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Fortinet NSE7_SDW-7.2 Fortinet NSE 7 - SD-WAN 7.2 Exam Practice Test

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Fortinet NSE 7 - SD-WAN 7.2 Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Refer to the exhibit.

The device exchanges routes using IBGP.

Which two statements are correct about the IBGP configuration and routing information on the device? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Each BGP route is three hops away from the destination.

B.

ibgp-multipath is disabled.

C.

additional-path is enabled.

D.

You can run the get router info routing-table database command to display the additional paths.

Question 2

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibit, which action does FortiGate take?

Options:

A.

FortiGate bounces port5 after it detects all SD-WAN members as dead.

B.

FortiGate fails over to the secondary device after it detects all SD-WAN members as dead.

C.

FortiGate brings up port5 after it detects all SD-WAN members as alive.

D.

FortiGate brings down port5 after it detects all SD-WAN members as dead.

Question 3

Which two protocols in the IPsec suite are most used for authentication and encryption? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)

B.

Secure Shell (SSH)

C.

Internet Key Exchange (IKE)

D.

Security Association (SA)

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the role of the ADVPN device in handling traffic is true?

Options:

A.

This is a spoke that has received a query from a remote hub and has forwarded the response to its hub.

B.

Two hubs, 10.0.1.101 and 10.0.2.101, are receiving and forwarding queries between each other.

C.

This is a hub that has received a query from a spoke and has forwarded it to another spoke.

D.

Two spokes, 192.2.0.1 and 10.0.2.101, forward their queries to their hubs.

Question 5

What are two reasons for using FortiManager to organize and manage the network for a group of FortiGate devices?  (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It simplifies the deployment and administration of SD-WAN on managed FortiGate devices.

B.

It improves SD-WAN performance on the managed FortiGate devices.

C.

It sends probe signals as health checks to the beacon servers on behalf of FortiGate.

D.

It acts as a policy compliance entity to review all managed FortiGate devices.

E.

It reduces WAN usage on FortiGate devices by acting as a local FortiGuard server.

Question 6

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration change is required if the responder FortiGate uses a dynamic routing protocol to exchange routes over IPsec?

Options:

A.

type must be set to static.

B.

mode-cfg must be enabled.

C.

exchange-interface-ip must be enabled.

D.

add-route must be disabled.

Question 7

Which two interfaces are considered overlay links? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

LAG

B.

IPsec

C.

Physical

D.

GRE

Question 8

Refer to the exhibit.

Which algorithm does SD-WAN use to distribute traffic that does not match any of the SD-WAN rules?

Options:

A.

All traffic from a source IP to a destination IP is sent to the same interface.

B.

All traffic from a source IP is sent to the same interface.

C.

All traffic from a source IP is sent to the most used interface.

D.

All traffic from a source IP to a destination IP is sent to the least used interface.

Question 9

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibit, which two statements are correct about the health of the selected members? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

After FortiGate switches to active mode, FortiGate never fails back to passive monitoring.

B.

During passive monitoring, FortiGate can’t detect dead members.

C.

FortiGate can offload the traffic that is subject to passive monitoring to hardware.

D.

FortiGate passively monitors the member if TCP traffic is passing through the member.

Question 10

Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows the SD-WAN rule status and configuration.

Based on the exhibit, which change in the measured latency will make T_MPLS_0 the new preferred member?

Options:

A.

When T_INET_0_0 and T_MPLS_0 have the same latency.

B.

When T_MPLS_0 has a latency of 100 ms.

C.

When T_INET_0_0 has a latency of 250 ms.

D.

When T_N1PLS_0 has a latency of 80 ms.

Question 11

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the output, which two conclusions are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

There is more than one SD-WAN rule configured.

B.

The SD-WAN rules take precedence over regular policy routes.

C.

The all_rules rule represents the implicit SD-WAN rule.

D.

Entry 1(id=1) is a regular policy route.

Question 12

Refer to the exhibit.

Which are two expected behaviors of the traffic that matches the traffic shaper? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The number of simultaneous connections among all source IP addresses cannot exceed five connections.

B.

The traffic shaper limits the combined bandwidth of all connections to a maximum of 5 MB/sec.

C.

The number of simultaneous connections allowed for each source IP address cannot exceed five connections.

D.

The traffic shaper limits the bandwidth of each source IP address to a maximum of 625 KB/sec.

Question 13

Which two statements describe how IPsec phase 1 main mode is different from aggressive mode when performing IKE negotiation? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

A peer ID is included in the first packet from the initiator, along with suggested security policies.

B.

XAuth is enabled as an additional level of authentication, which requires a username and password.

C.

A total of six packets are exchanged between an initiator and a responder instead of three packets.

D.

The use of Diffie Hellman keys is limited by the responder and needs initiator acceptance.

Question 14

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibit, which statement about FortiGate re-evaluating traffic is true?

Options:

A.

The type of traffic defined and allowed on firewall policy ID 1 is UDP.

B.

FortiGate has terminated the session after a change on policy ID 1.

C.

Changes have been made on firewall policy ID 1 on FortiGate.

D.

Firewall policy ID 1 has source NAT disabled.

Question 15

Which CLI command do you use to perform real-time troubleshooting for ADVPN negotiation?

Options:

A.

get router info routing-table all

B.

diagnose debug application ike

C.

diagnose vpn tunnel list

D.

get ipsec tunnel list

Question 16

What are two benefits of using the Internet service database (ISDB) in an SD-WAN rule? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The ISDB is dynamically updated and reduces administrative overhead.

B.

The ISDB requires application control to maintain signatures and perform load balancing.

C.

The ISDB applies rules to traffic from specific sources, based on application type.

D.

The ISDB contains the IP addresses and port ranges of well-known internet services.

Question 17

Refer to the exhibits.

An administrator is testing application steering in SD-WAN. Before generating test traffic, the administrator collected the information shown in exhibit A.

After generating GoToMeeting test traffic, the administrator examined the respective traffic log on FortiAnalyzer, which is shown in exhibit B. The administrator noticed that the traffic matched the implicit SD-WAN rule, but they expected the traffic to match rule ID 1.

Which two reasons explain why the traffic matched the implicit SD-WAN rule? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

FortiGate did not refresh the routing information on the session after the application was detected.

B.

Port1 and port2 do not have a valid route to the destination.

C.

Full SSL inspection is not enabled on the matching firewall policy.

D.

The session 3-tuple did not match any of the existing entries in the ISDB application cache.

Question 18

The SD-WAN overlay template helps to prepare SD-WAN deployments. To complete the tasks performed by the SD-WAN overlay template, the administrator must perform some post-run tasks. What are three mandatory post-run tasks that must be performed? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Create policy packages for branch devices.

B.

Assign an sdwan_id metadata variable to each device (branch and hub}.

C.

Configure routing through overlay tunnels created by the SD-WAN overlay template.

D.

Assign a branch_id metadata variable to each branch device.

E.

Configure SD-WAN rules.

Question 19

Which components make up the secure SD-WAN solution?

Options:

A.

Application, antivirus, and URL, and SSL inspection

B.

Datacenter, branch offices, and public cloud

C.

FortiGate, FortiManager, FortiAnalyzer, and FortiDeploy

D.

Telephone, ISDN, and telecom network.

Question 20

What are two benefits of choosing packet duplication over FEC for data loss correction on noisy links? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Packet duplication can leverage multiple IPsec overlays for sending additional data.

B.

Packet duplication does not require a route to the destination.

C.

Packet duplication supports hardware offloading.

D.

Packet duplication uses smaller parity packets which results in less bandwidth consumption.

Question 21

Which two tasks are part of using central VPN management? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

You can configure full mesh, star, and dial-up VPN topologies.

B.

You must enable VPN zones for SD-WAN deployments.

C.

FortiManager installs VPN settings on both managed and external gateways.

D.

You configure VPN communities to define common IPsec settings shared by all VPN gateways.

Question 22

Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows the BGP configuration on the hub in a hub-and-spoke topology. The administrator wants BGP to advertise prefixes from spokes to other spokes over the IPsec overlays, including additional paths. However, when looking at the spoke routing table, the administrator does not see the prefixes from other spokes and the additional paths.

Based on the exhibit, which three settings must the administrator configure inside each BGP neighbor group so spokes can learn other spokes prefixes and their additional paths? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Set additional-path to send

B.

Enable route-reflector-client

C.

Set advertisement-interval to the number of additional paths to advertise

D.

Set adv-additional-path to the number of additional paths to advertise

E.

Enable soft-reconfiguration

Question 23

What are two reasons why FortiGate would be unable to complete the zero-touch provisioning process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The FortiGate cloud key has not been added to the FortiGate cloud portal.

B.

FortiDeploy has connected with FortiGate and provided the initial configuration to contact FortiManager

C.

The zero-touch provisioning process has completed internally, behind FortiGate.

D.

FortiGate has obtained a configuration from the platform template in FortiGate cloud.

E.

A factory reset performed on FortiGate.

Question 24

What does enabling the exchange-interface-ip setting enable FortiGate devices to exchange?

Options:

A.

The gateway address of their IPsec interfaces

B.

The tunnel ID of their IPsec interfaces

C.

The IP address of their IPsec interfaces

D.

The name of their IPsec interfaces

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