CompTIA SY0-701 CompTIA Security+ Exam 2025 Exam Practice Test

 Automation is the best way to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified. Automation is the process of using software, hardware, or other tools to perform tasks that would otherwise require human intervention or manual effort. Automation can help to improve the efficiency, accuracy, and consistency of security operations, as well as reduce human errors and costs. Automation can be used to monitor, audit, and enforce security settings on servers, such as firewall rules, encryption keys, access controls, patch levels, and configuration files. Automation can also alert security personnel of any changes or anomalies that may indicate a security breach or compromise12.

The other options are not the best ways to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified:

Compliance checklist: This is a document that lists the security requirements, standards, or best practices that an organization must follow or adhere to. A compliance checklist can help to ensure that the security settings on servers are aligned with the organizational policies and regulations, but it does not automatically detect or report any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis3.

Attestation: This is a process of verifying or confirming the validity or accuracy of a statement, claim, or fact. Attestation can be used to provide assurance or evidence that the security settings on servers are correct and authorized, but it does not continuously monitor or audit any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis4.

Manual audit: This is a process of examining or reviewing the security settings on servers by human inspectors or auditors. A manual audit can help to identify and correct any security issues or discrepancies on servers, but it is time-consuming, labor-intensive, and prone to human errors. A manual audit may not be feasible or practical to perform on a daily basis.

References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1022: Automation and Scripting – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 5.1, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 974: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 98. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99.

A false negative occurs when a security control or scanning tool fails to detect a vulnerability that actually exists. In vulnerability scanning, this means the scan reports a system as secure even though it is vulnerable. Therefore, a result that shows no known vulnerability is an example of a false negative if a vulnerability is present but undetected.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 explains that false negatives are particularly dangerous because they provide a false sense of security, potentially leaving systems exposed to exploitation. Causes of false negatives include outdated vulnerability signatures, misconfigured scanners, credentialed scan failures, or unsupported legacy systems.

Option A describes a false positive, where a vulnerability is reported but does not exist. Option B may indicate an outdated scan result, not necessarily a false negative. Option D is incorrect because zero-day vulnerabilities do not have known remediations and are typically not detected by signature-based scanners.

Thus, the correct example of a false negative is C: A result that shows no known vulnerability.

A Host-Based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) provides preventive and detective security controls. Security+ SY0-701 explains that:

As a preventive control (B), HIPS actively blocks malicious behavior, stops unauthorized changes, prevents exploit execution, and enforces host-level protection. It prevents malware, intrusions, and unauthorized actions before they occur.

As a detective control (F), HIPS monitors host activity, detects suspicious patterns, logs events, and alerts administrators when threats are observed.

Directive controls (A) involve policy, not technical tools. Physical controls (C) include barriers and locks. Corrective controls (D) restore systems after incidents. Compensating controls (E) are alternatives when primary controls aren't available.

Therefore, the correct answers are B (Preventive) and F (Detective).

A cold site is a backup facility that provides basic power, space, and environmental controls but does not include hardware or preconfigured systems. It is the organization’s responsibility to ensure the site has adequate storage, servers, and equipment staged or available for rapid procurement.

If the cold site “does not have enough storage and computers,” the cause is a failure in capacity planning (A). CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 highlights the need for organizations to determine:

Required compute capacity

Storage needs

Network bandwidth

Expected recovery workload

Hardware replacement timelines

Load balancing (B) distributes traffic; it has nothing to do with cold-site readiness. Backups (C) store data, not physical resources. Platform diversity (D) refers to using multiple technologies to reduce systemic risk.

The issue is specifically the lack of resources, which directly reflects inadequate capacity planning. Therefore, A is the correct answer.

Security of architecture is the process of designing and implementing a secure infrastructure that meets the business objectives and requirements. Security of architecture should be considered first when migrating to an off-premises solution, such as cloud computing, because it can help to identify and mitigate the potential risks and challenges associated with the migration, such as data security, compliance, availability, scalability, and performance. Security of architecture is different from security of cloud providers, which is the process of evaluating and selecting a trustworthy and reliable cloud service provider that can meet the security and operational needs of the business. Security of architecture is also different from cost of implementation, which is the amount of money required to migrate and maintain the infrastructure in the cloud. Security of architecture is also different from ability of engineers, which is the level of skill and knowledge of the IT staff who are responsible for the migration and management of the cloud infrastructure. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 3491

Detailed Explanation:

Time-of-day restrictions limit access to corporate systems based on predefined schedules. This ensures employees can only access resources during their assigned work hours. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Access Control Models"​​.

Attempting to enter an unauthorized area using an access badge during a penetration test is an example of a physical test. This type of test evaluates the effectiveness of physical security controls, such as access badges, security guards, and locks, in preventing unauthorized access to restricted areas.

Defensive and offensive testing typically refer to digital or network-based penetration testing strategies.

Passive testing involves observing or monitoring but not interacting with the environment​​.

Abug bounty programencourages ethical hackers tofind and report vulnerabilities, helping organizations discover security flaws before they are exploited by malicious actors. Unlikevulnerability scans, bug bounty programs usereal-world testing techniques.

When multiple Wireless Access Points (WAPs) are using similar frequencies with high power settings, it can cause channel overlap, leading to interference and connectivity issues. This is likely the reason why mobile users are unable to access the internet in the lobby. Evaluating and adjusting the channel settings on the WAPs to avoid overlap is crucial to resolving the connectivity problems.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly the domain on Wireless and Mobile Security, which covers WLAN deployment considerations​​.

A qualitative risk analysis assigns descriptive ratings such as high, medium, or low to risks based on their likelihood and impact without numerical calculations.

Including MTTR/MTBF (A) and ALE/ARO (D) are quantitative methods using metrics. Risk registers (B) document risks but don’t specify analysis type.

Qualitative and quantitative risk methods are fundamental in SY0-701 risk management【6:Chapter 17†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Monitoring outbound traffic is essential for detecting unauthorized data exfiltration from a system. A new vulnerability that allows malware to move data unauthorizedly would typically attempt to send this data out of the network. By monitoring outbound traffic, security tools can detect unusual data transfers, trigger alerts, and help prevent the exfiltration of sensitive information.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Threat Detection and Response​.

Bug bounty programs invite vetted external researchers to report software vulnerabilities in exchange for rewards. According to Security+ SY0-701, two major benefits are:

(1) Reduction in the number of zero-day vulnerabilities (B) – Ethical hackers can discover unknown vulnerabilities before malicious attackers do. These vulnerabilities are often zero-days because they are unknown to vendors at the time of discovery. Bug bounty programs surface these issues early, helping organizations mitigate severe risks proactively.

(2) Quicker discovery of vulnerabilities (E) – A distributed network of global security researchers can identify vulnerabilities far faster than an internal team alone. This accelerates detection, increases coverage, and lowers attacker dwell time.

Option A (Transference of risk) is incorrect because bug bounties do not transfer risk—they help identify vulnerabilities. C (Security awareness) relates to internal training, not bug bounties. D (Reduced cost) is misleading; bug bounties can be expensive depending on payout structure. F (Patch management) does not directly improve through bug bounty programs.

Therefore, the correct benefits are B and E.

OCSP stands for Online Certificate Status Protocol. It is a protocol that allows applications to check the revocation status of a certificate in real-time. It works by sending a query to an OCSP responder, which is a server that maintains a database of revoked certificates. The OCSP responder returns a response that indicates whether the certificate is valid, revoked, or unknown. OCSP is faster and more efficient than downloading and parsing Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs), which are large files that contain the serial numbers of all revoked certificates issued by a Certificate Authority (CA). References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 337 1

A staging environment is a controlled setting that closely mirrors the production environment but uses a subset of customer data. It is used to test major system upgrades, assess their impact, and demonstrate new features before they are rolled out to the live production environment. This ensures that any issues can be identified and addressed in a safe environment before affecting end-users.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of secure system development and testing environments​​.

Full Disk Encryption (FDE) is a data protection strategy that secures data at rest. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 defines data at rest as information stored on physical or virtual media, such as hard drives, SSDs, or removable storage. FDE encrypts the entire disk, ensuring that all files—including operating system files, user data, temporary files, and swap space—are unreadable without proper authentication.

The primary purpose of FDE is to protect data if a device is lost, stolen, or accessed without authorization. Even if an attacker removes the hard drive and attempts to read it externally, the encrypted data remains inaccessible.

Masking (A) hides sensitive fields but does not encrypt storage. Data in transit (B) applies to data moving across networks. Obfuscation (C) makes data harder to understand but is not cryptographically secure. Data sovereignty (E) relates to legal jurisdiction of data storage.

Therefore, deploying FDE directly implements protection for data at rest, making D the correct answer.

Application allow listing is the most effective technique to prevent bloatware, unauthorized software, or unnecessary applications from running on devices. Allow lists work by permitting only pre-approved, trusted applications to execute, blocking everything else by default. This is a recommended best practice in Security+ SY0-701 for reducing attack surface, preventing malware, and maintaining lean, hardened system images.

Bloatware often comes pre-installed on devices or is unintentionally installed by users. An allow list ensures only authorized applications required for business functions can run, thereby eliminating bloatware risks.

Disabling ports/protocols (A) hardens network access but does not prevent software installation. Default password changes (C) improve authentication security but are unrelated to software control. Access control permissions (D) restrict who can access what but do not prevent installation of unnecessary apps.

Thus, the correct answer is B: Application allow list.

The IT manager is creating a Business Continuity Plan (BCP). A BCP describes how an organization will continue to operate during and after a disaster or global incident. It ensures that critical business functions remain operational despite adverse conditions, with a focus on minimizing downtime and maintaining essential services.

Physical security relates to protecting physical assets.

Change management ensures changes in IT systems are introduced smoothly, without disrupting operations.

Disaster recovery is a subset of business continuity but focuses specifically on recovering from IT-related incidents​​.

Many IoT devices connect to the network via wireless access points. Reviewing these logs would reveal when the IoT device first connected, as well as any suspicious or anomalous traffic patterns associated with the exploit’s initiation.

A non-disclosure agreement (NDA) restricts employees from sharing proprietary or confidential information when they leave the company. Legal consequences may result from violating an NDA.

Jailbreaking is a primary security concern for a company setting up a BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) program. Jailbreaking is the process of removing the manufacturer’s or the carrier’s restrictions on a device, such as a smartphone or a tablet, to gain root access and install unauthorized or custom software. Jailbreaking can compromise the security of the device and the data stored on it, as well as expose it to malware, viruses, or hacking. Jailbreaking can also violate the warranty and the terms of service of the device, and make it incompatible with the company’s security policies and standards. Therefore, a company setting up a BYOD program should prohibit jailbreaking and enforce device compliance and encryption. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 76. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.4, page 11.

The scenario describes a large number of unsolicited emails sent to multiple users. This is characteristic of phishing, which SY0-701 defines as mass-distributed fraudulent messages designed to trick recipients into clicking malicious links, downloading malware, or divulging sensitive information.

Phishing campaigns typically involve:

High volume

Non-targeted messaging

Use of spoofed addresses or fake content

Delivery through email systems

A watering-hole attack (A) compromises a legitimate website frequented by targets—not email. Typosquatting (B) relies on malicious websites with deceptive URLs. Business Email Compromise (C) involves highly targeted spear-phishing or impersonation attacks, not bulk email blasts.

Because this incident involves “hundreds of messages” delivered to “multiple users,” it clearly matches the characteristics of a phishing attack, not a sophisticated targeted attack type.

Phishing is the most common form of social engineering and is emphasized heavily in the Security+ exam due to its frequency and effectiveness.

The lessons learned phase of an incident response process involves reviewing the incident and generating reports. This phase helps identify what went well, what needs improvement, and what changes should be made to prevent future incidents. Documentation and reporting are essential parts of this phase to ensure that the findings are recorded and used for future planning.

Recovery focuses on restoring services and normal operations.

Preparation involves creating plans and policies for potential incidents, not reporting.

Containment deals with isolating and mitigating the effects of the incident, not generating reports​​.

Detailed Explanation:Privileged access management (PAM) solutions effectively mitigate pass-the-hash attacks by enforcing least privilege and session management for administrative accounts. These tools restrict how and when credentials can be accessed, thereby reducing attack surfaces. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 2: Vulnerabilities, Section: "Mitigation Techniques"​​.

Secure Access Service Edge (SASE) is the technology best suited for preventing remote users from accessing malicious URLs. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 framework, SASE integrates cloud-native security capabilities such as DNS filtering, secure web gateways, CASB, and URL categorization, all delivered inline. This means every URL request from a remote user is checked in real time for reputation, content, and category before access is granted.

This solution is specifically designed for remote workforces because security enforcement happens in the cloud, regardless of user location—eliminating reliance on on-premise proxies or VPN routing. SASE also enables consistent policy application and real-time enforcement across distributed networks.

A VPN (A) only encrypts traffic; it does not perform URL reputation checks. IDS (C) detects malicious activity but does not block URL access. SD-WAN (D) optimizes WAN routing but is not focused on content filtering or URL reputation.

Therefore, SASE is the correct and most effective solution for inline URL inspection and preventing remote users from reaching malicious sites.

The SMS OTP (One-Time Password) method is more vulnerable to interception compared to TOTP (Time-based One-Time Password) because SMS messages can be intercepted through various attack vectors like SIM swapping or SMS phishing. TOTP, on the other hand, generates codes directly on the device and does not rely on a communication channel like SMS, making it less susceptible to interception.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of identity and access management​​.

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Containers are a method of virtualization that allows applications to run in isolated environments with their own dependencies, libraries, and configurations. Containers are best suited for constantly changing environments because they are lightweight, portable, scalable, and easy to deploy and update. Containers can also support microservices architectures, which enable faster and more frequent delivery of software features. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security, page 512 1

A logic bomb is a malicious code segment hidden inside legitimate software that triggers under specific conditions (dates, system states, user actions). Because logic bombs require direct access to source code or the development environment, the most likely attacker is a trusted insider—especially a disgruntled developer or administrator with the ability to modify internal applications.

Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes that insider threats have:

Elevated access

Knowledge of internal systems

Ability to manipulate production code

Motivation driven by revenge, termination, or personal grievances

These factors make insiders uniquely capable of embedding logic bombs into internally-developed applications.

Nation-state actors (A) typically target critical infrastructure or advanced espionage, not internal business apps. Organized crime groups (C) seek financial gain and generally do not have internal code access. Hacktivists (D) focus on ideological disruption, typically through external attacks, not internal code manipulation.

Thus, the threat actor most likely to plant a logic bomb in internal software is B: Trusted insider.

The logs show an SQL injection attack. The first step is to verify if new accounts have been created, indicating a successful injection.

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Running daily vulnerability scans on all corporate endpoints is primarily done to track the status of patching installations. These scans help identify any missing security patches orvulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. Keeping the endpoints up-to-date with the latest patches is critical for maintaining security.

Finding shadow IT cloud deployments and monitoring hardware inventory are better achieved through other tools.

Hunting for active attackers would typically involve more real-time threat detection methods than daily vulnerability scans​​.

Encryption is a method of transforming data in a way that makes it unreadable without a secret key necessary to decrypt the data back into plaintext. Encryption is one of the most common and effective ways to protect data at rest, as it prevents unauthorized access, modification, or theft of the data. Encryption can be applied to different types of data at rest, such as block storage, object storage, databases, archives, and so on. Hashing, tokenization, and segmentation are not methods of rendering data at rest unreadable, but rather of protecting data in other ways. Hashing is a one-way function that generates a fixed-length output, called a hash or digest, from an input, such that the input cannot be recovered from the output. Hashing is used to verify the integrity and authenticity of data, but not to encrypt it. Tokenization is a process that replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive substitutes, called tokens, that have no meaning or value on their own. Tokenization is used to reduce the exposure and compliance scope of sensitive data, but not to encrypt it. Segmentation is a technique that divides a network or a system into smaller, isolated units, called segments, that have different levels of access and security. Segmentation is used to limit the attack surface and contain the impact of a breach, but not to encrypt data at rest. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, pages 77-781; Protecting data at rest - Security Pillar3

A honeypot is a decoy system or account designed to attract attackers and detect malicious activity. Creating a user account as a trap fits this definition.

Honeytoken (A) is a decoy data element, honeynet (B) is a network of honeypots, and honeyfile (D) is a decoy file.

Honeypots are important tools in Security Operations and incident detection【6:Chapter 14†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

Threat hunting is the process of proactively searching for signs of malicious activity or compromise in a network, rather than waiting for alerts or indicators of compromise (IOCs) to appear. Threat hunting can help identify new tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by malicious actors, as well as uncover hidden or stealthy threats that may have evaded detection by security tools. Threat hunting requires a combination of skills, tools, and methodologies, such as hypothesis generation, data collection and analysis, threat intelligence, and incident response. Threat hunting can also help improve the security posture of an organization by providing feedback and recommendations for security improvements. References = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.1: Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators of malicious activity. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 4: Threat Detection and Response, page 153. Threat Hunting – SY0-701 CompTIA Security+ : 4.1, Video 3:18. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 3.

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) allows a company to host desktop environments on a centralized server. Offshore teams can access these virtual desktops remotely, ensuring that sensitive data stays within the company’s infrastructure without the need to provide physical devices to the team. This solution is ideal for maintaining data security while enabling remote work, as all data processing occurs on the company's secure servers.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: VDI is discussed as a method for securely managing remote access to company resources without compromising data security​​.

Sanitization is the process of thoroughly removing or wiping all data from devices before disposal or donation to prevent sensitive information from being recovered or leaked.

To enhance security for a system running an end-of-life operating system, placing the system in an isolated VLAN is the most effective approach. By isolating the system from the rest of the network, you can limit its exposure to potential threats while maintaining its functionality. This segmentation helps protect the rest of the network from any vulnerabilities in the outdated system.

Installing HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) can help detect intrusions but won't mitigate the risks posed by an unsupported OS.

Decommissioning may not be feasible if the system is critical.

Encrypting the system's hard drive protects data at rest but doesn't address vulnerabilities from an outdated OS​​​.

Detailed Explanation:

Sanctions imposed for non-compliance can include fines, legal actions, and loss of business licenses. These pose a significant financial and reputational risk to organizations. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Regulatory Compliance Risks"​​.

Automatically generating WAF rules when applications are deployed is a hallmark of Infrastructure as Code (IaC). IaC allows infrastructure components—including firewalls, WAF policies, and load balancers—to be defined and deployed via code templates rather than manual configuration. In DevSecOps, IaC enables security controls to be embedded into deployment pipelines, ensuring that protections such as WAF rules are created instantly and consistently whenever new application versions are released.

Security+ SY0-701 highlights IaC as a method for automating infrastructure provisioning, standardizing security controls, and reducing configuration drift. This allows development and security teams to collaborate more effectively by treating security policies as code.

IoT (B) refers to smart devices, IoC (C) refers to indicators of compromise, and IaaS (D) refers to cloud compute infrastructure—not automated security policy creation.

Thus, the correct answer is A: IaC.

A Certificate Signing Request (CSR) is a request sent to a certificate authority (CA) to issue an SSL certificate. The CSR contains information like the public key, which will be part of the certificate.References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content​, Security+ SY0-601 Book​.

A web filter is a device or software that can monitor, block, or allow web traffic based on predefined rules or policies. One of the common methods of web filtering is to scan the URL for strings and deny access when matches are found. For example, a web filter can block access to websites that contain the words “gambling”, “porn”, or “malware” in their URLs. A URL is a uniform resource locator that identifies the location and protocol of a web resource. A URL typically consists of the following components: protocol://domain:port/path?query#fragment.The protocol specifies the communication method used to access the web resource, such as HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, or SMTP. The domain is the name of the web server that hosts the web resource, such as or The port is an optional number that identifies the specific service or application running on the web server, such as 80 for HTTP or 443 for HTTPS. The path is the specific folder or file name of the web resource, such as /index.html or /images/logo.png. The query is an optional string that contains additional information or parameters for the web resource, such as ?q=security or ?lang=en. The fragment is an optional string that identifies a specific part or section of the web resource, such as #introduction or #summary.

To prohibit access to non-encrypted websites, an analyst should employ a search string that matches the protocol of non-encrypted web traffic, which is HTTP. HTTP stands for hypertext transfer protocol, and it is a standard protocol for transferring data between web servers and web browsers. However, HTTP does not provide any encryption or security for the data, which means that anyone who intercepts the web traffic can read or modify the data. Therefore, non-encrypted websites are vulnerable to eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing attacks. To access a non-encrypted website, the URL usually starts with followed by the domain name and optionally the port number. For example, or By scanning the URL for the string the web filter can identify and block non-encrypted websites.

The other options are not correct because they do not match the protocol of non-encrypted web traffic. Encryption=off is a possible query string that indicates the encryption status of the web resource, but it is not a standard or mandatory parameter. Https:// is the protocol of encrypted web traffic, which uses hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) to provide encryption and security for the data. Www.*.com is a possible domain name that matches any website that starts with www and ends with .com, but it does not specify the protocol. :443 is the port number of HTTPS, which is the protocol of encrypted web traffic. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 2: Securing Networks, page 69. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 2.1: Network Devices and Technologies, video: Web Filter (5:16).

Creating a VLAN for Wi-Fi-enabled environmental sensors is the most likely and appropriate action. Security+ SY0-701 recommends network segmentation for IoT and sensor devices to reduce attack surface and limit lateral movement. A dedicated VLAN isolates sensors from critical systems while allowing controlled access to data collectors or management platforms.

Adding items to a risk register (A) documents risk but does not provide protection. Physically air gapping (C) contradicts the requirement for Wi-Fi connectivity. Configuring TLS 1.2 (D) is beneficial for data-in-transit protection but does not address network-level isolation and blast-radius reduction.

Thus, B: Create a VLAN for the sensors best aligns with secure design.

Input validation (D)is the most effective way to preventinjection attacks, such asSQL injection, XSS, etc. It ensures that only correctly formatted and expected inputs are processed by the application.

This is clearly identified underDomain 2.3: Application security techniques, whereinput validationis listed as aprimary defense against injection attacks.

A Host-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) protects individual devices by monitoring and preventing malicious activity directly on the host. It is ideal for protecting traveling employees’ devices outside the corporate network.

Isolation (A) and segmentation (B) apply to networks, and ACL (Access Control List) (C) restricts network traffic but does not provide host-level protection.

HIPS is emphasized in Security Operations for endpoint protection【6:Chapter 11†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

A playbook is a documented set of procedures that outlines the step-by-step response to specific types of cybersecurity incidents. Security Operations Centers (SOCs) use playbooks to improve consistency, efficiency, and accuracy during incident response. Playbooks help ensure that thecorrect procedures are followed based on the type of incident, ensuring swift and effective remediation.

Frameworks provide general guidelines for implementing security but are not specific enough for incident response procedures.

Baselines represent normal system behavior and are used for anomaly detection, not incident response guidance.

Benchmarks are performance standards and are not directly related to incident response​​.

Smishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses text messages (SMS) to trick victims into revealing sensitive information, clicking malicious links, or downloading malware. Smishing messages often appear to come from legitimate sources, such as banks, government agencies, or service providers, and use urgent or threatening language to persuade the recipients to take action12. In this scenario, the text message that claims to be from the payroll department is an example of smishing.

Impersonation is a type of social engineering technique that involves pretending to be someone else, such as an authority figure, a trusted person, or a colleague, to gain the trust or cooperation of the target. Impersonation can be done through various channels, such as phone calls, emails, text messages, or in-person visits, and can be used to obtain information, access, or money from the victim34. In this scenario, the text message that pretends to be from the payroll department is an example of impersonation.

A. Typosquatting is a type of cyberattack that involves registering domain names that are similar to popular or well-known websites, but with intentional spelling errors or different extensions. Typosquatting aims to exploit the common mistakes that users make when typingweb addresses, and redirect them to malicious or fraudulent sites that may steal their information, install malware, or display ads56. Typosquatting is not related to text messages or credential verification.

B. Phishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses fraudulent emails to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information, clicking malicious links, or downloading malware. Phishing emails often mimic the appearance and tone of legitimate organizations, such as banks, retailers, or service providers, and use deceptive or urgent language to persuade the recipients to take action78. Phishing is not related to text messages or credential verification.

D. Vishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses voice calls to trick victims into revealing sensitive information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or bank account details. Vishing calls often appear to come from legitimate sources, such as law enforcement, government agencies, or technical support, and use scare tactics or false promises to persuade the recipients to comply9 . Vishing is not related to text messages or credential verification.

F. Misinformation is a type of social engineering technique that involves spreading false or misleading information to influence the beliefs, opinions, or actions of the target. Misinformation can be used to manipulate public perception, create confusion, damage reputation, or promote an agenda . Misinformation is not related to text messages or credential verification.

References = 1: What is Smishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 2: Smishing - Wikipedia 3: Impersonation Attacks: What Are They and How Do You Protect Against Them? 4: Impersonation - Wikipedia 5: What is Typosquatting? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 6: Typosquatting - Wikipedia 7: What is Phishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 8: Phishing - Wikipedia 9: What is Vishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky : Vishing - Wikipedia : What is Misinformation? | Definition and Examples | Britannica : Misinformation - Wikipedia

Job rotation is a security control that involves regularly moving employees to different roles within an organization. This practice helps prevent incidents where a single employee has too much control or knowledge about a specific job function, reducing the risk of disruption when an employee leaves. It also helps in identifying any hidden issues or undocumented processes that could cause problems after an employee's departure.

Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is a key metric used to estimate the average time required to repair a failed component or system and restore it to operational status. In this case, the administrator would rely on MTTR to estimate how long it will take to fix the critical server’s failed drive and get it back online.

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) measures the expected operational lifespan between failures, so it does not provide an estimate of repair time.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO) refers to the maximum allowable downtime for a system or service before unacceptable impact occurs, which is a planning metric rather than an actual repair time measure.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO) defines the maximum acceptable data loss measured in time and relates to backup frequency rather than repair duration.

Therefore, MTTR is the appropriate metric to estimate the time to fix a failed drive. This concept is detailed in the Resilience and Physical Security chapter within the Security Operations domain of the SY0-701 exam【6:Chapter 9†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

Detailed Explanation:The correct sequence is to first establish secure baselines by determining the required configurations, deploy those configurations across systems, and finally maintain the configurations through regular updates and auditing. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Secure Baseline Development"​​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) platforms use behavioral analytics, machine learning, heuristics, and anomaly detection to identify malware and suspicious activity more accurately than traditional signature-based antivirus. EDR solutions also provide rich telemetry, process tracking, sandboxing, and automated investigation capabilities.

The SY0-701 exam emphasizes EDR as a replacement for legacy antivirus in modern threat environments. EDR can significantly reduce false positives by establishing behavioral baselines and analyzing file, process, and memory activity rather than relying solely on signatures. The scenario states the company wants a heuristic solution, which directly aligns with EDR’s advanced detection approach.

SIEM (A) is for log aggregation and correlation—not endpoint protection. DLP (C) prevents data exfiltration but does not detect malware. IDS (D) analyzes network traffic, not endpoint behavior.

Thus, EDR is the correct solution to reduce false positives and improve malware-detection accuracy.

A Cybersecurity Framework (CSF) provides a structured approach to standardizing and aligning security programs across different organizations. By both companies adopting the same CSF, they can ensure that their security measures, policies, and practices are consistent, which is essential during a merger when aligning two different security programs.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course discusses the importance of adopting standardized cybersecurity frameworks (CSF) for aligning security programs during mergers and acquisitions​​.

Endpoint management software is a tool that allows security engineers to monitor and control the configuration, security, and performance of workstations and servers from a central console. Endpoint management software can help detect and prevent unauthorized changes and software installations, enforce policies and compliance, and provide reports and alerts on the status of the endpoints. The other options are not as effective or comprehensive as endpoint management software for this purpose. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 137 1

Within an organization's Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC), an Information Security Policy is a vital component. It outlines the rules and procedures for ensuring that the organization’s IT assets and data are protected throughout the development process. Ensuring secure coding practices, access controls, and regular security testing is fundamental in preventing vulnerabilities in applications.

Other options like service-level agreements and branch protection requirements are less likely to be integral to SDLC processes. Penetration testing methodology, while useful, is generally considered outside the scope of the SDLC​​.

Detailed Explanation:Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is a key metric in risk management, reflecting the time required to repair a failed component, such as a generator, and restore operations. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Business Continuity Metrics"​​.

A data retention policy is a set of rules that defines how long data should be stored and when it should be deleted or archived. An administrator assists the legal and compliance team with ensuring information about customer transactions is archived for the proper time period by following the data retention policy of the organization. This policy helps the organization to comply with legal and regulatory requirements, optimize storage space, and protect data privacy and security.

References

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.4, page 1211

CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3, Question 15, page 832

A site survey is the formal process used to determine the required number, placement, and configuration of wireless access points (APs). Security+ SY0-701 states that site surveys measure RF propagation, identify dead zones, account for building materials, detect interference sources, and evaluate coverage overlap. This information allows network engineers to deploy the fewest APs necessary while still ensuring full coverage.

Although heat maps (C) are generated as a result of a site survey, they are visualization tools—not the actual survey process. A signal locator (A) is not a standardized tool in wireless planning. WPA3 (B) is a wireless security protocol and has no impact on access point planning or coverage optimization.

A full site survey ensures optimal AP placement to balance coverage, performance, and cost—exactly the concern described in the scenario.

Thus, the correct answer is D: Site survey.

The company should implement Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to integrate the vendor's security tool with their existing user directory. SAML is an open standard that allows identity providers (IdP) to pass authorization credentials to service providers (SP), enabling Single Sign-On (SSO). This allows the company to use its existing directory services for authentication, avoiding the need to manage a separate set of user credentials for the new tool.

The best first step is to reviewpatching (A). Outdated OS versions often contain vulnerabilities that can be exploited by malware. Ensuring systems are up-to-date is a foundational cybersecurity practice.

This is highlighted inDomain 2.1: Given a scenario, analyze indicators of malicious activityandDomain 2.2, emphasizing the importance of“Patching” as part of system hardening and mitigation strategy.

Container image hardening best practices include removing default or unnecessary applications (A) to reduce the attack surface and disabling insecure protocols like Telnet (C) to prevent exploitation. Minimizing software components reduces vulnerabilities and limits potential exploits.

Installing a Network Intrusion Prevention System (NIPS) (B) is a network security measure, not typically embedded in a container image. Reconfiguring DNS (D), adding an SFTP server (E), or deleting public certificates (F) are unrelated or could disrupt container functionality.

These practices are part of securing containerized environments covered under Security Architecture topics in SY0-701【6:Chapter 10†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Detailed Explanation:Proper data sanitization ensures that sensitive data is securely erased from storage devices, preventing unauthorized access or recovery when the devices are disposed of or reused. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Data Sanitization and Disposal Methods"​​.

Cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities allow attackers to inject malicious scripts into a website, which are then executed in the user’s web browser, potentially leading to data theft or session hijacking.References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content​, Security+ SY0-601 Book​.

Acknowledgement and attestationinvolveformal confirmationthat an application is no longer in scope for compliance, auditing, or reporting requirements. This typically includes documentation signed by relevant stakeholders confirming that the software no longer processes, stores, or transmits relevant data.

Data inventory and retention (A)is related to managing data assets, not software scope confirmation.

Right to be forgotten (B)pertains toprivacy laws (e.g., GDPR), allowing individuals to request data deletion.

Due care and due diligence (C)focus on security best practices rather than software applicability.

Encryption is a reversible process that transforms cleartext data into ciphertext to protect confidentiality. It uses cryptographic keys to both encrypt and decrypt data, ensuring that only authorized parties can access the original data.

Hashing, on the other hand, is a one-way function that converts data into a fixed-length hash value or checksum. Hashing is primarily used to verify data integrity by detecting changes, since any modification in the input will produce a different hash output. Unlike encryption, hashing cannot be reversed to obtain the original data.

While encryption can protect data both at rest and in transit, hashing does not protect data confidentiality but supports integrity verification. Public-key exchange is a cryptographic mechanism within asymmetric encryption but is unrelated to hashing key usage.

This distinction is thoroughly explained in the Cryptography chapter of the SY0-701 syllabus【6:Chapter 7†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Detailed Explanation:Access control lists (ACLs) allow administrators to fine-tune file permissions by specifying which users or groups have access to a file and defining the level of access. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Access Control Mechanisms"​​.

An unknown environment in penetration testing, also known as a black-box test, simulates an actual external attack where the tester has no prior knowledge of the system. This type of penetration test is designed to mimic real-world attack scenarios, where an attacker has little to no information about the target environment. The tester must rely on various reconnaissance and attack techniques to uncover vulnerabilities, much like a real-world attacker would. This approach helps organizations understand their security posture from an external perspective, providing insights into how their defenses would hold up against a true outsider threat.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course highlights the importance of understanding different penetration testing environments, including black-box testing, which aligns with the "unknown environment" in the provided answer.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: The guide details penetration testing methodologies, including black-box testing, which is crucial for simulating real external attacks​​​.

CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) provides a standardized way to rate the severity of software vulnerabilities. Organizations use CVSS scores to prioritize which vulnerabilities to address first, focusing on those with the highest risk.

Detailed Explanation:Insecure key storage refers to vulnerabilities caused by improper handling of cryptographic keys and certificates, such as storing them in plaintext or lacking access controls. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 2: Threats, Section: "Cryptographic Vulnerabilities and Mitigation"​​.

To limit the potential impact on the log-in database in case of a breach, the security team would most likely recommend hashing. Hashing converts passwords into fixed-length strings of characters, which cannot be easily reversed to reveal the original passwords. Even if the database is breached, attackers cannot easily retrieve the actual passwords if they are properly hashed (especially with techniques like salting).

Tokenization is used to replace sensitive data with a token, but it is more common for protecting credit card data than passwords.

Obfuscation is the process of making data harder to interpret but is weaker than hashing for password protection.

Segmentation helps isolate data but doesn't directly protect the contents of the login database​​.

 Capacity planning is the process of determining the resources needed to meet the current and future demands of an organization. Capacity planning can help a company develop a business continuity strategy by estimating how many staff members would be required to sustain the business in the case of a disruption, such as a natural disaster, a cyberattack, or a pandemic. Capacity planning can also help a company optimize the use of its resources, reduce costs, and improve performance. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4, page 184. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.1, page 14. Business Continuity – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 4.1

Code signing (D)usescryptographic digital signaturesto confirm theintegrity and authenticityof software code. It ensures that the code hasnot been alteredafter being signed, providing assurance that the application is trustworthy.

This aligns withCompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Domain 2.3: Application security techniques, which includescode signingas a method to validatecode integrity.

Non-compliance with internal policies, such as corporate security policies, falls under internal non-compliance. These are rules created and enforced within the organization to maintain security standards.

External non-compliance (A) refers to violations of outside regulations or laws. Standards (B) are generally established best practices or industry guidelines, and regulation (C) refers to legal or governmental requirements.

Internal compliance management is a key focus area in the Security Program Management domain of SY0-701【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based simulation in which stakeholders review and talk through their roles, responsibilities, and actions in response to a hypothetical incident. This allows participants to evaluate and improve response plans without actual disruption.

When investigating abnormal outbound traffic originating from a specific endpoint, endpoint logs are the most appropriate first data source to review. According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-701, endpoint logs provide detailed visibility into process execution, user actions, service creation, network connections initiated by applications, and security agent detections. This context is critical for determining which process initiated the encrypted traffic and why it is using non-standard ports.

Because the traffic is encrypted, packet captures (D) would reveal limited payload information and are more resource-intensive. Endpoint logs can quickly identify suspicious executables, command-line arguments, parent-child process relationships, and persistence mechanisms that indicate malware or command-and-control activity. Modern EDR tools rely heavily on endpoint telemetry for exactly this reason.

Application logs (A) may be useful later but are limited to specific applications. Vulnerability scans (B) identify weaknesses, not active malicious behavior.

Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes starting investigations as close to the suspected source as possible. Since the activity originates from a corporate endpoint, endpoint logs provide the fastest and most relevant confirmation of whether the traffic is malicious.

Infrastructure as Code (IaC)enables automated provisioning and configuration of infrastructure, making environmentsrepeatable, consistent, and scalable. The ability tobetter manage and replicate configurations (B)ensures that security settings are not missed and reduces misconfigurations.

According to theCompTIA Security+ SY0-701exam objectives underDomain 4.1 (Explain the security implications of different architecture models),IaCprovides the ability to"automatically enforce security controls"and manageconsistent configuration states, reducing human error.

Detailed Explanation:The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is a standardized metric used to assess the severity of vulnerabilities, aiding organizations in prioritizing their response based on risk. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 2: Vulnerabilities, Section: "Vulnerability Prioritization and Metrics"​​.

The requirement is to prevent the accidental disclosure of national identity information—highly sensitive personal data. The best solution is DLP (Data Loss Prevention). DLP tools monitor, detect, and block unauthorized transmission or exposure of sensitive data across:

Email

Cloud storage

Endpoints

Networks

Databases

In Security+ SY0-701, DLP is specifically recommended for ensuring compliance with privacy regulations, including those related to national identifiers (e.g., Social Security numbers, national ID numbers).

A SIEM (A) aggregates logs but does not prevent data leakage. SCAP (B) provides standardized security configuration assessments, unrelated to data protection. A WAF (D) helps protect web applications but does not prevent sensitive data exfiltration.

Since the requirement focuses on preventing accidental disclosure, DLP is the only technology capable of detecting, labeling, blocking, and reporting attempts to move or expose sensitive national identity data. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Aconflict of interest (B)arises when personal relationships or interests could potentially influence professional decisions. In this case, the CFO's friendship with the vendor could improperly affect the procurement decision-making process.

This scenario falls underDomain 5.3: Explain the importance of frameworks, policies, procedures, and controls—specifically under“Personnel policies (e.g., conflict of interest, mandatory vacations, job rotation).”

A serverless framework is a cloud-based application-hosting solution that meets the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A serverless framework is a type of cloud computing service that allows developers to run applications without managing or provisioning any servers. The cloud provider handles the server-side infrastructure, such as scaling, load balancing, security, and maintenance, and charges the developer only for the resources consumed by the application. A serverless framework enables developers to focus on the application logic and functionality, and reduces the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of serverless frameworks are AWS Lambda, Azure Functions, and Google Cloud Functions.

A type 1 hypervisor, SD-WAN, and SDN are not cloud-based application-hosting solutions that meet the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A type 1 hypervisor is a software layer that runs directly on the hardware and creates multiple virtual machines that can run different operating systems and applications. A type 1 hypervisor is not a cloud-based service, but a virtualization technology that can be used to create private or hybrid clouds. A type 1 hypervisor also requires the developer to manage and provision the servers and the virtual machines, which can increase the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of type 1 hypervisors are VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V, and Citrix XenServer.

SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a network architecture that uses software to dynamically route traffic across multiple WAN connections, such as broadband, LTE, or MPLS. SD-WAN is not a cloud-based service, but a network optimization technology that can improve the performance, reliability, and security of WAN connections. SD-WAN can be used to connect remote sites or users to cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SD-WAN vendors are Cisco, VMware, and Fortinet.

SDN (Software-Defined Networking) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, and uses a centralized controller to programmatically manage and configure the network devices and traffic flows. SDN is not a cloud-based service, but a network automation technology that can enhance the scalability, flexibility, and efficiency of the network. SDN can be used to create virtual networks or network functions that can support cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SDN vendors are OpenFlow, OpenDaylight, and OpenStack.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 264-265; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 3.1 - Cloud and Virtualization, 7:40 - 10:00; [Serverless Framework]; [Type 1 Hypervisor]; [SD-WAN]; [SDN].

An insider threat is a type of attack that originates from someone who has legitimate access to an organization’s network, systems, or data. In this case, the domain user who encrypted the files on the database server is an example of an insider threat, as they abused their access privileges to cause harm to the organization. Insider threats can be motivated by various factors, such as financial gain, revenge, espionage, or sabotage.

A physical security control is a device or mechanism that prevents unauthorized access to a physical location or asset. An access control vestibule, also known as a mantrap, is a physical security control that consists of a small space with two sets of interlocking doors, such that the first set of doors must close before the second set opens. This prevents unauthorized individuals from following authorized individuals into the facility, a practice known as piggybacking or tailgating. A photo ID check is another form of physical security control that verifies the identity of visitors. Managerial, technical, and operational security controls are not directly related to physical access, but rather to policies, procedures, systems, and processes that support security objectives. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 341; Mantrap (access control) - Wikipedia2

This scenario describes a bug bounty program, which invites external security researchers to responsibly identify and report vulnerabilities in an organization’s systems. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 defines bug bounty programs as structured initiatives that reward researchers for discovering and disclosing security flaws before they can be exploited by malicious actors.

Bug bounty programs extend security testing beyond internal teams and provide continuous, real-world testing of public-facing assets. They are particularly effective for identifying zero-day vulnerabilities, logic flaws, and edge-case issues that automated tools may miss.

Red teaming (B) is a controlled, internal or contracted adversarial exercise, not an open invitation. Open-source intelligence (C) involves gathering publicly available information, not vulnerability reporting. Third-party information sharing (D) refers to sharing threat intelligence, not soliciting vulnerability reports.

Because the CISO is inviting the broader security community to report vulnerabilities, the correct answer is A: Bug bounty.

The administrator is using a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) tool, which is designed to identify, monitor, and protect sensitive data. By fingerprinting specific files, DLP ensures that these files cannot be emailed or sent outside the organization without triggering an alert or blocking the action. This is a key feature of DLP systems, which prevent data exfiltration and ensure data security compliance.

SNMP traps are used for network management and monitoring, not data protection.

SCAP (Security Content Automation Protocol) is a set of standards for automating vulnerability management and policy compliance, unrelated to file monitoring.

IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) blocks network-based attacks but does not handle file fingerprinting​​​.

When a zero-day vulnerability is discovered in mission-critical systems that require high availability, immediate patching is often not possible due to lack of available patches or the risk of disrupting critical operations. In such cases, the best practice is to implement compensating controls (such as increased monitoring, access controls, network segmentation, or web application firewalls) to mitigate risk until a patch or permanent solution can be safely applied.

Peer review and approval is a practice that involves having other developers or experts review the code before it is deployed or released. Peer review and approval can help detect and prevent malicious code, errors, bugs, vulnerabilities, and poor quality in the development process. Peer review and approval can also enforce coding standards, best practices, and compliance requirements. Peer review and approval can be done manually or with the help of tools, such as code analysis, code review, and code signing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 11: Secure Application Development, page 543 2

Hardening access to a new database system requires implementing controls that restrict and secure how administrators and applications connect to the database. A jump server (A) is a hardened intermediary system used to manage access to sensitive systems such as databases. By forcing administrators to authenticate through a controlled, monitored jump host instead of connecting directly, organizations reduce attack surfaces and prevent unauthorized lateral movement. Security+ SY0-701 identifies jump servers as critical in securing high-value systems.

A host-based firewall (E) provides system-level traffic filtering directly on the database server. It allows only trusted IPs, ports, and services to communicate with the database, significantly reducing exposure. This is an essential hardening measure because databases should only accept connections from specific application servers or administrative hosts.

NIDS (B) monitors traffic but does not harden access. Monitoring (C) provides visibility but does not restrict access. A proxy server (D) is not typically used for database access. A WAF (F) protects web applications, not internal database systems.

Thus, A (Jump server) and E (Host-based firewall) are the correct hardening controls.

Infrastructure as code (IaC) is a method of using code and automation to manage and provision cloud resources, such as servers, networks, storage, and applications. IaC allows for easy deployment, scalability, consistency, and repeatability of cloud environments. IaC is also a key component of DevSecOps, which integrates security into the development and operations processes. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts, page 294.

Data sovereignty concerns the laws and governance that apply to data at rest outside of a country’s borders. It refers to the legal implications and regulatory controls over where data is stored geographically.

A full inventory of all hardware and software is essential for measuring the overall risk to an organization when a new vulnerability is disclosed, because it allows the security analyst to identify which systems are affected by the vulnerability and prioritize the remediation efforts. Without a full inventory, the security analyst may miss some vulnerable systems or waste time and resources on irrelevant ones. Documentation of system classifications, a list of system owners and their departments, and third-party risk assessment documentation are all useful for risk management, but they are not sufficient to measure the impact of a new vulnerability. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1221; Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative3

Encryption at rest is a strategy that protects data stored on a device, such as a laptop, by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be accessed with a decryption key or password. Encryption at rest can prevent data loss on stolen laptops by preventing unauthorized access to the data, even if the device is physically compromised. Encryption at rest can also help comply with data privacy regulations and standards that require data protection. Masking, data classification, and permission restrictions are other strategies that can help protect data, but they may not be sufficient or applicable for data stored on laptops. Masking is a technique that obscures sensitive data elements, such as credit card numbers, with random characters or symbols, but it is usually used for data in transit or in use, not at rest. Data classification is a process that assigns labels to data based on its sensitivity and business impact, but it does not protect the data itself. Permission restrictions are rules that define who can access, modify, or delete data, but they may not prevent unauthorized access if the laptop is stolen and the security controls are bypassed. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 17-18, 372-373

Tokenization is a process that replaces sensitive data, such as credit card information, with a non-sensitive equivalent (token) that can be used in place of the actual data. This technique is particularly useful in securely storing payment information because the token can be safely stored and transmitted without exposing the original credit card number.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Cryptography and Data Protection​.

Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol (SRTP) is a security protocol used to encrypt and authenticate the streaming of audio and video over IP networks. It ensures that the video streams from the IP cameras are both encrypted to prevent unauthorized access and authenticated to verify the integrity of the stream, making it the ideal choice for securing video surveillance.

Poor input validation in databases typically leads to SQL Injection (SQLi) vulnerabilities, where attackers manipulate input fields to execute arbitrary SQL commands and gain unauthorized data access or control.

XSS (A) affects web applications' output rendering, command injection (B) affects OS commands, and buffer overflow (C) affects memory management, so they don't directly relate to database input validation.

SQLi is a critical vulnerability extensively covered in the Application Security domain【6:Chapter 6†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

Updating wire transfer processes to include verification steps (such as requiring dual approval or verifying account changes via a secondary communication method) canprevent fraudulenttransactions. Attackers often use business email compromise (BEC) or pretexting to trick employees into transferring funds to fraudulent accounts.

Standardizing security incident reportingis useful for tracking security events but does not prevent fraud in real time.

Executing regular phishing campaignsimproves awareness but does not enforce a verification process for financial transactions.

Implementing insider threat detectionfocuses on internal risks but does not specifically prevent external fraud.

Amore secure wire transfer processwith additional verification steps is the most effective measure against fraudulent transactions.

DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a tool that can assist with detecting and preventing the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data, such as a customer’s PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can monitor, filter, and block data in motion (such as emails), data at rest (such as files), and data in use (such as applications). DLP can also alert the sender, the recipient, or the administrator of the data breach, and apply remediation actions, such as encryption, quarantine, or deletion. DLP can help an organization comply with data protection regulations, such as GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI DSS, and protect its reputation and assets. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 78. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.5, page 11.

Improving security awareness training directly addresses user behavior by teaching employees how to better recognize legitimate emails versus actual phishing attempts. Enhanced training can reduce the number of false positives by helping users more accurately identify true phishing attempts, lowering unnecessary reports and thus help desk workload.

AnAPI (B)or Application Programming Interface is the best option when you want toautomate data exchangebetween systems. APIs provide structured, secure, and efficient ways for systems to communicate and are widely used in automation and orchestration tasks.

SOAR (A)is used for broader security orchestration and may use APIs under the hood but is more complex.

SFTP (C)is for manual/automated file transfers.

RDP (D)is for remote desktop access, not data automation.

This is referenced inDomain 1.5: Explain the importance of automation and orchestration in cybersecurityunder“Application programming interfaces (APIs).”

A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the effectiveness of a security incident response plan. It involves gathering the relevant stakeholders and walking through the steps of the plan, identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. A tabletop exercise is a good way to validate the documentation created by the security manager and ensure that the team is prepared for various types of security incidents.

Multicloud architectures use two or more IaaS providers (e.g., AWS + Azure + GCP) to distribute workloads, increase redundancy, and reduce single points of failure. Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes multicloud strategies for enhancing:

Resilience

Availability

Fault tolerance

Geographic redundancy

Vendor independence

The question specifies:

Critical VMs

Hosted across different IaaS providers

Still maintained by internal application owners

This perfectly matches a multicloud deployment, where organizations maintain control over VM configuration while leveraging multiple cloud vendors for resilience.

SaaS provider diversity (B) applies to application services, not internally managed VMs.

On-prem load balancing (C) does not involve cloud providers.

Corporate-owned off-site locations (D) refer to DR sites, not multi-vendor cloud hosting.

Thus, A: Multicloud architectures is the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A playbook is a step-by-step, just-in-time reference used by Security Operations Center (SOC) analysts when responding to security alerts, incidents, and suspicious activities. Playbooks provide documented procedures for common scenarios such as malware detection, phishing investigations, ransomware response, and account compromise.

According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 exam framework, playbooks support incident response by reducing analyst guesswork and ensuring consistency. They include details such as triage steps, required tools, escalation paths, log sources, and containment actions. This makes playbooks the most suitable document for immediate reference during live investigations.

Change management policies (A) govern system or configuration changes, not SOC operations. Risk profiles (B) provide organizational risk overviews, not incident-response steps. SIEM profiles (D) define correlation rules or dashboards but are not procedural guides.

Therefore, the correct answer is playbooks, which enable efficient, standardized, and repeatable responses to operational security events.

Impersonation occurs when an attacker or unauthorized user is granted access (authorized) by masquerading as a legitimate user, effectively bypassing or exploiting the authentication process. This means authorization is mistakenly granted before proper authentication.

Privilege escalation (A) involves gaining higher access after authentication. Race conditions (B) are timing vulnerabilities. Tailgating (C) refers to physical unauthorized access by following an authorized person.

Impersonation is a well-known identity attack vector detailed in the Threats and Vulnerabilities domain of SY0-701【6:Chapter 4†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Detailed Explanation:Privacy data includes information such as Personally Identifiable Information (PII), which relates to employees' or customers' personal data. Organizations often maintain policies and standards specifically addressing how such sensitive information should be handled. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Data Types and Classifications"​​.

An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is the most effective addition when an organization already has a firewall but continues to face repeated external attacks. Security+ SY0-701 states that an IPS operates inline and automatically blocks malicious traffic in real time based on signatures, anomaly behavior, or heuristics. Whereas a firewall filters traffic by rules, an IPS detects and prevents deeper-level threats such as exploits, malware, and command-and-control attempts.

A UTM (C) includes IPS features, but it is typically used to replace a firewall with an all-in-one appliance. The question states the organization already has a firewall, so the most efficient addition is a standalone IPS. A SIEM (A) aggregates and analyzes logs but does not block attacks. A load balancer (B) distributes traffic for performance—not security.

Thus, the best item to stop active inbound attacks is D: IPS.

Installing a host-based content filtering solution on the endpoints ensures that web traffic is filtered locally even when the VPN connection to the on-premises proxy fails, maintaining protection for remote users.

Network access control (A) manages device network access, local gateway configuration (B) does not solve protection if VPN fails, and public NAT (C) exposes internal resources and increases risk.

Endpoint filtering complements VPN for resilient web security, covered in Security Architecture and Operations【6:Chapter 11†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Shadow IT refers to software, hardware, cloud services, or applications deployed without approval from the IT or security department. In this scenario, a high school department is using an unvetted simulation program—classic Shadow IT behavior.

Security+ SY0-701 explains that Shadow IT:

Introduces unknown vulnerabilities

Bypasses security controls

Creates compliance risks

Leads to data exposure

Interferes with standard configuration management

Espionage (A) involves intelligence gathering, not unauthorized software use. Data exfiltration (B) involves data theft, not unauthorized software deployment. Zero-day (D) refers to unknown vulnerabilities, not unapproved systems.

Thus, Shadow IT is the correct answer.

When the government bans a vendor, the legal concern is sanctions—laws that restrict purchasing, using, or importing products from certain companies or countries. The general counsel’s job is to ensure the organization is not violating federal restrictions, export controls, trade compliance laws, or sanctions lists such as OFAC or government procurement bans.

Security+ SY0-701 notes that legal and regulatory compliance is a critical part of risk management, especially when handling prohibited vendors or technologies. Continued use of banned devices could expose the organization to legal penalties, fines, or federal investigation.

Data sovereignty (B) refers to data storage location laws, not hardware bans. Cost of replacement (C) is an operational concern, not a legal one. Loss of license (D) typically applies to software, not network hardware.

Therefore, the general counsel’s primary concern is A: Sanctions.

Baseline configuration is the process of standardizing the configuration settings for a system or network. In this scenario, the organization needs to standardize the operating system configurations before deploying them across the network. Establishing a baseline configuration ensures that all systems adhere to the organization's security policies and operational requirements.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of system hardening and configuration management​​.

AnSLA (D)or Service Level Agreement is a formal contract that definesperformance standards, includingresponse times, escalation procedures, uptime guarantees, and other service-related metrics.

This is referenced inDomain 5.2: Explain the importance of managing third-party riskunder“Agreements (e.g., SLA, NDA, MOU/MOA, BPA).”

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) is designed to automate repetitive security tasks, orchestrate workflows, and reduce manual effort in identifying and containing threats. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 describes SOAR as an advanced tool that integrates with SIEM, EDR, firewalls, and ticketing systems to automate detection, enrichment, and response actions.

By using SOAR playbooks, security teams can automate:

Initial threat triage

Log correlation

Host isolation

Indicator lookups

Ticket creation and escalation

This significantly reduces the number of manual steps an analyst must perform, achieving the manager’s goal of streamlining threat-handling procedures.

A SIEM (B) centralizes logs and alerts but still requires manual investigation unless paired with SOAR. DMARC (C) protects email domains from spoofing but does not automate threat response. NIDS (D) detects threats on the network but does not automate containment.

SOAR’s ability to automate identification and response makes A the correct answer.

A tabletop exercise involves the executive team or key stakeholders discussing and testing the company’s incident response plan in a simulated environment. These exercises are low-stress, discussion-based, and help to validate the plan's effectiveness by walking through different scenarios without disrupting actual operations. It is an essential part of testing business continuity and incident response strategies.

Continuity of operations refers to the ability of an organization to continue functioning during and after a disaster but doesn't specifically involve simulations like tabletop exercises.

Capacity planning is related to ensuring the infrastructure can handle growth, not incident response testing.

Parallel processing refers to running multiple processes simultaneously, which is unrelated to testing an incident response plan​​.

The principle of least privilege is a security concept that limits access to resources to the minimum level needed for a user, a program, or a device to perform a legitimate function. It is a cybersecurity best practice that protects high-value data and assets from compromise or insider threat. Least privilege can be applied to different abstraction layers of a computing environment, such as processes, systems, or connected devices. However, it is rarely implemented in practice.

In this scenario, the IT manager is setting up the principle of least privilege by restricting access to the administrator console of the help desk software to only two authorized users: the IT manager and the help desk lead. This way, the IT manager can prevent unauthorized or accidental changes to the software configuration, data, or functionality by other help desk staff. The other help desk staff will only have access to the normal user interface of the software, which is sufficient for them to perform their job functions.

The other options are not correct. Hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its surface of vulnerability, such as by removing unnecessary software, changing default passwords, or disabling unnecessary services. Employee monitoring is the surveillance of workers’ activity, such as by tracking web browsing, application use, keystrokes, or screenshots. Configuration enforcement is the process of ensuring that a system adheres to a predefined set of security settings, such as by applying a patch, a policy, or a template.

References = 

A strong authentication policy should enforcepassword length(e.g., minimum of 12-16 characters) andcomplexity(mix of uppercase, lowercase, numbers, and symbols). These measures significantlyreduce the risk of brute-force attacks.

Least privilege (C)relates to access control, not authentication policies.

Something you have (D)andbiometrics (F)pertain to multi-factor authentication (MFA) but are not password policy requirements.

The employee notices that the links in the email do not correspond to the company's official URLs, indicating that this is likely a social engineering attack. Social engineering involves manipulating individuals into divulging confidential information or performing actions that may compromise security. Phishing emails, like the one described, often contain fraudulent links to trick the recipient into providing sensitive information or downloading malware.

Business email refers to business email compromise (BEC), which typically involves impersonating a high-level executive to defraud the company.

Unsecured network is unrelated to the email content.

Default credentials do not apply here, as the issue is with suspicious links, not login credentials​​.

Mitigate is the risk management strategy that involves reducing the likelihood or impact of a risk. If a legacy application is critical to business operations and there are preventative controls that are not yet implemented, the enterprise should adopt the mitigate strategy first to address the existing vulnerabilities and gaps in the application. This could involve applying patches, updates, or configuration changes to the application, or adding additional layers of security controls around the application. Accept, transfer, and avoid are other risk management strategies, but they are not the best options for this scenario. Accept means acknowledging the risk and accepting the consequences without taking any action. Transfer means shifting the risk to a third party, such as an insurance company or a vendor. Avoid means eliminating the risk by removing the source or changing the process. These strategies may not be feasible or desirable for a legacy application that is critical to business operations and has no preventative controls in place. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1221; A Risk-Based Framework for Legacy System Migration and Deprecation2

The scenario shows MD5 hashed password values. The most likely reason the security administrator is focusing on these values is to protect against pass-the-hash attacks. In this type of attack, an attacker can use a captured hash to authenticate without needing to know the actual plaintext password. By managing and monitoring these hashes, the administrator can implement strategies to mitigate this type of threat.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management​.

An Access Control List (ACL) is a technical mechanism used to explicitly define permissions for files, folders, or other resources. ACLs specify which users or system processes are granted access to objects and what operations are allowed on given objects. This allows the administrator to centrally and granularly manage file permissions for a group or team.

Typosquatting is a social engineering and cybersquatting technique in which attackers register domain names similar to legitimate ones, hoping users will make a typographical error and visit their malicious website instead.

A Secure Web Gateway (SWG) protects users by filtering unwanted software/malware from user-initiated web traffic and enforcing corporate and regulatory policy compliance. This technology allows the company to secure remote users' data and web traffic without relying on a VPN, making it ideal for organizations supporting remote work.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of network security and remote access technologies​​.

The chmod command is used to change file permissions on Unix and Linux systems. If the /etc/shadow file has permissions beyond the baseline recommendation, the systems administrator should use chmod to modify the file's permissions, ensuring it adheres to the security baseline and limits access to authorized users only.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, focusing on system hardening and file permissions management​​.

ACertificate Revocation List (CRL)is adigitally signed list maintained by a Certificate Authority (CA)that containsrevoked or expired certificates. This prevents clients from trustingcompromised or outdated certificates.

TPM (A)is a hardware security module, unrelated to certificate revocation.

PKI (C)is the overall system managing digital certificates, but it does not store revocation lists.

CSR (D)is a request to obtain a certificate, not to revoke one.

A vulnerability scan is the most effective method for identifying legacy systems within an environment. Vulnerability scanners assess hosts for outdated operating systems, unsupported software versions, missing patches, deprecated services, and known Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs). CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 highlights vulnerability scanning as a foundational security operation used to gain visibility into system age, patch status, and configuration weaknesses.

Legacy systems often stand out in scan results because they run end-of-life operating systems, use deprecated protocols, or lack current security updates. These indicators allow security teams to quickly flag systems that require isolation, compensating controls, or replacement.

Bug bounty programs (A) rely on external researchers and are not designed to inventory internal assets. Package monitoring (C) tracks software behavior and changes but does not identify system age or support status. Dynamic analysis (D) evaluates running applications for vulnerabilities, not infrastructure lifecycle status.

Because vulnerability scans provide broad visibility into system versions and supportability, the correct answer is B: Vulnerability scan.

The security engineer is likely to deploy a Web Application Firewall (WAF) to protect the new web portal service. A WAF specifically protects web applications by filtering, monitoring, and blocking HTTP requests based on a set of rules. This is crucial for preventing common attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and other web-based attacks that could compromise the web service.

Layer 4 firewall operates primarily at the transport layer, focusing on IP address and port filtering, making it unsuitable for web application-specific threats.

NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) provides more advanced filtering than traditional firewalls, including layer 7 inspection, but the WAF is tailored specifically for web traffic.

UTM (Unified Threat Management) offers a suite of security tools in one package (like antivirus, firewall, and content filtering), but for web application-specific protection, a WAF is the best fit​​​.

Internal audits are conducted within an organization to independently assess and evaluate the effectiveness of internal controls, policies, and procedures. A key benefit of internal audits is the identification of control gaps or weaknesses that can then be remediated before they lead to security incidents or compliance failures.

Unlike external audits, internal audit findings are primarily for management and internal stakeholders, focusing on improving security posture and operational efficiency. Reports generated are formal and documented to ensure accountability, and internal audits do not replace the need for external audits, which provide independent verification to external parties like regulators or shareholders.

This role of internal audits in identifying deficiencies and driving remediation efforts is emphasized in the Security Program Management and Oversight domain of the SY0-701 exam【7:Chapter 5†CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests】.

Hashing is the correct mechanism for ensuring that a software release has not been modified prior to reaching the end user. Hashing provides integrity verification by generating a fixed-length digest (such as SHA-256) from the original software package. When users download the software, they can compute the hash locally and compare it to the hash value published by the vendor. If the values match, the software has not been altered; if they differ, tampering or corruption has occurred.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes hashing as a core cryptographic control used to verify integrity for files, updates, patches, and software distributions. Hashing is extremely sensitive to change—altering even a single bit in the file results in a completely different hash value.

Encryption (B) protects confidentiality, not integrity. Tokenization (A) replaces sensitive data with tokens and is unrelated to software integrity. Obfuscation (D) makes code harder to read but does not guarantee it has not been modified.

Therefore, hashing is the most appropriate and reliable method to ensure software integrity before release.

A firewall policy is a set of rules that defines what traffic is allowed or denied on a network. A firewall policy should be carefully designed and tested before being implemented, as a misconfigured policy can cause network disruptions or security breaches. A common best practice is to test the policy in a non-production environment, such as a lab or a simulation, before enabling the policy in the production network. This way, the technician can verify the functionality and performance of the policy, and identify and resolve any issues or conflicts, without affecting the live network. Testing the policy in a non-production environment would prevent the issue of the ‘deny any’ policy causing several company servers to become unreachable, as the technician would be able to detect and correct the problem before applying the policy to the production network.

Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management is a good practice, but it would not prevent the issue by itself. Change management is a process that ensures that any changes to the network are authorized, documented, and communicated, but it does not guarantee that the changes are error-free or functional. The technician still needs to test the policy before implementing it.

Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the ‘deny any’ policy prior to enabling the new policy would not prevent the issue, and it could reduce the security of the network. Intrusion prevention signatures are patterns that identify malicious or unwanted traffic, and allow the firewall to block or alert on such traffic. Disabling these signatures would make the firewall less effective in detecting and preventing attacks, and it would not affect the reachability of the company servers.

Including an ‘allow any’ policy above the ‘deny any’ policy would not prevent the issue, and it would render the ‘deny any’ policy useless. A firewall policy is processed from top to bottom, and the first matching rule is applied. An ‘allow any’ policy would match any traffic and allow it to pass through the firewall, regardless of the source, destination, or protocol. This would negate the purpose of the ‘deny any’ policy, which is to block any traffic that does not match any of the previous rules. Moreover, an ‘allow any’ policy would create a security risk, as it would allow any unauthorized or malicious traffic to enter or exit the network. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 204-205; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 2.1 - Network Security Devices, 8:00 - 10:00.

Change management is the formal process designed to control, document, approve, and track modifications to systems, internal processes, assets, and security controls. This control mechanism helps prevent unauthorized or unintended changes that could introduce vulnerabilities or disrupt operations.

Playbooks are documented procedures for responding to incidents, incident response manages security incidents, and acceptable use policies define acceptable user behavior but do not directly control changes.

By enforcing proper change management, organizations maintain the integrity and security of their infrastructure, which is a critical topic covered in the Security Program Management and Oversight domain of SY0-701【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

An air-gapped system is physically isolated from unsecured networks (like the public Internet), ensuring that there is no direct or indirect network connection. This is the most effective way to prevent Internet-based access to sensitive systems.

A Host-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) provides both preventive and detective security controls. Security+ SY0-701 describes HIPS as a host-level security solution that monitors system behavior, blocks malicious activity, and logs suspicious events.

It functions as a preventive control (B) because it can:

Stop malware execution

Block unauthorized changes

Prevent exploit attempts

Enforce endpoint protection policies

It is also a detective control (F) because it can:

Record attempted attacks

Identify suspicious activities

Generate alerts for security teams

Directive controls (A) refer to policies; physical controls (C) refer to locks and barriers; corrective controls (D) restore systems after an incident; compensating controls (E) substitute for missing primary controls.

Therefore, the two correct answers are B (Preventive) and F (Detective).

Host isolation ensures that a device cannot communicate with other systems on the network. Isolation is typically applied through EDR/XDR tools, quarantine mechanisms, or endpoint firewalls. Security+ SY0-701 identifies host isolation as a containment technique used when:

A device is suspected of compromise

Lateral movement must be prevented

Sensitive systems must be protected

A system must be completely cut off except for administrative access

Isolation enforces an immediate block on all inbound and outbound communications, effectively making the device inaccessible to any network-based resource.

Disablement of unused services (A) reduces attack surface but does not isolate the device.

A WAF (B) protects web applications, not device access.

A network IDS (D) only monitors traffic and does not block access.

Thus, C: Host isolation is the correct answer.

Threat hunting is a proactive security activity focused on identifying hidden or undetected threats within an environment, even when no alerts or indicators have been triggered. According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-701, threat hunting assumes that attackers may already be present and actively evading traditional security controls such as SIEMs, IDS/IPS, or endpoint protection tools.

Threat hunting involves manually analyzing logs, endpoint telemetry, network traffic, and behavioral patterns to uncover anomalies that automated systems may miss. This aligns directly with the scenario, where the analyst has a suspicion of malicious actors but no alerts confirming activity. Threat hunting helps identify advanced persistent threats (APTs), living-off-the-land techniques, credential misuse, and lateral movement that may not generate immediate alerts.

Digital forensics (B) is typically performed after an incident has been confirmed. Vulnerability scanning (C) identifies weaknesses but does not detect active attackers. E-discovery (D) is a legal process for collecting electronically stored information and is not used for threat detection.

Because the analyst is proactively searching for hidden threats without existing alerts, the correct action is A: Threat hunting.

TheCommon Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)is astandardized framework for assessing the severity of vulnerabilities. It provides a numerical score (0-10) based on factors such asexploitability, impact, and complexity, helping security analystsprioritize remediation efforts based on risk.

Business impact analysis (A)helps identifycritical business functionsbut does not specificallyprioritize vulnerabilities.

Risk register (C)tracks identified risks but does not classify vulnerabilities.

Exposure factor (D)is used inquantitative risk assessmentbut is not an industry standard for vulnerability prioritization.

A warm site offers a compromise between cost and recovery speed. It includes hardware and network infrastructure partially configured, allowing quicker recovery than a cold site but at lower cost than a hot site.

Hot sites (A) enable rapid recovery but at high cost. Cold sites (B) are low cost but slow to recover. Manual (C) refers to manual processes, typically slower.

Warm sites balance recovery time and cost in disaster recovery planning【6:Chapter 9†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Code repositories are a common source of unintentional corporate credential leakage, especially in cloud environments. Developers may accidentally commit and push sensitive information, such as API keys, passwords, and other credentials, to public or poorly secured repositories. These credentials can then be accessed by unauthorized users, leading to security breaches. Ensuring that repositories are properly secured and that sensitive data is never committed is critical for protecting against this type of leakage.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Threats and Vulnerability Management​.

The most significant vulnerability concern for end-of-life (EOL) hardware is that vendors stop providing patches and updates. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 highlights that unsupported hardware and software no longer receive security fixes, leaving known vulnerabilities permanently unpatched. This creates an expanding attack surface that adversaries can easily exploit.

Once hardware reaches EOL status, newly discovered vulnerabilities will remain unaddressed, increasing the likelihood of compromise. This is especially dangerous for systems exposed to networks or handling sensitive data, where exploitation can lead to data breaches, lateral movement, or service disruption.

Option A relates to disposal risks, not active vulnerabilities. Option B is a logistical issue, not a security vulnerability. Option C is a compatibility concern, not a direct vulnerability.

Because unpatched systems are inherently vulnerable and cannot be secured through updates, the correct answer is D: The vendor may stop providing patches and updates.

A red team is a group of security professionals who perform offensive security assessments covering penetration testing and social engineering. A red team simulates real-world attacks and exploits the vulnerabilities of a target organization, system, or network. A red team aims to test the effectiveness of the security controls, policies, and procedures of the target, as well as the awareness and response of the staff and the blue team. A red team can be hired as an external consultant or formed internally within the organization. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 18. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.8, page 4. Security Teams – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.8

This example of a script injection attack would be best mitigated by input sanitization. Input sanitization involves cleaning or filtering user inputs to ensure that they do not contain harmful data, such as malicious scripts. This prevents attackers from executing script-based attacks (e.g., Cross-Site Scripting or XSS).

Nmap command is unrelated to input sanitization, as it is a network scanning tool.

Email phishing attempts require different mitigations, such as user training.

Browser warnings about insecure connections involve encryption protocols, not input validation​

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

AnEndpoint Detection and Response (EDR)solution is designed tomonitor, detect, and respond to security incidents on endpoints (such as workstations and servers). Itcollects and analyzes data, detecting suspicious activity and forwarding relevant information for further investigation.

Network Access Control (NAC) (A)enforces network access policies but does not analyze security threats on hosts.

Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS) (B)detect and block network threats but do not provide deep endpoint analytics.

Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) (C)aggregates logs and provides security analytics but lacks direct endpoint detection and response capabilities.

EDR is the best choicefor analyzing and responding to endpoint security incidents.

An image backup, also known as a full system backup, captures the entire contents of a system, including the operating system, applications, settings, and all data. This type of backup allows for a complete recovery of the system in case of a disaster, as it includes everything needed to restore the system to its previous state. This makes it the ideal choice for a systems administrator who needs to ensure the ability to recover the entire system, including the OS.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, domain on Security Operations​​.

SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition) systems commonly manage industrial equipment, including PLCs (Programmable Logic Controllers). Historically, SCADA environments often lack encryption for management traffic due to legacy equipment and protocols. This makes SCADA the most likely environment where unencrypted PLC management traffic can be observed.

To determine whether data exfiltration has occurred, the most effective tool is a packet capture (PCAP). Packet captures allow investigators to see exactly what data left the network, including file contents, payloads, headers, protocols, and destination information. PCAP files provide full-fidelity network evidence, enabling analysts to reconstruct sessions and review exfiltrated content byte-by-byte.

Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes PCAP as the gold standard for forensic network investigations, especially when dealing with:

Malware beaconing

Command-and-control (C2) traffic

Data leakage

Unauthorized transmissions

Network logs (C) provide summaries such as IP addresses, ports, and timestamps but do not show actual data contents. Metadata (B) gives descriptive information (e.g., file size, type) but not transmitted payloads. Application logs (A) show application-level events but do not capture network data.

If the analyst needs to confidently determine if sensitive information was exported to the attacker, only packet capture provides the required depth of visibility.

The threat actor’s intent is clearly blackmail, a form of extortion where sensitive information is used to coerce an individual into taking an action, usually involving financial gain. In this scenario, the attacker threatens to leak incriminating or compromising photos unless the government official wires a large sum of money. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 defines blackmail as the use of sensitive or embarrassing information to manipulate or force actions from victims.

This differs from organized crime (A), which focuses on profit-driven cyber operations but typically uses technical attacks such as ransomware, data theft, or fraud rather than anonymous mailed threats. Philosophical beliefs (B) refers to hacktivism, where attackers pursue ideological motives—not present here. Espionage (C) involves intelligence gathering for political or competitive advantage, typically performed by nation-states or advanced persistent threats (APTs).

This scenario aligns directly with extortion-based social engineering, where attackers manipulate victims through fear and emotional pressure. According to Security+ guidance, blackmail often occurs through email, physical mail, or compromised personal data leaks, all fitting this situation. Therefore, the threat actor’s intent is blackmail.

The misuse of personally identifiable information (PII) is often mitigated through employee training on privacy legislation and company compliance. Training on privacy legislation educates employees about legal requirements and consequences related to handling PII, such as GDPR or HIPAA. Company compliance training reinforces internal policies and procedures regarding data handling, acceptable use, and the repercussions of violations.

While social engineering and phishing training are important for security awareness, they address external threats rather than insider misuse of data. Risk management is a broader discipline focused on assessing and mitigating organizational risks but does not directly prevent employee misuse through training. Remote work training focuses on secure practices for working outside corporate environments, which is not the core issue here.

This approach aligns with Security Program Management and Oversight principles emphasizing compliance and privacy training to reduce insider threats【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

If cadets are using company phone numbers to make unsolicited calls, and the logs confirm the numbers are not being spoofed, it suggests that the SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) server's security settings might be weak. This could allow unauthorized access or exploitation of the company's telephony services, potentially leading to misuse by unauthorized individuals.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, especially on SIP security and common vulnerabilities​​.

Code signing is a technique that uses cryptography to verify the authenticity and integrity of the code created by the company. Code signing involves applying a digital signature to the code using a private key that only the company possesses. The digital signature can be verified by anyone who has the corresponding public key, which can be distributed through a trusted certificate authority. Code signing can prevent unauthorized modifications, tampering, or malware injection into the code, and it can also assure the users that the code is from a legitimate source. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 74. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2, page 11. Application Security – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A responsibility matrix, often referred to in cloud computing as the Shared Responsibility Model, defines the exact roles, duties, and expectations between a cloud service provider (CSP) and the customer. This includes who is responsible for configuration, maintenance, patching, logging, updates, identity management, network security, and data protection.

According to the SY0-701 exam objectives, cloud models such as SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS all divide responsibilities differently. The responsibility matrix clarifies these boundaries so that neither party assumes the other is handling a critical security task. Misunderstandings in these areas can create dangerous security gaps, such as unpatched virtual machines, misconfigured storage buckets, or weak access controls.

A Service-Level Agreement (A) focuses on uptime, performance, and service expectations—not shared security roles. A Memorandum of Understanding (C) describes high-level cooperation between organizations, while an NDA (D) protects confidential information.

The responsibility matrix is emphasized under Security Program Management, specifically in managing third-party relationships and cloud provider governance, ensuring both parties understand their obligations and reducing the risk of misconfigurations or operational vulnerabilities.

Integrating each SaaS solution with an Identity Provider (IdP) is the most effective way to address the security issue. This approach allows for Single Sign-On (SSO) capabilities, where users can access multiple SaaS applications with a single set of credentials while maintaining strong password policies across all services. It simplifies the user experience and ensures consistent security enforcement across different SaaS platforms.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management​.

Key escrow is a method of storing encryption keys in a secure location, such as a trusted third party or a hardware security module (HSM). Key escrow is important for FDE because it allows the recovery of encrypted data in case of lost or forgotten passwords, device theft, or hardware failure. Key escrow also enables authorized access to encrypted data for legal or forensic purposes.

TPM presence is a feature of some laptops that have a dedicated chip for storing encryption keys and other security information. TPM presence is important for FDE because it enhances the security and performance of encryption by generating and protecting the keys within the chip, rather than relying on software or external devices. TPM presence also enables features such as secure boot, remote attestation, and device authentication. 

Homomorphic encryption allows data to be encrypted and manipulated without needing to decrypt it first. This cryptographic technique would allow the financial institution to store customer data securely in the cloud while still permitting operations like searching andcalculations to be performed on the encrypted data. This ensures that the cloud service provider cannot decipher the sensitive data, meeting the institution’s security requirements.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Cryptographic Techniques​.

A VPN is a virtual private network that creates a secure tunnel between two or more devices over a public network. A VPN can encrypt and authenticate the data, as well as hide the IP addresses and locations of the devices. A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target server, such as a production server. A jump server can provide an additional layer of security and access control, as well as logging and auditing capabilities. A firewall is a device or software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can protect the internal network from external threats and limit the exposure of sensitive services and ports. A security analyst should recommend setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall to improve the security of the remote desktop access to the production network. This way, the remote desktop service will not be exposed to the public network, and only authorized users with VPN credentials can access the jump server and then the production server. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 382-383 1; Chapter 9: Network Security, page 441-442 1

A backout plan provides a documented procedure to revert or undo a change if it fails or causes issues, helping to restore the environment quickly and prevent extended downtime. Having a backout plan in place minimizes impact during failed changes.

User notification (A) informs users but does not prevent failures. Change approval (B) and risk analysis (C) occur before the change and cannot fix issues after failure.

Backout planning is a best practice in Change Management covered in Security Program Management【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

To reduce risky behaviors such as clicking suspicious emails, the first and most effective step is to implement a phishing awareness campaign that educates users about recognizing phishing attempts, the risks involved, and safe practices. Awareness training can significantly reduce successful phishing attacks by changing user behavior.

Updating policies (A) is important but does not directly affect user behavior immediately. Password management solutions (B) help with credential security but do not reduce phishing click rates. Issuing warning letters (C) is punitive and less effective than proactive education.

This approach aligns with Security Program Management principles emphasizing training and awareness as primary controls against phishing risks【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

When the government bans a vendor, the primary concern for the company’s general counsel is sanctions, which are legal restrictions that prohibit the purchase, use, import, or continued operation of products associated with restricted entities. Security+ SY0-701 stresses that compliance with government regulations and legal mandates is a critical oversight responsibility. Failure to comply may result in severe penalties, including fines, loss of contracting eligibility, and reputational damage.

During a hardware refresh, general counsel will ensure the organization is not violating federal trade sanctions, procurement laws, or export/import restrictions. Even if devices are already purchased, continued use may still violate the sanctions, creating legal liability.

Data sovereignty (B) relates to storage location requirements, not vendor bans. Cost of replacement (C) is an operational and financial concern, not a legal one. Loss of license (D) typically applies to software but is not the primary legal concern tied to a government-issued vendor ban.

Therefore, sanctions are the general counsel’s primary focus.

Input validation is a security technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the application. Input validation can prevent various types of attacks, such as injection, cross-site scripting, buffer overflow, and command execution, that exploit the vulnerabilities in the application code. Input validation can be performed on both the client-side and the server-side, using methods such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, sanitizing, escaping, and encoding. By including regular expressions in the source code to remove special characters from the variables set by the forms in the web application, the organization adopted input validation as a security technique. Regular expressions are patterns that match a specific set of characters or strings, and can be used to filter out any unwanted or harmful input. Special characters, such as $, |, ;, &, `, and ?, can be used by attackers to injectcommands or scripts into the application, and cause damage or data theft. By removing these characters from the input, the organization can reduce the risk of such attacks.

Identify embedded keys, code debugging, and static code analysis are not the security techniques that the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy. Identify embedded keys is a process of finding and removing any hard-coded keys or credentials from the source code, as these can pose a security risk if exposed or compromised. Code debugging is a process of finding and fixing any errors or bugs in the source code, which can affect the functionality or performance of the application. Static code analysis is a process of analyzing the source code without executing it, to identify any vulnerabilities, flaws, or coding standards violations. These techniques are not related to the use of regular expressions to remove special characters from the input.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 375-376; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 4.1 - Vulnerability Scanning, 8:00 - 9:08; Application Security – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2, 0:00 - 2:00.

Orchestration is the process of automating multiple tasks across different systems and applications. It can help save time and reduce human error by executing predefined workflows and scripts. In this case, the systems administrator can use orchestration to create accounts for a large number of end users without having to manually enter their information and assign permissions. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 457 1

Serverless architecture allows companies to deploy code without managing the underlying infrastructure. This approach significantly reduces the time and expense involved in code deployment because developers can focus solely on writing code, while the cloud provider manages the servers, scaling, and maintenance. Serverless computing also enables automatic scaling and pay-per-execution billing, which further optimizes costs.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course covers cloud technologies, including serverless architectures, which are highlighted as a method to streamline and reduce costs associated with code deployment​​​.

Benchmarks provide standardized security configuration baselines or templates (such as CIS Benchmarks) for systems including firewalls. Using benchmarks helps MSSPs apply consistent and secure configurations across many clients efficiently.

SNMP (A) is for network device management, Netflow (C) is for traffic analysis, and SCAP (D) is a framework for vulnerability and compliance management but not directly for template creation.

Benchmarks are fundamental for configuration management in Security Operations【6:Chapter 14†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Containment (C)is thefirst critical stepduring a security incident tostop the spreadof the attack. This could include isolating affected systems, disabling accounts, or blocking malicious traffic.

According to theIncident Response Lifecycle, the order is typically:Identification → Containment → Eradication → Recovery → Lessons Learned.

Before applying any updates or patches to a production VM, especially one with a 99% uptime SLA, it is crucial to first take a snapshot of the VM. This snapshot serves as a backup that can be quickly restored in case the update causes any issues, ensuring that the system can be returned to its previous state without violating the SLA. This step mitigates risk and is a standard best practice in change management for critical systems.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, focusing on change management and backup strategies​​.

An external examination (also known as an external audit or external review) is the best method for the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to gain an understanding of how the company’s security policies compare to external regulatory requirements. External examinations are conducted by third-party entities that assess an organization’s compliance with laws, regulations, and industry standards.

Penetration tests focus on identifying vulnerabilities, not compliance.

Internal audits assess internal controls but are not impartial or focused on regulatory requirements.

Attestation is a formal declaration but does not involve the actual evaluation of compliance​​​.

Risk identificationis the first step in the risk management process, where potential threats and vulnerabilities are analyzed to understand their impact on an organization. This includesidentifying assets, evaluating threats, and assessing potential vulnerabilities.

Risk mitigation: Reducing risk by implementing controls.

Risk treatment: Determining how to handle identified risks.

Risk monitoring and review: Ongoing evaluation of risk controls.

 An ISOW is a document that outlines the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. ISOW stands for Information Security Operations Work, and it is a type of contract that specifies the scope, deliverables, milestones, and payment terms of a security project. An ISOW is usually used for one-time or short-term projects that have a clear and defined objective and outcome. For example, an ISOW can be used for a security assessment, a penetration test, a security audit, or a security training.

The other options are not correct because they are not documents that outline the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. A MSA is a master service agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the general terms and conditions for a long-term or ongoing relationship between a security company and a client. A MSA does not specify the details of each individual project, but rather sets the framework for future projects that will be governed by separate statements of work (SOWs). A SLA is a servicelevel agreement, which is a type of contract that defines the quality and performance standards for a security service provided by a security company to a client. A SLA usually includes the metrics, targets, responsibilities, and penalties for measuring and ensuring the service level. A BPA is a business partnership agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the roles and expectations for a strategic alliance between two or more security companies that collaborate to provide a joint service to a client. A BPA usually covers the objectives, benefits, risks, and obligations of the partnership. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 387. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: Contracts and Agreements (5:12).

Port 445 is used by the SMB protocol on Windows systems. Large volumes of unexpected traffic on TCP 445 are commonly associated with worms that exploit SMB vulnerabilities (such as WannaCry or NotPetya). Worms are self-replicating malware that spread rapidly across a network, consuming bandwidth, causing high latency, and often resulting in network outages. This matches the scenario given, where network unavailability and abnormal port 445 traffic are observed.

Monitoring outbound traffic is essential for detecting unauthorized data exfiltration from a system. A new vulnerability that allows malware to move data unauthorizedly would typically attempt to send this data out of the network. By monitoring outbound traffic, security tools can detect unusual data transfers, trigger alerts, and help prevent the exfiltration of sensitive information.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Threat Detection and Response​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The described scenario is CYOD (Choose Your Own Device). In a CYOD model, employees may choose from a list of company-approved devices. These devices are vetted for compatibility, security, and organizational standards while still providing some flexibility to employees.

The SY0-701 exam differentiates CYOD from other mobile deployment models:

COPE (D) – Company-Owned, Personally Enabled: devices are company-owned and fully managed, but employees can use them personally.

MDM (A) – Mobile Device Management: a tool, not a deployment model, used for managing configurations and security on devices.

PED (C) – Portable Electronic Device: a generic category, not a deployment strategy.

CYOD strikes a balance between employee preference and maintaining a secure, standardized environment. It reduces risk associated with BYOD while avoiding the rigidity of COPE. CYOD also supports consistent patching, support, and security enforcement because all devices meet the organization’s baseline criteria.

This aligns with the Security Architecture section of SY0-701, where the exam stresses secure device deployment strategies and maintaining uniform controls over endpoint assets.

Side loading is the process of installing software outside of a manufacturer’s approved software repository. This can expose the device to potential vulnerabilities, such as malware, spyware, or unauthorized access. Side loading can also bypass security controls and policies that are enforced by the manufacturer or the organization. Side loading is often done by users who want to access applications or features that are not available or allowed on their devices. References = Sideloading - CompTIA Security + Video Training | Interface Technical Training, Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, Load Balancers – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 2.1, CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide.

SQL injection is a type of attack that exploits a database misconfiguration or a flaw in the application code that interacts with the database. An attacker can inject malicious SQL statements into the user input fields or the URL parameters that are sent to the database server. These statements can then execute unauthorized commands, such as reading, modifying, deleting, or creating data, or even taking over the database server. SQL injection can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 215 1

Restricting access to a router's web management interface is apreventive control (C). This type of control is implementedbefore a threat occursto reduce the likelihood of exploitation.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701listspreventive controlssuch asIP whitelisting, ACLs, and firewallsunderDomain 1.4: Security controls.

802.1X is a network access control protocol that provides an authentication mechanism to devices trying to connect to a LAN or WLAN. It supports the use of certificates for authentication, can quarantine unapproved devices, and ensures that only approved and updated devices can access network resources. This protocol best meets the requirements of securing both wired and wireless networks with internal certificates.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of network security and authentication protocols​​.

Detailed Explanation:Smishing is a type of phishing attack that uses SMS text messages to deceive recipients into taking actions such as revealing sensitive information. The urgency in the text indicates this vector. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 2: Threats, Section: "Social Engineering Techniques"​​.

To identify the exactcommand or input usedduring a SQL injection attack, theapplication log (B)is the most relevant. It records inputs, errors, and processing activities within the application layer.

UnderDomain 2.1, CompTIA emphasizes reviewingapplication logsto detect indicators of malicious activity, includingweb application attackslike SQL injection.

A firewall ACL (access control list) is a set of rules that determines which traffic is allowed or denied by the firewall. The rules are processed in order, from top to bottom, until a match is found. The syntax of a firewall ACL rule is:

Access list

To limit outbound DNS traffic originating from the internal network, the firewall ACL should allow only the device with the IP address 10.50.10.25 to send DNS requests to any destination on port 53, and deny all other outbound traffic on port 53. The correct firewall ACL is:

Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25/32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53

The first rule permits outbound traffic from the source address 10.50.10.25/32 (a single host) to any destination address (0.0.0.0/0) on port 53 (DNS). The second rule denies all other outbound traffic on port 532.

Compensating controls are alternative security measures that are implemented when the primary controls are not feasible, cost-effective, or sufficient to mitigate the risk. In this case, the organization used compensating controls to protect the legacy system from potential attacks by disabling unneeded services and placing a firewall in front of it. This reduced the attack surface and the likelihood of exploitation.

OSINT (Open Source Intelligence) involves collecting publicly available information, including data breaches, leaked credentials, and other exposed company data found online or on the dark web. OSINT tools can discover if a company’s information has been compromised publicly.

SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) monitors internal logs and events but does not collect external breach info. CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) is a database of known software vulnerabilities, not breach data. CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) rates vulnerabilities' severity.

OSINT is a key technique in the Threats and Vulnerabilities domain for external threat intelligence gathering【6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Hashing (C)is aone-way cryptographic functionthat produces afixed-length digestrepresenting the original data. If the file changes—even by one bit—the hash will change, making it ideal for verifyingdata integrity.

While encryption protectsconfidentiality, and masking/obfuscation protectdata visibility, onlyhashing ensures integrity.

Cryptojacking is the likely cause in this scenario. It involves malware that hijacks the resources of infected computers to mine cryptocurrency, usually without the user's knowledge. This type of attack doesn't typically degrade performance significantly or result in obvious system failures, which matches the situation described, where the machines showed no signs of degraded performance or excessive failed logins.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Cryptojacking is covered under types of malware attacks, highlighting its stealthy nature and impact on infected systems​​.

AES-256 is a symmetric encryption algorithm widely used to protect data at rest by converting plaintext into ciphertext that is unreadable without the proper key. It provides strong confidentiality and is a standard for encrypting stored data.

TLS 1.2 (A) secures data in transit, not at rest. Masking (C) obscures data but typically for display or limited use and is reversible. Salting (D) is used alongside hashing to protect passwords and data integrity but does not encrypt data.

Encryption with AES-256 is recognized as a best practice for securing stored data in the Security+ Cryptography and General Security Concepts domains【6:Chapter 7†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

AVirtual Private Network (VPN) (B)encrypts all data transmitted between remote users and the enterprise infrastructure, ensuringconfidentiality. VPNs are essential in protecting sensitive data from interception over untrusted networks.

This is covered underDomain 3.3: Secure network designs, whereVPNsare listed as a key control forensuring confidentiality of remote connections.

Purple is the team that combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques to protect an organization’s critical systems. Purple is not a separate team, but rather a collaboration between the red team and the blue team. The red team is the offensive team that simulates attacks and exploits vulnerabilities in the organization’s systems. The blue team is the defensive team that monitors and protects the organization’s systems from real and simulated threats. The purple team exists to ensure and maximize the effectiveness of the red and blue teams by integrating the defensive tactics and controls from the blue team with the threats and vulnerabilities found by the red team into a single narrative that improves the overall security posture of the organization. Red, blue, and yellow are other types of teams involved in security testing, but they do not combine both offensive and defensive techniques. The yellow team is the team that builds software solutions, scripts, and other programs that the blue team uses in the security testing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1331; Penetration Testing: Understanding Red, Blue, & Purple Teams3

Cross-site scripting (XSS) occurs when a web application fails to properly validate or sanitize user input, allowing attackers to inject malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users. The most effective remediation is input validation, which ensures that only safe, expected data is accepted by the application.

Security+ SY0-701 highlights input validation as a primary defense against:

XSS

SQL injection

Command injection

Path traversal attacks

By validating and sanitizing input at both the client and server layers, organizations can strip harmful characters, block script tags, enforce strict data types, and ensure proper encoding.

A NGFW (B) or WAF (D) can mitigate attacks by blocking malicious payloads, but they do not fix the root cause within the web application. A vulnerability scan (C) identifies the issue but does not remediate it.

Therefore, only input validation (A) directly resolves the underlying coding flaw responsible for XSS.

Encrypting hard drives is a direct implementation of confidentiality, one of the three pillars of the CIA Triad emphasized in CompTIA Security+ SY0-701. Full disk encryption ensures that if a laptop, workstation, or server drive is stolen or accessed without authorization, the data remains unreadable without the decryption key.

This controls unauthorized disclosure and protects sensitive business, financial, and personal information. Drive encryption is widely required for compliance frameworks such as HIPAA, PCI-DSS, and GDPR.

Integrity (A) refers to preventing unauthorized modification of data, which encryption alone does not guarantee. Authentication (B) confirms user identity, such as passwords or biometrics, but is unrelated to data-at-rest protection. Zero Trust (C) is an architectural model requiring constant verification; it is not a control for hard drive encryption.

Since the sole purpose of encrypting storage is to ensure data confidentiality, the correct answer is D.

Software-defined networking (SDN) enables microsegmentation by allowing administrators to create fine-grained, dynamic network segments at the software layer independent of physical network topology. This capability isolates workloads and controls traffic flows between segments, enhancing security within data centers and cloud environments.

Next-generation firewalls (A) provide advanced filtering and inspection but do not inherently deliver the granular segmentation flexibility of SDN. Embedded systems (C) and air-gapped systems (D) refer to specific hardware or physical isolation techniques but do not implement microsegmentation as a network control method.

The concept of microsegmentation through SDN is detailed in the Security Architecture domain of the SY0-701 exam【6:Chapter 3†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

An AI tool developed internally for automating a ticketing system represents intellectual property (IP). Security+ SY0-701 defines IP as proprietary creations developed by an organization, such as software, machine learning models, algorithms, and trade secrets. This type of data must be protected because it provides competitive advantage and is often contractually bound.

The scenario notes the tool is developed under a specific contract, meaning it is bound by ownership, licensing, and confidentiality agreements. Protecting IP is critical to prevent theft, unauthorized reuse, or compromise that could affect legal obligations or business value.

Classified (A) refers to government-protected national security information. Regulated information (B) includes data covered by laws such as HIPAA or PCI-DSS. Open source (C) refers to publicly shared code, which this AI tool is not.

Thus, the correct category for this data is D: Intellectual property.