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ECCouncil 712-50 EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Exam Practice Test

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Total 494 questions

EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Questions and Answers

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Question 1

What is the primary difference between regulations and standards?

Options:

A.

Standards will include regulations

B.

Standards that aren’t followed are punishable by fines

C.

Regulations are made enforceable by the power provided by laws

D.

Regulations must be reviewed and approved by the business

Question 2

A bastion host should be placed:

Options:

A.

Inside the DMZ

B.

In-line with the data center firewall

C.

Beyond the outer perimeter firewall

D.

As the gatekeeper to the organization’s honeynet

Question 3

What is the THIRD state of the Tuckman Stages of Group Development?

Options:

A.

Performing

B.

Norming

C.

Storming

D.

Forming

Question 4

Who is responsible for verifying that audit directives are implemented?

Options:

A.

IT Management

B.

Internal Audit

C.

IT Security

D.

BOD Audit Committee

Question 5

While Cost Benefit Analysis (CBA) is the easiest calculation among financial tools, what is its main weakness?

Options:

A.

it is not effective for smaller investments

B.

It is not accepted by many accounting rules

C.

lt is the least precise

D.

positive result is an indication that the effort should be pursued

Question 6

As the CISO, you are the project sponsor for a highly visible log management project. The objective of the project is to centralize all the enterprise logs into a security information and event management (SIEM) system. You requested the results of the performance quality audits activity.

The performance quality audit activity is done in what project management process group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Closing

Question 7

You have been promoted to the CISO of a big-box retail store chain reporting to the Chief Information Officer (CIO). The CIO’s first mandate to you is to develop a cybersecurity compliance framework that will meet all the store’s compliance requirements.

Which of the following compliance standard is the MOST important to the organization?

Options:

A.

The Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program (FedRAMP)

B.

ISO 27002

C.

NIST Cybersecurity Framework

D.

Payment Card Industry (PCI) Data Security Standard (DSS)

Question 8

A cloud computing environment that is bound together by technology that allows data and applications to be shared between public and private clouds is BEST referred to as a?

Options:

A.

Public cloud

B.

Private cloud

C.

Community cloud

D.

Hybrid cloud

Question 9

What are the common data hiding techniques used by criminals?

Options:

A.

Unallocated space and masking

B.

Website defacement and log manipulation

C.

Disabled Logging and admin elevation

D.

Encryption, Steganography, and Changing Metadata/Timestamps

Question 10

An organization has decided to develop an in-house BCM capability. The organization has determined it is best to follow a BCM standard published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).

The BEST ISO standard to follow that outlines the complete lifecycle of BCM is?

Options:

A.

ISO 22318 Supply Chain Continuity

B.

ISO 27031 BCM Readiness

C.

ISO 22301 BCM Requirements

D.

ISO 22317 BIA

Question 11

A university recently hired a CISO. One of the first tasks is to develop a continuity of operations plan (COOP).

In developing the business impact assessment (BIA), which of the following MOST closely relate to the data backup and restoral?

Options:

A.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

B.

Mean Time to Delivery (MTD)

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)

Question 12

To make sure that the actions of all employees, applications, and systems follow the organization’s rules and regulations can BEST be described as which of the following?

Options:

A.

Compliance management

B.

Asset management

C.

Risk management

D.

Security management

Question 13

When obtaining new products and services, why is it essential to collaborate with lawyers, IT security professionals, privacy professionals, security engineers, suppliers, and others?

Options:

A.

This makes sure the files you exchange aren’t unnecessarily flagged by the Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system

B.

Contracting rules typically require you to have conversations with two or more groups

C.

Discussing decisions with a very large group of people always provides a better outcome

D.

It helps to avoid regulatory or internal compliance issues

Question 14

When performing a forensic investigation, what are the two MOST common data sources for obtaining evidence from a computer and mobile devices?

Options:

A.

RAM and unallocated space

B.

Unallocated space and RAM

C.

Slack space and browser cache

D.

Persistent and volatile data

Question 15

What does RACI stand for?

Options:

A.

Reasonable, Actionable, Controlled, and Implemented

B.

Responsible, Actors, Consult, and Instigate

C.

Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed

D.

Review, Act, Communicate, and Inform

Question 16

When developing the Business Impact Assessment (BIA), which of the following MOST closely relates to data backup and restoration?

Options:

A.

Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)

B.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

C.

Mean Time to Del very >MTD)

D.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

Question 17

Many successful cyber-attacks currently include:

Options:

A.

Phishing Attacks

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

All of these

D.

Social engineering

Question 18

Which of the following BEST mitigates ransomware threats?

Options:

A.

Phishing exercises

B.

Use immutable data storage

C.

Blocking use of wireless networks

D.

Application of multiple endpoint anti-malware solutions

Question 19

Which of the following provides the BEST approach to achieving positive outcomes while preserving savings?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Economic impact analysis

D.

Return on Investment

Question 20

What is a key goal of information security?

Options:

A.

Creation of controls and processes to security the organization's data and information resources

B.

The documentation and qualification of risk be the organization to facilitate better decision making by management

C.

The confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the organization s data and information resources

D.

to reduce adverse impacts on the organization to an acceptable level of risk

Question 21

To reduce the threat of spear phishing, which of the following is the MOST critical security control to implement?

Options:

A.

Security awareness and training

B.

Firewall

C.

Data loss prevention

D.

Antivirus

Question 22

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to secure the physical hardware hosts in a virtualized environment?

Options:

A.

Apply existing information security controls

B.

Apply virtualized controls to the physical host

C.

Secure the virtualized platform

D.

Secure the virtualized workload

Question 23

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) requires an agreement between Cloud Service Providers (CCSP) and the covered entity. Based on HIPAA. which document must be completed between the covered entity and the CCSP?

Options:

A.

Business Associate Agreement (BAA]

B.

Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)

C.

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D.

Interconnection Security Agreement (ISA)

Question 24

What organizational structure combines the functional and project structures to create a hybrid of the two?

Options:

A.

Traditional

B.

Composite

C.

Project

D.

Matrix

Question 25

Which of the following refers to the quantity or quality of project deliverables expanding from the original project plan?

Options:

A.

Deliverable expansion

B.

Scope creep

C.

Deadline extension

D.

Scope modification

Question 26

What is the primary difference between Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS)?

Options:

A.

Only IDS is susceptible to false positives

B.

An IPS examines network traffic flows to detect and actively stop exploits and attacks

C.

IPS identify potentially malicious traffic based on signature or behavior and IDS does not

D.

IDS are typically deployed behind the firewall and IPS are deployed in front of the firewall

Question 27

An auditor is reviewing the security classifications for a group of assets and finds that many of the assets are not correctly classified.

What should the auditor’s NEXT step be?

Options:

A.

Immediately notify the board of directors of the organization as to the finding

B.

Correct the classifications immediately based on the auditor’s knowledge of the proper classification

C.

Document the missing classifications

D.

Identify the owner of the asset and induce the owner to apply a proper classification

Question 28

Many successful cyber-attacks currently include:

Options:

A.

Phishing Attacks

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

Social engineering

D.

All of these

Question 29

A key cybersecurity feature of a Personal Identification Verification (PIV) Card is:

Options:

A.

Inability to export the private certificate/key

B.

It can double as physical identification at the DMV

C.

It has the user’s photograph to help ID them

D.

It can be used as a secure flash drive

Question 30

What is the MOST critical output of the incident response process?

Options:

A.

A complete document of all involved team members and the support they provided

B.

Recovery of all data from affected systems

C.

Lessons learned from the incident, so they can be incorporated into the incident response processes

D.

Clearly defined documents detailing standard evidence collection and preservation processes

Question 31

Which of the following is a term related to risk management that represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to transpire?

Options:

A.

Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)

B.

Exposure Factor (EF)

C.

Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)

D.

Temporal Probability (TP)

Question 32

An organization licenses and uses personal information for business operations, and a server containing that information has been compromised. What kind of law would require notifying the owner or licensee of this incident?

Options:

A.

Data breach disclosure

B.

Consumer right disclosure

C.

Security incident disclosure

D.

Special circumstance disclosure

Question 33

Which of the following provides an audit framework?

Options:

A.

Control Objectives for IT (COBIT)

B.

Payment Card Industry-Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS)

C.

International Organization Standard (ISO) 27002

D.

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-30

Question 34

Assigning the role and responsibility of Information Assurance to a dedicated and independent security group is an example of:

Options:

A.

Detective Controls

B.

Proactive Controls

C.

Preemptive Controls

D.

Organizational Controls

Question 35

The purpose of NIST SP 800-53 as part of the NIST System Certification and Accreditation Project is to establish a set of standardized, minimum security controls for IT systems addressing low, moderate, and high levels of concern for

Options:

A.

Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability

B.

Assurance, Compliance and Availability

C.

International Compliance

D.

Integrity and Availability

Question 36

Which of the following is of MOST importance when security leaders of an organization are required to align security to influence the culture of an organization?

Options:

A.

Poses a strong technical background

B.

Understand all regulations affecting the organization

C.

Understand the business goals of the organization

D.

Poses a strong auditing background

Question 37

Your IT auditor is reviewing significant events from the previous year and has identified some procedural oversights. Which of the following would be the MOST concerning?

Options:

A.

Lack of notification to the public of disclosure of confidential information.

B.

Lack of periodic examination of access rights

C.

Failure to notify police of an attempted intrusion

D.

Lack of reporting of a successful denial of service attack on the network.

Question 38

The effectiveness of an audit is measured by?

Options:

A.

The number of actionable items in the recommendations

B.

How it exposes the risk tolerance of the company

C.

How the recommendations directly support the goals of the company

D.

The number of security controls the company has in use

Question 39

Which of the following represents the BEST reason for an organization to use the Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (COBIT) as an Information Technology (IT) framework?

Options:

A.

It allows executives to more effectively monitor IT implementation costs

B.

Implementation of it eases an organization’s auditing and compliance burden

C.

Information Security (IS) procedures often require augmentation with other standards

D.

It provides for a consistent and repeatable staffing model for technology organizations

Question 40

Which of the following is the MOST important goal of risk management?

Options:

A.

Identifying the risk

B.

Finding economic balance between the impact of the risk and the cost of the control

C.

Identifying the victim of any potential exploits.

D.

Assessing the impact of potential threats

Question 41

Which of the following tests is an IS auditor performing when a sample of programs is selected to determine if the source and object versions are the same?

Options:

A.

A substantive test of program library controls

B.

A compliance test of program library controls

C.

A compliance test of the program compiler controls

D.

A substantive test of the program compiler controls

Question 42

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to measure the effectiveness of an Information Security Management System (ISMS)?

Options:

A.

Meet regulatory compliance requirements

B.

Better understand the threats and vulnerabilities affecting the environment

C.

Better understand strengths and weaknesses of the program

D.

Meet legal requirements

Question 43

Which of the following is considered to be an IT governance framework and a supporting toolset that allows for managers to bridge the gap between control requirements, technical issues, and business risks?

Options:

A.

Control Objective for Information Technology (COBIT)

B.

Committee of Sponsoring Organizations (COSO)

C.

Payment Card Industry (PCI)

D.

Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)

Question 44

The MOST common method to get an unbiased measurement of the effectiveness of an Information Security Management System (ISMS) is to

Options:

A.

assign the responsibility to the information security team.

B.

assign the responsibility to the team responsible for the management of the controls.

C.

create operational reports on the effectiveness of the controls.

D.

perform an independent audit of the security controls.

Question 45

A recent audit has identified a few control exceptions and is recommending the implementation of technology and processes to address the finding. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the organization to reject the implementation of the recommended technology and processes?

Options:

A.

The auditors have not followed proper auditing processes

B.

The CIO of the organization disagrees with the finding

C.

The risk tolerance of the organization permits this risk

D.

The organization has purchased cyber insurance

Question 46

Which of the following is the MOST important for a CISO to understand when identifying threats?

Options:

A.

How vulnerabilities can potentially be exploited in systems that impact the organization

B.

How the security operations team will behave to reported incidents

C.

How the firewall and other security devices are configured to prevent attacks

D.

How the incident management team prepares to handle an attack

Question 47

Which of the following organizations is typically in charge of validating the implementation and effectiveness of security controls?

Options:

A.

Security Administrators

B.

Internal/External Audit

C.

Risk Management

D.

Security Operations

Question 48

At which point should the identity access management team be notified of the termination of an employee?

Options:

A.

At the end of the day once the employee is off site

B.

During the monthly review cycle

C.

Immediately so the employee account(s) can be disabled

D.

Before an audit

Question 49

In which of the following cases, would an organization be more prone to risk acceptance vs. risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

The organization uses exclusively a quantitative process to measure risk

B.

The organization uses exclusively a qualitative process to measure risk

C.

The organization’s risk tolerance is high

D.

The organization’s risk tolerance is lo

Question 50

What is the SECOND step to creating a risk management methodology according to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-30 standard?

Options:

A.

Determine appetite

B.

Evaluate risk avoidance criteria

C.

Perform a risk assessment

D.

Mitigate risk

Question 51

A security manager has created a risk program. Which of the following is a critical part of ensuring the program is successful?

Options:

A.

Providing a risk program governance structure

B.

Ensuring developers include risk control comments in code

C.

Creating risk assessment templates based on specific threats

D.

Allowing for the acceptance of risk for regulatory compliance requirements

Question 52

Which of the following are necessary to formulate responses to external audit findings?

Options:

A.

Internal Audit, Management, and Technical Staff

B.

Internal Audit, Budget Authority, Management

C.

Technical Staff, Budget Authority, Management

D.

Technical Staff, Internal Audit, Budget Authority

Question 53

How often should an environment be monitored for cyber threats, risks, and exposures?

Options:

A.

Weekly

B.

Monthly

C.

Quarterly

D.

Daily

Question 54

According to ISO 27001, of the steps for establishing an Information Security Governance program listed below, which comes first?

Options:

A.

Identify threats, risks, impacts and vulnerabilities

B.

Decide how to manage risk

C.

Define the budget of the Information Security Management System

D.

Define Information Security Policy

Question 55

When creating a vulnerability scan schedule, who is the MOST critical person to communicate with in order to ensure impact of the scan is minimized?

Options:

A.

The asset owner

B.

The asset manager

C.

The data custodian

D.

The project manager

Question 56

What is the BEST way to achieve on-going compliance monitoring in an organization?

Options:

A.

Only check compliance right before the auditors are scheduled to arrive onsite.

B.

Outsource compliance to a 3rd party vendor and let them manage the program.

C.

Have Compliance and Information Security partner to correct issues as they arise.

D.

Have Compliance direct Information Security to fix issues after the auditors report.

Question 57

Which of the following is considered the MOST effective tool against social engineering?

Options:

A.

Anti-phishing tools

B.

Anti-malware tools

C.

Effective Security Vulnerability Management Program

D.

Effective Security awareness program

Question 58

The single most important consideration to make when developing your security program, policies, and processes is:

Options:

A.

Budgeting for unforeseen data compromises

B.

Streamlining for efficiency

C.

Alignment with the business

D.

Establishing your authority as the Security Executive

Question 59

A Security Operations Centre (SOC) manager is informed that a database containing highly sensitive corporate strategy information is under attack. Information has been stolen and the database server was disconnected. Who must be informed of this incident?

Options:

A.

Internal audit

B.

The data owner

C.

All executive staff

D.

Government regulators

Question 60

Which of the following activities is the MAIN purpose of the risk assessment process?

Options:

A.

Creating an inventory of information assets

B.

Classifying and organizing information assets into meaningful groups

C.

Assigning value to each information asset

D.

Calculating the risks to which assets are exposed in their current setting

Question 61

When entering into a third party vendor agreement for security services, at what point in the process is it BEST to understand and validate the security posture and compliance level of the vendor?

Options:

A.

At the time the security services are being performed and the vendor needs access to the network

B.

Once the agreement has been signed and the security vendor states that they will need access to the network

C.

Once the vendor is on premise and before they perform security services

D.

Prior to signing the agreement and before any security services are being performed

Question 62

Which business stakeholder is accountable for the integrity of a new information system?

Options:

A.

CISO

B.

Compliance Officer

C.

Project manager

D.

Board of directors

Question 63

Which of the following functions implements and oversees the use of controls to reduce risk when creating an information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk Assessment

B.

Incident Response

C.

Risk Management

D.

Network Security administration

Question 64

Which of the following is considered one of the most frequent failures in project management?

Options:

A.

Overly restrictive management

B.

Excessive personnel on project

C.

Failure to meet project deadlines

D.

Insufficient resources

Question 65

Which of the following represents the BEST method for obtaining business unit acceptance of security controls within an organization?

Options:

A.

Allow the business units to decide which controls apply to their systems, such as the encryption of sensitive data

B.

Create separate controls for the business units based on the types of business and functions they perform

C.

Ensure business units are involved in the creation of controls and defining conditions under which they must be applied

D.

Provide the business units with control mandates and schedules of audits for compliance validation

Question 66

As the CISO for your company you are accountable for the protection of information resources commensurate with:

Options:

A.

Customer demand

B.

Cost and time to replace

C.

Insurability tables

D.

Risk of exposure

Question 67

Which of the following methods are used to define contractual obligations that force a vendor to meet customer expectations?

Options:

A.

Terms and Conditions

B.

Service Level Agreements (SLA)

C.

Statement of Work

D.

Key Performance Indicators (KPI)

Question 68

Which of the following functions evaluates risk present in IT initiatives and/or systems when implementing an information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk Management

B.

Risk Assessment

C.

System Testing

D.

Vulnerability Assessment

Question 69

Which of the following is considered a project versus a managed process?

Options:

A.

monitoring external and internal environment during incident response

B.

ongoing risk assessments of routine operations

C.

continuous vulnerability assessment and vulnerability repair

D.

installation of a new firewall system

Question 70

Which of the following functions evaluates patches used to close software vulnerabilities of new systems to assure compliance with policy when implementing an information security program?

Options:

A.

System testing

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Incident response

D.

Planning

Question 71

A severe security threat has been detected on your corporate network. As CISO you quickly assemble key members of the Information Technology team and business operations to determine a modification to security controls in response to the threat. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Change management

B.

Business continuity planning

C.

Security Incident Response

D.

Thought leadership

Question 72

A recommended method to document the respective roles of groups and individuals for a given process is to:

Options:

A.

Develop a detailed internal organization chart

B.

Develop a telephone call tree for emergency response

C.

Develop an isolinear response matrix with cost benefit analysis projections

D.

Develop a Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed (RACI) chart

Question 73

A newly appointed security officer finds data leakage software licenses that had never been used. The officer decides to implement a project to ensure it gets installed, but the project gets a great deal of resistance across the organization. Which of the following represents the MOST likely reason for this situation?

Options:

A.

The software license expiration is probably out of synchronization with other software licenses

B.

The project was initiated without an effort to get support from impacted business units in the organization

C.

The software is out of date and does not provide for a scalable solution across the enterprise

D.

The security officer should allow time for the organization to get accustomed to her presence before initiating security projects

Question 74

A CISO sees abnormally high volumes of exceptions to security requirements and constant pressure from business units to change security processes. Which of the following represents the MOST LIKELY cause of this situation?

Options:

A.

Poor audit support for the security program

B.

A lack of executive presence within the security program

C.

Poor alignment of the security program to business needs

D.

This is normal since business units typically resist security requirements

Question 75

An international organization is planning a project to implement encryption technologies to protect company confidential information. This organization has data centers on three continents. Which of the following would be considered a MAJOR constraint for the project?

Options:

A.

Time zone differences

B.

Compliance to local hiring laws

C.

Encryption import/export regulations

D.

Local customer privacy laws

Question 76

When operating under severe budget constraints a CISO will have to be creative to maintain a strong security organization. Which example below is the MOST creative way to maintain a strong security posture during these difficult times?

Options:

A.

Download open source security tools and deploy them on your production network

B.

Download trial versions of commercially available security tools and deploy on your production network

C.

Download open source security tools from a trusted site, test, and then deploy on production network

D.

Download security tools from a trusted source and deploy to production network

Question 77

An organization has a stated requirement to block certain traffic on networks. The implementation of controls will disrupt a manufacturing process and cause unacceptable delays, resulting in sever revenue disruptions. Which of the following is MOST likely to be responsible for accepting the risk until mitigating controls can be implemented?

Options:

A.

The CISO

B.

Audit and Compliance

C.

The CFO

D.

The business owner

Question 78

Which of the following methodologies references the recommended industry standard that Information security project managers should follow?

Options:

A.

The Security Systems Development Life Cycle

B.

The Security Project And Management Methodology

C.

Project Management System Methodology

D.

Project Management Body of Knowledge

Question 79

Risk appetite is typically determined by which of the following organizational functions?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

Business units

C.

Board of Directors

D.

Audit and compliance

Question 80

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of a successful project?

Options:

A.

it is completed on time or early as compared to the baseline project plan

B.

it meets most of the specifications as outlined in the approved project definition

C.

it comes in at or below the expenditures planned for in the baseline budget

D.

the deliverables are accepted by the key stakeholders

Question 81

How often should the SSAE16 report of your vendors be reviewed?

Options:

A.

Quarterly

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Annually

D.

Bi-annually

Question 82

A system was hardened at the Operating System level and placed into the production environment. Months later an audit was performed and it identified insecure configuration different from the original hardened state. Which of the following security issues is the MOST likely reason leading to the audit findings?

Options:

A.

Lack of asset management processes

B.

Lack of change management processes

C.

Lack of hardening standards

D.

Lack of proper access controls

Question 83

Which of the following represents the best method of ensuring business unit alignment with security program requirements?

Options:

A.

Provide clear communication of security requirements throughout the organization

B.

Demonstrate executive support with written mandates for security policy adherence

C.

Create collaborative risk management approaches within the organization

D.

Perform increased audits of security processes and procedures

Question 84

Which of the following will be MOST helpful for getting an Information Security project that is behind schedule back on schedule?

Options:

A.

Upper management support

B.

More frequent project milestone meetings

C.

More training of staff members

D.

Involve internal audit

Question 85

This occurs when the quantity or quality of project deliverables is expanded from the original project plan.

Options:

A.

Scope creep

B.

Deadline extension

C.

Scope modification

D.

Deliverable expansion

Question 86

The security team has investigated the theft/loss of several unencrypted laptop computers containing sensitive corporate information. To prevent the loss of any additional corporate data it is unilaterally decided by the CISO that all existing and future laptop computers will be encrypted. Soon, the help desk is flooded with complaints about the slow performance of the laptops and users are upset. What did the CISO do wrong? (choose the BEST answer):

Options:

A.

Failed to identify all stakeholders and their needs

B.

Deployed the encryption solution in an inadequate manner

C.

Used 1024 bit encryption when 256 bit would have sufficed

D.

Used hardware encryption instead of software encryption

Question 87

When is an application security development project complete?

Options:

A.

When the application is retired.

B.

When the application turned over to production.

C.

When the application reaches the maintenance phase.

D.

After one year.

Question 88

A stakeholder is a person or group:

Options:

A.

Vested in the success and/or failure of a project or initiative regardless of budget implications.

B.

Vested in the success and/or failure of a project or initiative and is tied to the project budget.

C.

That has budget authority.

D.

That will ultimately use the system.

Question 89

You currently cannot provide for 24/7 coverage of your security monitoring and incident response duties and your company is resistant to the idea of adding more full-time employees to the payroll. Which combination of solutions would help to provide the coverage needed without the addition of more dedicated staff? (choose the best answer):

Options:

A.

Deploy a SEIM solution and have current staff review incidents first thing in the morning

B.

Contract with a managed security provider and have current staff on recall for incident response

C.

Configure your syslog to send SMS messages to current staff when target events are triggered

D.

Employ an assumption of breach protocol and defend only essential information resources

Question 90

Which of the following is MOST beneficial in determining an appropriate balance between uncontrolled innovation and excessive caution in an organization?

Options:

A.

Define the risk appetite

B.

Determine budget constraints

C.

Review project charters

D.

Collaborate security projects

Question 91

Which of the following statements about Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is true?

Options:

A.

It is an IPSec protocol.

B.

It is a text-based communication protocol.

C.

It uses TCP port 22 as the default port and operates at the application layer.

D.

It uses UDP port 22

Question 92

The ability to hold intruders accountable in a court of law is important. Which of the following activities are needed to ensure the highest possibility for successful prosecution?

Options:

A.

Well established and defined digital forensics process

B.

Establishing Enterprise-owned Botnets for preemptive attacks

C.

Be able to retaliate under the framework of Active Defense

D.

Collaboration with law enforcement

Question 93

What type of attack requires the least amount of technical equipment and has the highest success rate?

Options:

A.

War driving

B.

Operating system attacks

C.

Social engineering

D.

Shrink wrap attack

Question 94

Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

MD5

C.

ECC

D.

RSA

Question 95

While designing a secondary data center for your company what document needs to be analyzed to determine to how much should be spent on building the data center?

Options:

A.

Enterprise Risk Assessment

B.

Disaster recovery strategic plan

C.

Business continuity plan

D.

Application mapping document

Question 96

One of your executives needs to send an important and confidential email. You want to ensure that the message cannot be read by anyone but the recipient. Which of the following keys should be used to encrypt the message?

Options:

A.

Your public key

B.

The recipient's private key

C.

The recipient's public key

D.

Certificate authority key

Question 97

An access point (AP) is discovered using Wireless Equivalent Protocol (WEP). The ciphertext sent by the AP is encrypted with the same key and cipher used by its stations. What authentication method is being used?

Options:

A.

Shared key

B.

Asynchronous

C.

Open

D.

None

Question 98

Your incident handling manager detects a virus attack in the network of your company. You develop a signature based on the characteristics of the detected virus. Which of the following phases in the incident handling process will utilize the signature to resolve this incident?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Identification

D.

Eradication

Question 99

You are having a penetration test done on your company network and the leader of the team says they discovered all the network devices because no one had changed the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) community strings from the defaults. Which of the following is a default community string?

Options:

A.

Execute

B.

Read

C.

Administrator

D.

Public

Question 100

Your penetration testing team installs an in-line hardware key logger onto one of your network machines. Which of the following is of major concern to the security organization?

Options:

A.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t require physical access

B.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t comply to industry regulations

C.

In-line hardware keyloggers are undetectable by software

D.

In-line hardware keyloggers are relatively inexpensive

Question 101

A customer of a bank has placed a dispute on a payment for a credit card account. The banking system uses digital signatures to safeguard the integrity of their transactions. The bank claims that the system shows proof that the customer in fact made the payment. What is this system capability commonly known as?

Options:

A.

non-repudiation

B.

conflict resolution

C.

strong authentication

D.

digital rights management

Question 102

Your organization provides open guest wireless access with no captive portals. What can you do to assist with law enforcement investigations if one of your guests is suspected of committing an illegal act using your network?

Options:

A.

Configure logging on each access point

B.

Install a firewall software on each wireless access point.

C.

Provide IP and MAC address

D.

Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points.

Question 103

What is the FIRST step in developing the vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Baseline the Environment

B.

Maintain and Monitor

C.

Organization Vulnerability

D.

Define Policy

Question 104

The process of identifying and classifying assets is typically included in the

Options:

A.

Threat analysis process

B.

Asset configuration management process

C.

Business Impact Analysis

D.

Disaster Recovery plan

Question 105

The process for identifying, collecting, and producing digital information in support of legal proceedings is called

Options:

A.

chain of custody.

B.

electronic discovery.

C.

evidence tampering.

D.

electronic review.

Question 106

Which of the following is MOST important when tuning an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

Options:

A.

Trusted and untrusted networks

B.

Type of authentication

C.

Storage encryption

D.

Log retention

Question 107

What is the term describing the act of inspecting all real-time Internet traffic (i.e., packets) traversing a major Internet backbone without introducing any apparent latency?

Options:

A.

Traffic Analysis

B.

Deep-Packet inspection

C.

Packet sampling

D.

Heuristic analysis

Question 108

The process of creating a system which divides documents based on their security level to manage access to private data is known as

Options:

A.

security coding

B.

data security system

C.

data classification

D.

privacy protection

Question 109

An anonymity network is a series of?

Options:

A.

Covert government networks

B.

War driving maps

C.

Government networks in Tora

D.

Virtual network tunnels

Question 110

SQL injection is a very popular and successful injection attack method. Identify the basic SQL injection text:

Options:

A.

‘ o 1=1 - -

B.

/../../../../

C.

“DROPTABLE USERNAME”

D.

NOPS

Question 111

As a CISO you need to understand the steps that are used to perform an attack against a network. Put each step into the correct order.

1.Covering tracks

2.Scanning and enumeration

3.Maintaining Access

4.Reconnaissance

5.Gaining Access

Options:

A.

4, 2, 5, 3, 1

B.

2, 5, 3, 1, 4

C.

4, 5, 2, 3, 1

D.

4, 3, 5, 2, 1

Question 112

Which of the following is a countermeasure to prevent unauthorized database access from web applications?

Options:

A.

Session encryption

B.

Removing all stored procedures

C.

Input sanitization

D.

Library control

Question 113

Which wireless encryption technology makes use of temporal keys?

Options:

A.

Wireless Application Protocol (WAP)

B.

Wifi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2)

C.

Wireless Equivalence Protocol (WEP)

D.

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

Question 114

Network Forensics is the prerequisite for any successful legal action after attacks on your Enterprise Network. Which is the single most important factor to introducing digital evidence into a court of law?

Options:

A.

Comprehensive Log-Files from all servers and network devices affected during the attack

B.

Fully trained network forensic experts to analyze all data right after the attack

C.

Uninterrupted Chain of Custody

D.

Expert forensics witness

Question 115

Security related breaches are assessed and contained through which of the following?

Options:

A.

The IT support team.

B.

A forensic analysis.

C.

Incident response

D.

Physical security team.

Question 116

In terms of supporting a forensic investigation, it is now imperative that managers, first-responders, etc., accomplish the following actions to the computer under investigation:

Options:

A.

Secure the area and shut-down the computer until investigators arrive

B.

Secure the area and attempt to maintain power until investigators arrive

C.

Immediately place hard drive and other components in an anti-static bag

D.

Secure the area.

Question 117

Which of the following backup sites takes the longest recovery time?

Options:

A.

Cold site

B.

Hot site

C.

Warm site

D.

Mobile backup site

Question 118

Physical security measures typically include which of the following components?

Options:

A.

Physical, Technical, Operational

B.

Technical, Strong Password, Operational

C.

Operational, Biometric, Physical

D.

Strong password, Biometric, Common Access Card

Question 119

Which of the following is the MAIN security concern for public cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Unable to control physical access to the servers

B.

Unable to track log on activity

C.

Unable to run anti-virus scans

D.

Unable to patch systems as needed

Question 120

The general ledger setup function in an enterprise resource package allows for setting accounting periods. Access to this function has been permitted to users in finance, the shipping department, and production scheduling. What is the most likely reason for such broad access?

Options:

A.

The need to change accounting periods on a regular basis.

B.

The requirement to post entries for a closed accounting period.

C.

The need to create and modify the chart of accounts and its allocations.

D.

The lack of policies and procedures for the proper segregation of duties.

Question 121

Annual Loss Expectancy is derived from the function of which two factors?

Options:

A.

Annual Rate of Occurrence and Asset Value

B.

Single Loss Expectancy and Exposure Factor

C.

Safeguard Value and Annual Rate of Occurrence

D.

Annual Rate of Occurrence and Single Loss Expectancy

Question 122

Bob waits near a secured door, holding a box. He waits until an employee walks up to the secured door and

uses the special card in order to access the restricted area of the target company. Just as the employee opens

the door, Bob walks up to the employee (still holding the box) and asks the employee to hold the door open so

that he can enter. What is the best way to undermine the social engineering activity of tailgating?

Options:

A.

Post a sign that states, “no tailgating” next to the special card reader adjacent to the secure door

B.

Issue special cards to access secure doors at the company and provide a one-time only brief description of

use of the special card

C.

Educate and enforce physical security policies of the company to all the employees on a regular basis

D.

Setup a mock video camera next to the special card reader adjacent to the secure door

Question 123

Scenario: Most industries require compliance with multiple government regulations and/or industry standards to meet data protection and privacy mandates.

What is one proven method to account for common elements found within separate regulations and/or standards?

Options:

A.

Hire a GRC expert

B.

Use the Find function of your word processor

C.

Design your program to meet the strictest government standards

D.

Develop a crosswalk

Question 124

Which of the following is used to lure attackers into false environments so they can be monitored, contained, or blocked from reaching critical systems?

Options:

A.

Segmentation controls.

B.

Shadow applications.

C.

Deception technology.

D.

Vulnerability management.

Question 125

Where does bottom-up financial planning primarily gain information for creating budgets?

Options:

A.

By adding all capital and operational costs from the prior budgetary cycle, and determining potential

financial shortages

B.

By reviewing last year’s program-level costs and adding a percentage of expected additional portfolio costs

C.

By adding the cost of all known individual tasks and projects that are planned for the next budgetary cycle

D.

By adding all planned operational expenses per quarter then summarizing them in a budget request

Question 126

Scenario: Most industries require compliance with multiple government regulations and/or industry standards to meet data protection and privacy mandates.

When multiple regulations or standards apply to your industry you should set controls to meet the:

Options:

A.

Easiest regulation or standard to implement

B.

Stricter regulation or standard

C.

Most complex standard to implement

D.

Recommendations of your Legal Staff

Question 127

Scenario: Your corporate systems have been under constant probing and attack from foreign IP addresses for more than a week. Your security team and security infrastructure have performed well under the stress. You are confident that your defenses have held up under the test, but rumors are spreading that sensitive customer data has been stolen and is now being sold on the Internet by criminal elements. During your investigation of the rumored compromise you discover that data has been breached and you have discovered the repository of stolen data on a server located in a foreign country. Your team now has full access to the data on the foreign server.

Your defenses did not hold up to the test as originally thought. As you investigate how the data was compromised through log analysis you discover that a hardworking, but misguided business intelligence analyst posted the data to an obfuscated URL on a popular cloud storage service so they could work on it from home during their off-time. Which technology or solution could you deploy to prevent employees from removing corporate data from your network? Choose the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

Security Guards posted outside the Data Center

B.

Data Loss Prevention (DLP)

C.

Rigorous syslog reviews

D.

Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)

Question 128

During the 3rd quarter of a budget cycle, the CISO noticed she spent more than was originally planned in her

annual budget. What is the condition of her current budgetary posture?

Options:

A.

The budget is in a temporary state of imbalance

B.

The budget is operating at a deficit

C.

She can realign the budget through moderate capital expense (CAPEX) allocation

D.

She has a surplus of operational expenses (OPEX)

Question 129

A system is designed to dynamically block offending Internet IP-addresses from requesting services from a secure website. This type of control is considered

Options:

A.

Zero-day attack mitigation

B.

Preventive detection control

C.

Corrective security control

D.

Dynamic blocking control

Question 130

The network administrator wants to strengthen physical security in the organization. Specifically, to implement a

solution stopping people from entering certain restricted zones without proper credentials. Which of following

physical security measures should the administrator use?

Options:

A.

Video surveillance

B.

Mantrap

C.

Bollards

D.

Fence

Question 131

Scenario: As you begin to develop the program for your organization, you assess the corporate culture and determine that there is a pervasive opinion that the security program only slows things down and limits the performance of the “real workers.”

Which group of people should be consulted when developing your security program?

Options:

A.

Peers

B.

End Users

C.

Executive Management

D.

All of the above

Question 132

The newly appointed CISO of an organization is reviewing the IT security strategic plan. Which of the following is the MOST important component of the strategic plan?

Options:

A.

There is integration between IT security and business staffing.

B.

There is a clear definition of the IT security mission and vision.

C.

There is an auditing methodology in place.

D.

The plan requires return on investment for all security projects.

Question 133

SCENARIO: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently had a third party conduct an audit of the security program. Internal policies and international standards were used as audit baselines. The audit report was presented to the CISO and a variety of high, medium and low rated gaps were identified.

The CISO has validated audit findings, determined if compensating controls exist, and started initial remediation planning. Which of the following is the MOST logical next step?

Options:

A.

Validate the effectiveness of current controls

B.

Create detailed remediation funding and staffing plans

C.

Report the audit findings and remediation status to business stake holders

D.

Review security procedures to determine if they need modified according to findings

Question 134

When dealing with risk, the information security practitioner may choose to:

Options:

A.

assign

B.

transfer

C.

acknowledge

D.

defer

Question 135

Simon had all his systems administrators implement hardware and software firewalls to ensure network

security. They implemented IDS/IPS systems throughout the network to check for and stop any unauthorized

traffic that may attempt to enter. Although Simon and his administrators believed they were secure, a hacker

group was able to get into the network and modify files hosted on the company's website. After searching

through the firewall and server logs, no one could find how the attackers were able to get in. He decides that

the entire network needs to be monitored for critical and essential file changes. This monitoring tool alerts

administrators when a critical file is altered. What tool could Simon and his administrators implement to

accomplish this?

Options:

A.

They need to use Nessus.

B.

They can implement Wireshark.

C.

Snort is the best tool for their situation.

D.

They could use Tripwire.

Question 136

Smith, the project manager for a larger multi-location firm, is leading a software project team that has 18

members, 5 of which are assigned to testing. Due to recent recommendations by an organizational quality audit

team, the project manager is convinced to add a quality professional to lead to test team at additional cost to

the project.

The project manager is aware of the importance of communication for the success of the project and takes the

step of introducing additional communication channels, making it more complex, in order to assure quality

levels of the project. What will be the first project management document that Smith should change in order to

accommodate additional communication channels?

Options:

A.

WBS document

B.

Scope statement

C.

Change control document

D.

Risk management plan

Question 137

Which type of physical security control scan a person’s external features through a digital video camera before

granting access to a restricted area?

Options:

A.

Iris scan

B.

Retinal scan

C.

Facial recognition scan

D.

Signature kinetics scan

Question 138

A consultant is hired to do physical penetration testing at a large financial company. In the first day of his

assessment, the consultant goes to the company’s building dressed like an electrician and waits in the lobby for

an employee to pass through the main access gate, then the consultant follows the employee behind to get into

the restricted area. Which type of attack did the consultant perform?

Options:

A.

Shoulder surfing

B.

Tailgating

C.

Social engineering

D.

Mantrap

Question 139

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for performing assessments of the security portfolio?

Options:

A.

To assure that the portfolio is aligned to the needs of the broader organization

B.

To create executive support of the portfolio

C.

To discover new technologies and processes for implementation within the portfolio

D.

To provide independent 3rd party reviews of security effectiveness

Question 140

Scenario: You are the CISO and are required to brief the C-level executive team on your information security audit for the year. During your review of the audit findings you discover that many of the controls that were put in place the previous year to correct some of the findings are not performing as needed. You have thirty days until the briefing.

To formulate a remediation plan for the non-performing controls what other document do you need to review before adjusting the controls?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis

B.

Business Continuity plan

C.

Security roadmap

D.

Annual report to shareholders

Question 141

At what level of governance are individual projects monitored and managed?

Options:

A.

Program

B.

Milestone

C.

Enterprise

D.

Portfolio

Question 142

SCENARIO: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently had a third party conduct an audit of the security program. Internal policies and international standards were used as audit baselines. The audit report was presented to the CISO and a variety of high, medium and low rated gaps were identified.

The CISO has implemented remediation activities. Which of the following is the MOST logical next step?

Options:

A.

Validate the effectiveness of applied controls

B.

Validate security program resource requirements

C.

Report the audit findings and remediation status to business stake holders

D.

Review security procedures to determine if they need modified according to findings

Question 143

The process for management approval of the security certification process which states the risks and mitigation of such risks of a given IT system is called

Options:

A.

Security certification

B.

Security system analysis

C.

Security accreditation

D.

Alignment with business practices and goals.

Question 144

Which of the following best describes an access control process that confirms the identity of the entity seeking

access to a logical or physical area?

Options:

A.

Identification

B.

Authorization

C.

Authentication

D.

Accountability

Question 145

The rate of change in technology increases the importance of:

Options:

A.

Outsourcing the IT functions.

B.

Understanding user requirements.

C.

Hiring personnel with leading edge skills.

D.

Implementing and enforcing good processes.

Question 146

Scenario: An organization has recently appointed a CISO. This is a new role in the organization and it signals the increasing need to address security consistently at the enterprise level. This new CISO, while confident with skills and experience, is constantly on the defensive and is unable to advance the IT security centric agenda.

The CISO has been able to implement a number of technical controls and is able to influence the Information Technology teams but has not been able to influence the rest of the organization. From an organizational perspective, which of the following is the LIKELY reason for this?

Options:

A.

The CISO does not report directly to the CEO of the organization

B.

The CISO reports to the IT organization

C.

The CISO has not implemented a policy management framework

D.

The CISO has not implemented a security awareness program

Question 147

Scenario: Your organization employs single sign-on (user name and password only) as a convenience to your employees to access organizational systems and data. Permission to individual systems and databases is vetted and approved through supervisors and data owners to ensure that only approved personnel can use particular applications or retrieve information. All employees have access to their own human resource information, including the ability to change their bank routing and account information and other personal details through the Employee Self-Service application. All employees have access to the organizational VPN.

The organization wants a more permanent solution to the threat to user credential compromise through phishing. What technical solution would BEST address this issue?

Options:

A.

Professional user education on phishing conducted by a reputable vendor

B.

Multi-factor authentication employing hard tokens

C.

Forcing password changes every 90 days

D.

Decreasing the number of employees with administrator privileges

Question 148

Scenario: Your organization employs single sign-on (user name and password only) as a convenience to your employees to access organizational systems and data. Permission to individual systems and databases is vetted and approved through supervisors and data owners to ensure that only approved personnel can use particular applications or retrieve information. All employees have access to their own human resource information, including the ability to change their bank routing and account information and other personal details through the Employee Self-Service application. All employees have access to the organizational VPN.

Once supervisors and data owners have approved requests, information system administrators will implement

Options:

A.

Technical control(s)

B.

Management control(s)

C.

Policy control(s)

D.

Operational control(s)

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Total 494 questions