CompTIA FC0-U71 CompTIA Tech+ Certification Exam Exam Practice Test

RAM (Random Access Memory) in smartphones and computers is most commonly measured in gigabytes (GB) today. Typical smartphone RAM ranges from 2GB to 16GB depending on performance and price.

“Memory capacity in modern devices like smartphones is measured in gigabytes (GB), reflecting their need to support multitasking and app usage.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Resources

Other options:

KB and MB were used in earlier computing generations.

TB is used for storage, not RAM.

Correct answer: A

The CompTIA troubleshooting methodology is clearly outlined:

"Once a theory of probable cause has been established, the next step is to test that theory."

Testing confirms whether the identified potential cause is correct before proceeding with action planning, repairs, or documentation.

This scenario describes a policy where the system enforces password expiration, prompting users to update passwords after a defined period.

“Password expiration is a security policy that requires users to reset their passwords periodically—commonly 30, 60, or 90 days—to mitigate the risk of compromised credentials.” — CompTIA ITF+ Objectives

Password privacy refers to keeping the password confidential.

Password history restricts reuse of old passwords.

Password complexity enforces character rules (e.g., uppercase, numbers, symbols).

Correct answer: D

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025):

“The rules and structure of the database are called its schema. It defines the tables, forms, reports, queries, data types allowed, and pretty much everything else about the database.”

It also clarifies:

“The logical schema outlines the structure of the database, such as the tables and their fields (columns), and relationships between tables.”

Thus, an outline of a database’s structure is called a schema.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 7: Database Fundamentals — “Schema” (pp. 392–393).

A hypervisor is the software or hardware platform that enables virtualization. It allows multiple operating systems (guest OSes) to run on a single physical machine.

“A hypervisor manages virtual machines on a single physical system. It enables the creation and management of guest OS environments.” — CompTIA ITF+

Correct answer: D

Although basic scanner functionality may work with default drivers, full functionality (like programmable buttons) often requires the manufacturer's software suite. Installing the correct software from the vendor ensures that all features are supported.

“Peripheral devices may require manufacturer-specific drivers and utilities to enable full feature support. Downloading from the vendor’s website ensures compatibility.” — CompTIA ITF+

In flowcharts, a diamond represents a decision point — a place where the program branches based on a yes/no or true/false condition.

“A diamond shape in a flowchart is used to depict a decision, indicating that the flow can take different paths based on a condition.” — CompTIA ITF+ Programming Concepts

Correct answer: B

A firewall can block traffic between workstations if it's not properly configured. If a user cannot connect from one device to another on the network, it is likely that the firewall settings are preventing this communication.

“Firewalls control the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. If improperly configured, they may block legitimate access between devices.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Other options:

B. Database – Not related to connectivity

C. Anti-malware – Protects from malicious software, not network configuration

D. Certificate – Used for secure communication, but not basic connectivity

Correct answer: A

The correct order of storage units from smallest to largest is:

Kilobyte (KB)

Megabyte (MB)

Terabyte (TB)

Petabyte (PB)

“A kilobyte is approximately 1,000 bytes. It is smaller than a megabyte (1 million bytes), terabyte (1 trillion bytes), or petabyte (1 quadrillion bytes).” — CompTIA ITF+ Reference

Hence, C. Kilobyte is the smallest unit listed.

In the database schema shown in the images, there are four rows (excluding the header row) representing data entries for four people (John, Jane, Allison, and Anna).

Each row represents a record in the database table, also known as a tuple. The term record refers to a complete set of fields (ID, Name, and Age) for one entry. So, counting the four rows:

John

Jane

Allison

Anna

That makes a total of 4 records in the database schema.

A printer is an output device because it receives digital data from a computer and converts it into a printed physical format (such as paper).

“Output devices display or reproduce information from the computer. Examples include monitors, speakers, and printers.” — CompTIA ITF+ Fundamentals

Correct answer: B

In the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025), the section on wireless encryption options explains:

“Exam objective 6.5 specifies that you should know Wi-Fi encryption options such as an open network, preshared key, WPA, WPA2, and WPA3… Focus on understanding that open networks are unsecure, and that WPA3 is better than WPA2, which is better than WPA.”

Further, it describes open networks as:

“Open portals pose security risks to the network and to users on the network. Use them with caution.”

Therefore, to allow anyone in the community to connect freely, the router must be set to Open (no password or encryption).

Verified Reference:

Chapter 8: Networking Concepts and Technologies — “Wireless Security Options” (pp. 470–473).

A simple static web page is best created using a markup language, such as HTML. Markup languages describe the structure and formatting of content on a web page.

“Markup languages like HTML are used to design and structure static web content. They do not contain logic or interactivity like scripting languages.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Correct answer: D

A primary key is a unique identifier for each record in a database table. It must be unique and not null across all rows. In this table, the field ID is the only column that uniquely identifies each row and does not repeat.

“A primary key is a field (or a set of fields) that uniquely identifies a record in a table. It ensures that each record can be uniquely retrieved.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Study Guide

Analysis of other options:

Month, Day, Year, and Name can have duplicate values across multiple records and therefore do not serve as unique identifiers.

Correct answer: A

The ID field contains unique values for each record and is typically used as a primary key in a database. A primary key uniquely identifies each row in a table.

Month, Day, Year, and Name may have duplicates and do not guarantee uniqueness.

An e-reader is specifically designed for reading digital books using e-ink displays, which are easy on the eyes and readable in bright sunlight. They are lightweight, power-efficient, and ideal for book reading.

“E-readers use electronic ink displays for reading digital books, providing long battery life and excellent visibility in various lighting conditions.” — CompTIA ITF+

Correct answer: B

CPU speed is measured in megahertz (MHz) or gigahertz (GHz), indicating how many million or billion cycles the processor can execute per second.

“CPU performance is commonly measured in megahertz (MHz) or gigahertz (GHz), representing the processor’s clock speed.” — CompTIA ITF+

MB is for memory/storage size.

Mbps is for network speed.

MAC is a hardware address, not a performance metric.

Correct answer: A

Encryption protects data by encoding it, so it can only be accessed or read by someone with the proper key or password. It ensures confidentiality during file transfers over insecure networks like the internet.

“Encryption is used to protect data in transit, ensuring that only authorized parties can read the content during transmission.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Essentials

Correct answer: C

Changing the router's password (particularly the Wi-Fi password) prevents unauthorized users from reconnecting to the network. It’s the most immediate and effective response.

“One of the most effective ways to secure a wireless network is by changing the default and existing passwords to prevent unauthorized access.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Topics

Calling support may help but doesn’t address the issue directly.

Decreasing signal range may reduce but not eliminate access.

Resetting the router is more disruptive and unnecessary if the password can be changed.

Correct answer: C

In terms of storage measurement hierarchy:

1TB = 1,000GB

1GB = 1,000MB

1MB = 1,000KB

Therefore:

20TB = 20,000GB

2,000GB = 2,000GB

200MB = 0.2GB

2,000KB = 0.002GB

Thus, 20TB is the largest. The CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide defines storage units in this way under data representation topics.

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025), one of the five critical steps when configuring a wireless router is to change the administrator username and password:

“The Wi-Fi Alliance lists five critical keys to setting up a secured wireless router:

Change the router’s SSID.

Change the administrator username and password. Make sure that it’s a strong password.

Enable WPA3 or WPA2 Personal.

Choose a strong security passphrase.

Connect clients using the same security mode.”

This ensures unauthorized users cannot log in to the router’s settings.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 8: Networking Concepts and Technologies — “Setting Up a Small Wireless Network” (pp. 463–467).

Installing software typically requires elevated permissions that standard user accounts do not have. The CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide explains:

“An administrator account provides full system access, including installing or removing software, changing system settings, and managing user accounts.”

The user account does not have these privileges by default.

Least privilege refers to granting only the minimum permissions necessary (which would not typically include software installation for regular users).

Single factor refers to authentication methods, not access levels.

Since the employee is denied installation due to insufficient privileges, administrator access is needed to complete the installation.

Wireless interference is often caused by environmental factors such as proximity to kitchens, which may contain microwaves and other electronic devices operating on the same 2.4 GHz frequency used by many Wi-Fi networks. The CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide explains:

“Wireless signals are subject to interference from physical objects, walls, appliances, and other electronic devices operating on the same frequency.”

“Microwave ovens and cordless phones are common sources of interference for Wi-Fi networks.”

In this case, the user's proximity to the kitchen is causing interference, not access control or standards issues.

A byte consists of exactly 8 bits. Bits (binary digits) are the smallest unit of data, and eight of them grouped together form one byte, which is used to represent characters and numbers in digital systems.

“A byte is made up of 8 bits and is the standard unit of data used to represent information such as characters in computing.” — CompTIA ITF+ Fundamentals

Correct answer: C

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025) defines hexadecimal as follows:

“The hexadecimal notational system, or base-16… In hex, the numbers 0 to 9 are used, just like in decimal. However, the letters A to F are used to represent decimal numbers 10 through 15.”

This directly confirms that hexadecimal uses digits 0–9 and letters A–F.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 6: Software Development Concepts — “Notational Systems” (pp. 357–359).

Application data refers to user-generated or application-specific files that are critical to retain. This includes saved work, preferences, and databases. These must be included in backups to ensure continuity and recovery.

“Application data and user-generated content should be prioritized in backups to ensure critical information is retained during restoration.” — CompTIA ITF+ Data Protection

Correct answer: B

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide discusses social engineering prevention:

“Social engineering relies on manipulating people rather than technology. The best protection against social engineering is user awareness and verifying identity before sharing information.”

Verifying a user’s identity via a phone call before taking any action (such as password reset or data access) is an essential safeguard against impersonation attempts.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 11: Security Best Practices — “Recognizing Social Engineering and Phishing Attacks” (pp. 586–588).

A GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) is a specialized processor designed to perform calculations related to rendering images and videos. It’s an example of a processing component.

“The GPU is a processor dedicated to graphical computations and image rendering, assisting or replacing the CPU in handling visual data.” — CompTIA ITF+ Hardware Essentials

Correct answer: C

An e-reader is designed specifically for reading digital books in a portable, lightweight format:

“E-readers are mobile devices optimized for reading electronic books, offering portability, long battery life, and digital storage of thousands of titles.”

Servers, external drives, and workstations are either not portable or not designed for reading books.

Pseudocode represents logic written in plain, human-readable language that resembles programming structure but isn’t actual code:

“Pseudocode allows programmers to design algorithms using readable statements before translating them into actual code.”

Branch and sequence refer to control flow structures, and object-oriented refers to a programming paradigm.

Web browsers store cached data to improve loading speeds and remember form inputs. If outdated credentials are appearing, clearing the cache ensures that old stored data is removed and the page loads fresh content.

“Cached data can include stored form data, which may result in outdated information being auto-filled. Clearing the browser cache resolves this.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Curriculum

Correct answer: C

This scenario describes a situation where a user has already successfully logged into the system (i.e., has been authenticated) but cannot access a particular network resource (the shared folder). This falls under the concept of authorization, which determines what actions or resources a user is permitted to access after authentication.

“Authorization is the process of granting or denying access to network resources once the user has been authenticated.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Study Guide

Authentication verifies the identity of the user (e.g., username and password).

Authorization controls access rights (e.g., shared folders, files).

Accounting tracks user activity (e.g., audit logs).

Non-repudiation ensures actions or transactions cannot be denied later.

Therefore, the correct answer is B: Authorization.

RAM allows multiple applications to run simultaneously. Insufficient RAM causes performance drops:

“When several applications are open, the system relies heavily on RAM for temporary storage of active processes.”

Storage, motherboard, or NIC do not directly handle temporary application memory while multitasking.

If a USB port is disabled in the BIOS or device manager, the system won’t detect devices connected to it. This is the most likely cause if nothing happens when a USB device is inserted.

“Hardware ports can be disabled via firmware settings or device policies, which prevents detection of peripherals.” — CompTIA ITF+ Hardware Troubleshooting

Correct answer: A

The largest unit is determined by converting all values to the same unit:

2TB = 2,000GB

100GB = 100GB

4,000MB = 4GB

50KB = 0.00005GB

Thus, 2TB is the largest. As described in the CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Study Guide:

“Data storage capacity is measured using standard units such as KB, MB, GB, and TB, where 1TB = 1,000GB.”

A relational database uses tables consisting of rows and columns where a primary key uniquely identifies each row (record). As stated in the CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide:

"Relational databases store data in tables consisting of rows and columns. Each table has a primary key, which uniquely identifies each record."

"Document and key/value databases are types of NoSQL databases and do not use primary keys in the same structured tabular format."

Non-structured databases (like object storage or big data repositories) do not enforce primary keys.

Line 10 starts with “FOR Q=1 TO 100,” which is a loop construct. It defines a loop that will run 100 times, incrementing Q from 1 to 100 and executing the enclosed lines (20 and 30).

“Loops are programming constructs that repeat a set of instructions until a condition is met. A ‘FOR’ loop is a common control structure in procedural programming.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Objectives

Other options:

Attribute applies to objects, not control flow.

Sequence is the overall flow of code lines.

Branches involve decision-making (e.g., IF/ELSE), not repetition.

Correct answer: D

Output devices display or present data to users:

“A Smart TV displays visual and audio output, qualifying it as an output device.”

Web cameras, keyboards, and microphones are input devices that capture data rather than display or present it.

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide defines:

“Devices that use radio frequency (RF) transmit a very limited range, typically only a few inches or so. This technology is fairly common in mobile payment applications. Because of the short distances involved, a related term you’ll see is near-field communication (NFC).”

NFC allows devices such as smartphones to securely transmit payment data over short distances—precisely the method used in vending machine purchases.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 2: Peripherals and Connectors — “Wireless Connections: NFC” (p. 99).

To extract specific information from a database, especially recently updated entries, a query is used. Queries filter and retrieve data based on conditions like dates, fields, or status.

“A query is a request for data or information from a database table or combination of tables.” — CompTIA ITF+ Data Management

Correct answer: B

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide lists input devices explicitly:

“Input devices include keyboards, mice, scanners, and web cameras—any device that allows the user to enter data into the computer.”

In contrast, printers and speakers are output devices, while a motherboard is an internal component.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 2: Peripherals and Connectors — “Input and Output Devices” (pp. 102–104).

An access point is a networking hardware device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network using Wi-Fi or related standards. It helps extend the range of a wireless network by creating additional coverage areas. This is directly outlined in CompTIA ITF+ documentation:

“A wireless access point (AP) is a device that allows wireless clients to connect to a wired network. It serves to extend or broaden the wireless coverage.”

In contrast:

A modem connects to the internet via an ISP.

A server provides network services, not range.

A host firewall protects a single device or network; it does not expand connectivity.

Thus, the most appropriate answer is D.

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide highlights that:

“If no sound is coming from your speakers, even after confirming they’re powered and connected, check your sound settings. The wrong output device may be selected—especially when multiple audio devices are present.”

This describes a misconfigured output—where the OS is sending audio to the wrong device (e.g., Bluetooth or HDMI).

Verified Reference:

Chapter 4: Operating Systems — “Troubleshooting Sound Devices” (pp. 232–233).