance levels.

Options:

A.

I and II

B.

III and IV

C.

I, II, and III

D.

I, III, and IV

Question 40

Which one of the following four statements correctly defines a typical carry trade?

Options:

A.

A bank borrows funds in a high-interest currency and places the funds in a long-term low volatility investment vehicle.

B.

A bank borrows funds in a high-interest currency and invests the funds into high-yield emerging market debt.

C.

A bank borrows funds in a low-interest currency and places the funds on deposit in a high-interest currency.

D.

A bank borrows funds in a low-interest currency, accumulates reserves, and lends in another low-interest currency.

Question 41

Gamma Bank is operating in a highly volatile interest rate environment and wants to stabilize its net income by shifting the sources of its earnings from interest rate sensitive sources to less interest rate sensitive sources. All of the following strategies can help achieve this objective EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Charge bank fees for underwriting loans

B.

Provide trust, asset management, and trading services to customers

C.

Extend different types of credit

D.

Originate more floating interest rate loans

Question 42

Which of the following bank events could stress the bank's liquidity position?

I. Maturing of bank debt

II. Repurchase agreements

III. Futures margins

IV. Staff turnover

Options:

A.

I, II

B.

IV

C.

III, IV

D.

I, II and III

Question 43

A customer asks a broker employed by AlphaBank to buy Eureka Corporation bonds for her account. While this trade was executed correctly and the bonds were bought, the trade was mistakenly accounted for as a sell order. If the price of Eureka Corporation bonds goes up, this trade would result in a significantly larger loss than if the market had remained stable. However, if the market drops, the customer will benefit from the incorrect accounting and gain from this trade. This trading scenario can serve as an example that

Options:

A.

Market risk in this transaction can magnify operational risk.

B.

Credit risk in this transaction can magnify operational risk.

C.

Liquidity risk in this transaction can magnify operational risk.

D.

Strategic risk in this transaction can magnify operational risk.

Question 44

Which of the following would a bank resort to as a "lender of last resort" in the event of an extreme liquidity crisis?

Options:

A.

U.S treasury markets

B.

Discount window

C.

LIBOR markets

D.

Futures Markets

Question 45

Which one of the four following statements about consortium databases is correct?

Consortium databases

Options:

A.

Gather information from news articles.

B.

Use data from the top 5% of the industry.

C.

Provide data to map risk categories with causes.

D.

Contain anonymous information.

Question 46

SigmaBank has many branches that offer the same products and services. Which one of the four following statement presents an advantage of using RCSA questionnaire approach in the SigmaBank's operational risk framework?

Options:

A.

The questionnaires are usually sent to specific nominated parties for completion.

B.

This approach ensures that there has been full participation in the scoring, rather than a single view.

C.

It provides a forum for an in-depth discussion of the operational risks in the firm.

D.

The results can be collected electronically and the responses compared to identify themes, trends and areas of potential control weakness or elevated risk.

Question 47

A risk analyst at EtaBank wants to estimate the risk exposure in a leveraged position in Collateralized Debt Obligations. These particular CDOs can be used in a repurchase transaction at a 20% haircut. If the VaR on a $100 unleveraged position is estimated to be $30, what is the VaR for the final, fully leveraged position?

Options:

A.

$20

B.

$50

C.

$100

D.

$150

Question 48

Bank Sigma has an opportunity to do a securitization deal for a credit card company, but has to retain a portion of the residual risk of the deal with an estimated VaR of $8 MM. Its fees for the deal are $2 MM, and the short-term financing costs are $600,000. What would be the RAROC for this transaction?

Options:

A.

25%

B.

17.5%

C.

33%

D.

12%

Question 49

Bank Muri has $4 million in cash and $5 million in loans coming due tomorrow with an expected default rate of 1%. The proceeds will be deposited overnight. The bank owes $ 9 million on a securities purchase that settles in two days and pays off $8 million in commercial paper in three days that is not expected to renew. On day 2, $1 million in loans is coming in with an expected default rate of 1% and on day 3, $2 million in loans is coming in with expected default rate of 2%. How much should the bank plan to raise in order to avoid liquidity problems?

Options:

A.

$500 million

B.

$510 million

C.

$508 million

D.

$550 million

Question 50

Which one of the four following statements about drawdowns is correct?

Options:

A.

Drawdown calculates significant losses in a particular business or a book.

B.

Drawdown estimates the effect on bank's liabilities when the bank's credit rating is cut.

C.

Drawdown quantifies the peak-to-trough decline of an investment over a known time period.

D.

Drawdown measures the aggregate decline in market values of assets and positions due to a shock.

Question 51

A bank considers issuing new capital to increase its Tier 1 capital levels. Which of the following financial instruments would most likely to be considered?

Options:

A.

Long-term and callable debt convertible to equity

B.

Convertible preferred shares

C.

Short-term callable debt

D.

Short-term debt convertible to non-cumulative preferred shares

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Total 342 questions