CompTIA XK0-006 CompTIA Linux+ V8 Exam Exam Practice Test

In Git-based workflows, especially those used in DevOps environments, it is common for administrators to have uncommitted local changes while needing to retrieve updates from a remote repository. Linux+ V8 emphasizes understanding how to safely manage local modifications during synchronization operations.

The command git stash is specifically designed for this scenario. It temporarily saves (or “stashes”) local changes in a stack-like structure and reverts the working directory to a clean state that matches the current HEAD. This allows the administrator to perform operations such as git pull without conflicts. Later, the stashed changes can be reapplied using git stash apply or git stash pop.

The other options are incorrect. git pull retrieves and merges remote changes but will fail or cause conflicts if local modifications exist. git merge combines branches and does not save uncommitted changes. git fetch downloads remote references but does not address local working directory changes.

Linux+ V8 documentation highlights git stash as a safe and reversible way to protect local work during repository updates. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

DNS client configuration is a foundational Linux networking task covered in Linux+ V8 system management objectives. When an administrator needs to specify the IP address of a DNS server that the system should use for name resolution, the correct file to modify is /etc/resolv.conf.

The /etc/resolv.conf file defines DNS resolver settings, including one or more nameserver entries that specify the IP addresses of DNS servers. Applications and system services rely on this file to resolve hostnames to IP addresses.

The other options are incorrect. /etc/whois.conf configures WHOIS queries. /etc/nsswitch.conf controls the order of name resolution sources but does not define DNS server IP addresses. /etc/dnsmasq.conf configures a local DNS caching service, not the system-wide resolver directly.

Linux+ V8 documentation highlights /etc/resolv.conf as the authoritative DNS client configuration file, though it may be dynamically managed by tools such as NetworkManager or systemd-resolved.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. /etc/resolv.conf.

This scenario is a classic performance troubleshooting case covered under the Troubleshooting domain of the CompTIA Linux+ V8 objectives. The key indicators to analyze are the load average values and the CPU utilization statistics.

The uptime command shows load averages of 8.71, 8.24, and 7.71 over the 1-, 5-, and 15-minute intervals. Load average represents the average number of processes that are either running on the CPU or waiting to run. On a system with 4 CPU cores, a healthy load average would typically be close to or below 4. Load averages consistently near or above 8 indicate that there are significantly more runnable processes than available CPU resources, causing processes to wait and resulting in poor system responsiveness.

The CPU output further confirms this condition. The %idle value is 0, meaning the CPU has no idle time available. The majority of CPU time is spent in user space (65.88%) and system/kernel space (20.54%), indicating heavy computational and kernel activity. While %iowait is present at 5.65%, it is not high enough to suggest that disk I/O is the primary bottleneck.

Option C, high CPU load, best explains the symptoms. High CPU load causes commands to execute slowly because processes are competing for limited CPU time. This directly matches the observed behavior of the system being unresponsive.

The other options are incorrect. High uptime simply indicates how long the system has been running and does not cause performance issues by itself. High latency is a general term and not a specific diagnosis shown by the metrics provided. High I/O wait times would require a significantly higher %iowait value.

According to Linux+ V8 documentation, correlating load averages with CPU core count and utilization is essential for accurate performance diagnosis. Therefore, the correct answer is C. High CPU load.

Comprehensive and Detailed 250 to 350 words of Explanation From Linux+ V8 documents:

Passwordless authentication using SSH key pairs is a foundational security practice covered in the Security domain of CompTIA Linux+ V8. It allows administrators to securely authenticate between systems without transmitting passwords over the network, significantly reducing the risk of credential compromise.

The correct approach involves two essential steps: generating an SSH key pair and installing the public key on the remote system. Option A correctly performs both steps using best-practice commands.

The command ssh-keygen -t rsa generates an RSA public/private key pair in the user’s ~/.ssh/ directory. The private key (id_rsa) remains securely on the local system, while the public key (id_rsa.pub) is intended to be shared. The second part of the command, ssh-copy-id -i ~/.ssh/id_rsa.pub john@server2, securely copies the public key to the remote server’s ~/.ssh/authorized_keys file. This enables key-based authentication for the specified user.

The other options are incorrect or incomplete. Option B uses ssh-keyscan, which is intended for collecting host keys to populate known_hosts, not for user authentication. Option C misuses ssh-agent, which manages keys already generated and does not create or install them. Option D is insecure and incorrect because copying the entire .ssh directory risks exposing private keys and violates security best practices.

Linux+ V8 documentation emphasizes the use of ssh-keygen and ssh-copy-id as the standard, secure method for configuring passwordless SSH access. This approach ensures proper permissions, correct key placement, and minimal risk.

File attribute management is an important system administration skill included in Linux+ V8. In this scenario, the administrator needs to ensure that a file cannot be modified or truncated, while still allowing data to be appended.

The correct solution is chattr +a file, which sets the append-only attribute on the file. When this attribute is enabled, the file’s existing contents cannot be altered or deleted, but new data can be appended to the end of the file. This is commonly used for protecting log files from tampering while still allowing normal logging operations.

The other options are incorrect. setenforce controls SELinux enforcement mode and does not affect file write behavior. setfacl modifies access control lists but does not enforce append-only semantics. chmod +t applies the sticky bit, which is primarily used on directories to prevent users from deleting files they do not own.

Linux+ V8 documentation explicitly references chattr and immutable or append-only attributes as mechanisms for protecting critical files from accidental or malicious modification.

Environment variables are widely used in Linux systems to configure application behavior, and Linux+ V8 emphasizes the distinction between temporary and persistent variables. A variable is persistent only if it is defined in a shell initialization file.

The correct approach is echo "export VAR=value" >> ~/.bashrc. This command appends the variable definition to the user’s .bashrc file, ensuring the variable is set automatically every time the user starts a new shell session. This makes the variable persistent for that specific user.

Options B and C only define variables in the current shell session and are lost when the session ends. Option A incorrectly targets the SSH configuration directory and is not appropriate for defining shell environment variables.

Linux+ V8 documentation highlights .bashrc, .bash_profile, and /etc/profile as correct locations for persistent environment variables. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

File and directory management is a core system administration skill addressed in Linux+ V8. When an administrator needs to delete a directory that contains files or subdirectories, a recursive deletion is required.

The correct command is rm -r /home/user1/data. The rm command removes files, and the -r (recursive) option allows it to delete directories and all of their contents, including nested files and subdirectories. This is the standard and correct method for removing non-empty directories.

The other options are incorrect. rmdir -p only removes empty directories and will fail if the directory contains files. ln -d is used to create directory hard links, not remove directories. cut -d is a text-processing command unrelated to filesystem operations.

Linux+ V8 documentation stresses caution when using rm -r, as it permanently deletes data without recovery unless backups exist. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

This scenario represents a classic DNS troubleshooting situation covered in the Troubleshooting domain of the CompTIA Linux+ V8 objectives. Although the DNS zone file has been updated correctly on the BIND server, the system continues to resolve the domain name to an outdated IP address. This behavior strongly indicates DNS caching rather than a configuration error in the zone file itself.

Modern Linux systems that use systemd-resolved cache DNS responses locally to improve performance and reduce external queries. Even after a DNS record is updated on the authoritative server, cached results may persist until the cache expires or is manually cleared. The nslookup output showing a non-authoritative answer further confirms that the response is being served from a cache rather than directly from the updated zone data.

The correct solution is to flush the local DNS cache so the system can retrieve the updated record from the DNS server. The command resolvectl flush-caches clears all cached DNS entries maintained by systemd-resolved, forcing fresh queries to authoritative name servers. This aligns directly with Linux+ V8 documentation for resolving name resolution inconsistencies caused by stale cache entries.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons. systemd-resolve query performs a DNS lookup but does not clear cached entries. systemd-resolve status only displays resolver configuration and statistics. service nslcd reload reloads the Name Service LDAP daemon and is unrelated to DNS resolution or caching.

Linux+ V8 emphasizes identifying whether issues originate from services, configuration, or cached data. In this case, flushing the DNS cache is the correct and least disruptive corrective action.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. resolvectl flush-caches.

Part 1 – Begin the recovery process

Answer:

vgcfgrestore vg01 -f /etc/lvm/archive/vg01_00001-810050352.vg

Part 2 – Continue the recovery process

Answer:

lvchange -ay /dev/vg01/lv01

Part 3 – Complete recovery and access data

Answer:

mount /dev/vg01/lv01 /important_data

This performance-based question tests LVM recovery, a critical System Management skill in CompTIA Linux+ V8. The scenario indicates that a logical volume was removed, but the underlying physical volume and volume group metadata still exist.

???? Part 1: Restoring Volume Group Metadata

The first screenshot shows that:

Physical volumes (pvdisplay, pvs) still exist

The logical volume is missing

/etc/lvm/archive/ contains archived VG metadata

Linux automatically stores backups of LVM metadata in /etc/lvm/archive whenever changes are made. The correct first step is to restore the volume group metadata using:

vgcfgrestore vg01 -f /etc/lvm/archive/vg01_00001-810050352.vg

This restores the logical volume definitions but does not activate them yet.

This is the only correct starting point in Linux+ V8 recovery workflows.

???? Part 2: Activating the Logical Volume

After metadata restoration:

The LV exists but is inactive

blkid shows the LV as TYPE="LVM2_member"

The logical volume must be activated before it can be mounted:

lvchange -ay /dev/vg01/lv01

This makes the LV available under /dev/vg01/lv01.

Linux+ explicitly requires LV activation after recovery.

???? Part 3: Accessing the Data

The final output shows:

The filesystem type is xfs

The logical volume is now visible

Since there is no indication of filesystem corruption, no repair is required.

The correct final step is to mount the filesystem:

mount /dev/vg01/lv01 /important_data

This restores full access to the underlying data.

User account information is centrally stored in the system’s account databases, and Linux+ V8 emphasizes the use of standard tools to query this data safely and consistently.

The getent passwd accounting command retrieves the user’s entry from the passwd database, which may be sourced from local files or network services such as LDAP. This entry includes the username, user ID (UID), group ID (GID), home directory, and assigned login shell. Therefore, option A provides all the requested information in a single command.

Option B, id accounting, displays the UID and group memberships but does not show the home directory or assigned shell. Option C is incorrect because /etc/shadow contains password hashes and expiration data, not shell or home directory information. Option D, who accounting, only shows login sessions and does not provide account configuration details.

Linux+ V8 documentation highlights getent passwd as the preferred method for retrieving comprehensive user account information because it works across different authentication backends.

Thus, the correct answer is A.

System boot performance analysis is an important system management task included in Linux+ V8. When administrators need to determine how long services take to start during boot, systemd analysis tools are required.

The correct command is systemd-analyze blame. This command lists all systemd services and shows how long each one took to initialize during the boot process. It is commonly used to identify slow-starting services that may impact system startup performance, including NetworkManager.

The other options are incorrect. resolvectl is used for DNS resolution management and provides no service timing information. journalctl can display logs but does not provide a clear, summarized service startup timing report. systemctl daemon-reload only reloads systemd unit files and does not perform analysis.

Linux+ V8 documentation explicitly references systemd-analyze blame as the correct tool for diagnosing service startup delays. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Comprehensive and Detailed 250 to 350 words of Explanation From Linux+ V8 documents:

File extraction and backup restoration are fundamental System Management tasks covered in CompTIA Linux+ V8. In this scenario, the administrator must extract the contents of an existing backup file into a target directory.

The correct command is option B, which uses cpio in extract mode. The command changes into the destination directory (/var/www/html/) using pushd, extracts the archive contents with cpio -idv, and then returns to the original directory with popd. This ensures that files are restored into the correct location without modifying paths inside the archive.

The cpio utility is commonly used for backups created with cpio -o and supports reading archive data from standard input. Linux+ V8 documentation includes cpio as a valid and supported archive format for backup and restore operations.

The other options are incorrect. Option A incorrectly assumes the backup is a gzip-compressed tar archive. Option C creates a new archive instead of extracting one. Option D assumes the file is a ZIP archive, which is not indicated by the .bkp extension.

Linux+ V8 emphasizes using the correct tool based on the archive format and restoring files into the intended directory. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

This scenario involves shared directory collaboration, which is a common system management task covered in the CompTIA Linux+ V8 objectives. The key issue is that users can create files in the shared directory, but other users in the same group cannot modify those files. This behavior is directly related to group ownership inheritance.

By default, when a user creates a file or directory, it is owned by the user and assigned the user’s primary group, not necessarily the group of the parent directory. As shown in the output, files inside /share are owned by different groups (student, student2, student3), which prevents other group members from modifying them, even though the parent directory is group-writable.

The correct solution is to set the setgid (set group ID) bit on the shared directory, making option D correct. When the setgid bit is applied to a directory, all newly created files and subdirectories inherit the group ownership of the parent directory, rather than the creator’s primary group. This ensures consistent group ownership and allows all members of the shared group to collaborate effectively.

The other options are incorrect or poor practice. Option A (setuid) is intended for executables, not directories. Option B requires constant manual intervention and does not scale. Option C weakens security by granting write access to all users, violating the principle of least privilege.

Linux+ V8 documentation explicitly recommends using the setgid bit on shared directories to manage collaborative access securely and efficiently.

This scenario involves Linux file attributes and falls under the System Management domain of the CompTIA Linux+ V8 objectives. Although the administrator is operating as the root user, the system prevents the file from being modified. This behavior indicates that standard UNIX permissions are not the root cause of the problem.

The critical clue is provided by the lsattr /etc/resolv.conf output, which shows the immutable (i) attribute set on the file. When a file is marked immutable, it cannot be modified, deleted, renamed, or written to by any user, including root. This restriction overrides normal file permissions and ownership settings.

The chattr command is used to modify extended file attributes on Linux filesystems such as ext4. The option -i specifically removes the immutable attribute, restoring the file’s ability to be edited. Therefore, running chattr -i /etc/resolv.conf allows the administrator to open and modify the file successfully.

The other options do not resolve the issue. chown root changes file ownership, but the file is already owned by root. chmod 750 modifies permission bits, but permissions are ignored when the immutable attribute is set. chgrp root changes the group ownership, which also has no effect when immutability is enforced.

Linux+ V8 documentation highlights immutable files as a security and stability feature, commonly used to protect critical configuration files from accidental or unauthorized changes. Administrators must explicitly remove this attribute before making modifications.

Therefore, the correct command to allow editing the file is B. chattr -i /etc/resolv.conf.

Comprehensive and Detailed 250 to 350 words of Explanation From Linux+ V8 documents:

Live migration is a virtualization feature that allows a running virtual machine to be moved from one host to another with minimal or no downtime. This topic falls under System Management in the CompTIA Linux+ V8 objectives, particularly in the areas of virtualization and resource management.

For a live migration to succeed, the CPU architecture must match between the source and destination hosts. This is critical because the running virtual machine’s CPU state, instruction set, and registers must be compatible with the destination system. Migrating between different CPU architectures (for example, x86_64 to ARM) is not supported and would cause the virtual machine to fail. Therefore, option D is required.

Additionally, the destination host must have sufficient available memory to accommodate the virtual machine being migrated. During live migration, the memory contents of the running VM are copied from the source host to the destination host while the VM continues to run. If enough memory is not available, the migration cannot complete successfully. This makes option E mandatory.

The other options are not strict requirements. USB ports do not need to match for live migration. Network speed may affect migration performance but does not need to be identical. Available swap space is not directly required for migration. Disk storage paths do not need to match as long as shared storage or compatible storage access is available.

Linux+ V8 documentation emphasizes CPU compatibility and memory availability as core prerequisites for live migration. Therefore, the correct answers are D and E.

This scenario falls under the Security domain of the CompTIA Linux+ V8 objectives and focuses on system hardening and service minimization. The Nmap scan output reveals that port 23 (Telnet) is open on the system, which represents a significant security risk.

Telnet is an insecure, legacy protocol that transmits authentication credentials and session data in plaintext, making it vulnerable to interception through packet sniffing or man-in-the-middle attacks. Linux+ V8 documentation explicitly emphasizes the principle of least functionality, which states that unnecessary or insecure services should be disabled and removed entirely rather than merely restricted.

Option D, disabling and removing the Telnet service on the server, is the best and most secure solution. This action eliminates the vulnerable service completely, ensuring that it cannot be exploited internally or externally. In secure Linux environments, Telnet should be replaced with SSH, which provides encrypted communication and strong authentication mechanisms.

Option A, blocking port 23 with a firewall, reduces exposure but does not eliminate the underlying risk. If the firewall rules are misconfigured or bypassed, the Telnet service would still be available. Linux+ V8 best practices recommend removing insecure services rather than relying solely on perimeter controls.

Option B is unrelated, as changing passwords does not address the risk of plaintext credential transmission. Option C is incorrect because closing ports at the network switch level is not an appropriate or scalable solution for host-level service hardening and does not address internal access risks.

Linux+ V8 documentation consistently highlights service auditing, port scanning, and removal of insecure protocols as essential system hardening steps. Therefore, the most effective and secure remediation is to disable and remove the Telnet service.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The lsscsi command is used to list information about SCSI devices (including storage arrays) that are attached to the system. This is critical when integrating a new storage array because it allows the administrator to verify that the operating system detects the new device at the SCSI layer, which is the underlying interface for most enterprise storage solutions. lsscsi outputs a list of recognized SCSI devices, their device nodes, and associated information.

Other options:

B. lsusb: Lists USB devices, not storage arrays on SCSI/SATA/SAS.

C. lsipc: Displays information on IPC (inter-process communication) facilities, unrelated to hardware detection.

D. lshw: Lists hardware details and can show storage, but lsscsi is specifically designed for SCSI device detection and is the most direct method for this task.

Security compliance and vulnerability management are critical components of Linux system administration, and CompTIA Linux+ V8 places strong emphasis on automated security assessment tools. OpenSCAP is specifically designed to address these requirements.

OpenSCAP is an open-source framework that implements the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP), a set of standards used for automated vulnerability scanning, configuration compliance checking, and security auditing. It allows administrators to assess Linux systems against established security baselines such as CIS benchmarks, DISA STIGs, and organizational security policies. This makes OpenSCAP the most appropriate tool for automating both compliance and vulnerability management.

The other options serve different security-related purposes but do not fulfill the automation requirement. SELinux is a mandatory access control system that enforces security policies at runtime but does not perform compliance scanning or vulnerability assessments. Nmap is a network scanning and discovery tool used to identify open ports and services, not compliance automation. AIDE (Advanced Intrusion Detection Environment) is a file integrity monitoring tool that detects unauthorized file changes but does not evaluate overall system compliance.

Linux+ V8 documentation highlights OpenSCAP as a tool used to automate security audits, generate compliance reports, and integrate with configuration management workflows. Its ability to standardize security checks across multiple systems makes it essential in enterprise and regulated environments.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. OpenSCAP.

In Linux system management, controlling processes and job execution is a fundamental skill covered extensively in the CompTIA Linux+ V8 objectives. The command shown combines two important concepts: nohup and background execution using &.

The nohup command is used to run a process immune to hangup signals, meaning the process continues running even after the user logs out or the terminal session ends. By default, nohup detaches the process from the controlling terminal and redirects standard output and standard error to a file named nohup.out. When the ampersand (&) is appended, the process is immediately placed into the background, allowing the shell prompt to return without waiting for the command to finish.

Linux provides job control mechanisms that allow users to manage background and foreground processes within a shell session. The fg command is specifically designed to bring a background job into the foreground and reattach it to the current terminal. Once a job is in the foreground, it can receive input from the terminal and display output directly, and it can also be interrupted using signals such as Ctrl+C.

The other answer choices do not fulfill this requirement. The renice command is used to change the scheduling priority of a running process but does not affect terminal attachment. The jobs command only lists background and stopped jobs associated with the current shell and does not modify their execution state. The exec command replaces the current shell process with a new process, which is unrelated to resuming or attaching background jobs.

According to Linux+ V8 documentation and job control best practices, the correct command to attach a background process to the current terminal is fg. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

Linux+ V8 emphasizes security, compliance, and governance when introducing new automation technologies, including AI. Before using AI tools to optimize commercial source code, the developer must ensure that such usage complies with organizational policies.

Option B is correct because verifying company policy is the first and most critical step. AI tools may introduce risks such as intellectual property leakage, licensing conflicts, or regulatory violations. Many organizations restrict how source code can be shared with external systems, including AI services.

The other options are premature. Selecting tools or deploying models should only occur after policy approval. Linux+ V8 highlights governance-first approaches when adopting automation technologies.

Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Comprehensive and Detailed 250 to 350 words of Explanation From Linux+ V8 documents:

Container lifecycle management is a core topic within the Automation, Orchestration, and Scripting domain of CompTIA Linux+ V8. Administrators must understand the difference between creating containers, starting containers, and executing commands within running containers.

The correct command is docker run -it app-01-image. The docker run command performs three actions at once: it creates a new container from the specified image, starts the container, and optionally attaches the administrator’s terminal to it. The -i option keeps standard input open, while the -t option allocates a pseudo-terminal (TTY). Together, these options allow the administrator to interactively connect to the container immediately after it is created.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons. docker start is used only to start an existing stopped container and does not create a new container from an image. Additionally, -t and -d are not valid options for attaching an interactive terminal during container startup. docker build is used to build a Docker image from a Dockerfile and cannot be used to create or connect to a container. docker exec is used to run commands inside an already running container and therefore cannot be used to create a container.

Linux+ V8 documentation emphasizes that docker run is the primary command used when administrators want to instantiate containers from images and interact with them. This command is commonly used during testing, development, and troubleshooting workflows.

In the context of Linux automation and orchestration, playbooks are most commonly associated with configuration management tools such as Ansible, which is explicitly referenced in the CompTIA Linux+ V8 objectives. Playbooks are written in YAML and are designed to define a series of tasks, configurations, and desired system states that should be applied to one or more Linux systems in a repeatable and automated manner.

A primary use case for playbooks is application deployment and system configuration automation. Playbooks allow administrators to specify tasks such as installing packages, configuring services, managing users, setting permissions, deploying application files, and starting or enabling services. This aligns directly with option A, which accurately describes playbooks as a method to provide a set of tasks and configurations required to deploy an application consistently across environments.

The remaining options are not accurate representations of playbook functionality. Option B refers to version control implementation, which is handled by tools like Git and is not the purpose of playbooks themselves, although playbooks may be stored in version control systems. Option C describes container security information, which is typically managed through container runtime configurations, secrets, or security policies rather than playbooks. Option D refers to storage volume information for a pod, which is specific to Kubernetes manifests and not a general Linux playbook use case.

According to Linux+ V8 documentation, automation tools and playbooks help reduce human error, improve consistency, and support Infrastructure as Code (IaC) practices. Playbooks are a key mechanism for orchestrating multi-step operations across multiple systems, making them essential for modern Linux system administration.

Therefore, the correct answer is A, as it best describes the practical and documented use case for playbooks in a Linux system.

Archive Tab – Create the archive from Ann’s home directory

Correct Command:

tar -cvf /tmp/ann.tar -C /home/ ann

Extract Tab – Extract the archive into Joe’s home directory

Correct Command:

tar -xvf /tmp/ann.tar -C /home/ joe

This performance-based question tests file archiving and restoration using tar, a core System Management skill in the CompTIA Linux+ V8 objectives. The task requires preserving Ann’s files and placing them correctly into Joe’s home directory.

???? Archive Phase Explanation

The goal of the first step is to archive Ann’s entire home directory without embedding the full path (/home/ann) inside the archive. This is accomplished using the -C option.

Command breakdown:

tar → archive utility

-c → create an archive

-v → verbose output (optional but allowed)

-f /tmp/ann.tar → specifies the archive file

-C /home/ → changes directory before archiving

ann → archives the ann directory only

This results in a clean archive containing Ann’s files without absolute paths, which is best practice and explicitly covered in Linux+ V8 documentation.

???? Extract Phase Explanation

The second step extracts the archived files into Joe’s home directory.

Command breakdown:

-x → extract

-v → verbose

-f /tmp/ann.tar → specifies the archive

-C /home/joe → extracts files directly into Joe’s home directory

This ensures Joe receives Ann’s files correctly under /home/joe/ann or directly under /home/joe depending on post-extraction handling, which matches Linux+ expectations for administrative user transitions.

Network configuration changes can cause immediate loss of connectivity if applied incorrectly. Linux+ V8 emphasizes safe configuration practices, particularly when managing remote systems.

The netplan try command applies network configuration changes temporarily and prompts the administrator to confirm them within a timeout period. If the administrator does not confirm, Netplan automatically rolls back to the previous working configuration. This prevents accidental outages caused by misconfigured network settings.

The netplan apply command makes changes permanent immediately and does not provide rollback protection. The other options are not valid Netplan commands.

Linux+ V8 documentation explicitly references netplan try as a safe testing mechanism. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Version control rollback operations are a core DevOps skill covered in the Linux+ V8 objectives. When changes in a local Git repository break an application and must be reverted, the administrator must choose a command that directly undoes those changes.

The command git reset is the most appropriate option in this scenario. It allows the engineer to move the current branch pointer (HEAD) to a previous commit, effectively discarding or undoing local changes. Depending on the reset mode (--soft, --mixed, or --hard), the engineer can control whether changes are preserved in the staging area or working directory. This flexibility makes git reset the primary tool for reverting problematic local changes.

The other options are not suitable. git pull fetches and merges changes from a remote repository and does not revert local modifications. git rebase rewrites commit history and is used to reapply commits on top of another base, not to undo broken changes. git stash temporarily saves uncommitted changes for later use but does not revert the repository to a stable state.

Linux+ V8 documentation emphasizes that git reset is commonly used during local development when changes need to be undone quickly before being shared with others. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Filesystem unmount failures are common troubleshooting scenarios covered in Linux+ V8. When the error “target is busy” appears, it means one or more processes are actively using files or directories within the mount point.

The correct diagnostic command is lsof | grep /data1. The lsof (list open files) utility displays all open files and the processes using them. Filtering the output with grep /data1 identifies exactly which processes are holding file descriptors on the filesystem, preventing it from being unmounted.

The other options are incorrect. ps -f displays process information but does not show open file usage. du -sh calculates disk usage and does not identify active processes. top monitors system performance but cannot pinpoint filesystem locks.

Linux+ V8 documentation emphasizes using lsof or fuser to identify resource locks before unmounting filesystems. Therefore, the correct answer is D.