CompTIA DS0-001 CompTIA DataSys+ Certification Exam Exam Practice Test

The database structure that is a type of NoSQL database is key-value stores. Key-value stores are databases that store and manage data as pairs of keys and values. Keys are unique identifiers that locate data in the database; values are arbitrary data that can be any type or format. Key-value stores do not use any schema or structure to organize data, but rather use hash tables or indexes to enable fast and simple access to data based on keys. Key-value stores are suitable for storing large amounts of simple or unstructured data that do not require complex queries or relationships. The other options are either different types of databases or not related to database structures at all. For example, hierarchical databases are databases that store and manage data as nodes in a tree-like structure; cloud databases are databases that are hosted and accessed over the internet using cloud computing services; object-oriented databases are databases that store and manage data as objects that have attributes and methods. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.1 Given a scenario, identify common database types.

A result of an on-path attack on a system is a Wi-Fi network that redirects to clones of legitimate websites. An on-path attack is a type of attack that intercepts and modifies the traffic between two parties without their knowledge or consent. An attacker can use an on-path attack to create a rogue Wi-Fi network that mimics a legitimate one, and then redirect the users to fake websites that look like the ones they intended to visit. The attacker can then steal the users’ personal or financial information, such as usernames, passwords, credit card numbers, or bank account details. The other options are either results of different types of attacks or not related to attacks at all. For example, a website that has crashed and is no longer accessible may be a result of a denial-of-service attack, an email from an unknown source requesting bank account details may be a result of a phishing attack, and a web application that returns the addresses of its customers may be a result of a poor design or a data breach. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.4 Given a scenario, identify common types of attacks against databases.

The command that is part of DDL is CREATE. CREATE is a SQL command that belongs to the category of DDL, or Data Definition Language. DDL is a subset of SQL commands that are used to define or modify the structure or schema of a database, such as tables, columns, constraints, indexes, views, etc. CREATE is a DDL command that is used to create a new object in a database, such as a table, column, constraint, index, view, etc. For example, the following statement uses the CREATE command to create a new table called employee with four columns:

CREATE TABLE employee (

emp_id INT PRIMARY KEY,

emp_name VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL,

emp_dept VARCHAR(20),

emp_salary DECIMAL(10,2)

);

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The other options are either part of different categories of SQL commands or not SQL commands at all. For example, UPDATE is a SQL command that belongs to the category of DML, or Data Manipulation Language. DML is a subset of SQL commands that are used to manipulate or modify the data or content of a database, such as inserting, updating, deleting, or selecting data. GRANT is a SQL command that belongs to the category of DCL, or Data Control Language. DCL is a subset of SQL commands that are used to control or manage the access or permissions of users or roles on a database, such as granting or revoking privileges or roles. INSERT is a SQL command that belongs to the category of DML, or Data Manipulation Language. INSERT is a DML command that is used to insert new data into a table. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

The resource that is the best way to lock rows in SQL Server is RID. RID, or Row IDentifier, is an attribute that uniquely identifies each row in a heap table in SQL Server. A heap table is a table that does not have a clustered index, which means that the rows are not stored in any particular order. A RID consists of the file number, page number, and slot number of the row in the database. A RID can be used to lock rows in SQL Server to prevent concurrent access or modification by other transactions or users. A RID lock is a type of lock that locks a single row using its RID. A RID lock can be applied using the HOLDLOCK or XLOCK hints in a SELECT statement. The other options are either not related or not effective for this purpose. For example, TID, or Transaction IDentifier, is an attribute that uniquely identifies each transaction in a database; SID, or Security IDentifier, is an attribute that uniquely identifies each user or group in a Windows system; PID, or Process IDentifier, is an attribute that uniquely identifies each process in an operating system. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 3.0 Database Management and Maintenance, Objective 3.3 Given a scenario, implement database concurrency methods.

The correct answer is B. View. CompTIA DataSys+ documentation explains that views are virtual tables created from stored SQL queries that present data from one or more underlying tables without physically storing the data themselves. This makes views an ideal solution when users repeatedly query the same datasets and want consistent results without rewriting SQL statements.

In this scenario, the business analyst runs the same queries every quarter. By using a view, the analyst can simply query the view as if it were a table, eliminating the need to re-create complex SQL joins, filters, or aggregations each time. From a usability standpoint, views simplify access to data and reduce the likelihood of query errors, which aligns with DataSys+ objectives related to usability and abstraction.

From the database administrator’s perspective, views also help optimize disk space. Because views do not store data physically (unlike tables), they consume minimal storage while still providing a reusable query structure. This is especially important in environments where storage efficiency and performance tuning are key responsibilities of the DBA.

Option A, a table, would require duplicating data, increasing disk usage and maintenance overhead. Option C, a function, is typically used to return a calculated value and is not designed to represent reusable multi-row query results for reporting purposes. Option D, a stored procedure, can encapsulate logic and queries, but it is generally used for executing operations rather than providing a simple, queryable dataset for analysts. Stored procedures may also introduce additional complexity and are less intuitive for ad-hoc querying.

CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes views as a best practice for abstraction, security, and efficiency. They support repeated reporting needs while preserving storage resources and simplifying database management. Therefore, B. View is the most accurate and fully aligned answer.

Guage

The firewall type that allows an administrator to control traffic and make decisions based on factors such as connection information and data flow communications is stateful. A stateful firewall is a type of firewall that tracks the state of each connection and packet that passes through it, and applies rules or policies based on the context and content of the traffic. A stateful firewall can control traffic and make decisions based on factors such as source and destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, session status, application layer data, etc. The other options are either different types of firewalls or not related to firewalls at all. For example, a circuit-level firewall is a type of firewall that monitors and validates the establishment of TCP or UDP connections; a proxy firewall is a type of firewall that acts as an intermediary between the source and destination of the traffic; a packet firewall is a type of firewall that filters packets based on their header information. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.

The correct answer is C. Checking for database prerequisites. According to CompTIA DataSys+ objectives, verifying prerequisites is a critical preparatory step before installing a new database instance. Database prerequisites refer to the minimum and recommended requirements that must be met to ensure a successful installation and stable operation of the database system.

This process typically includes validating disk space availability, CPU capacity, memory (RAM), and network resources, as well as confirming operating system compatibility, required libraries, kernel parameters, and supporting services. DataSys+ emphasizes that failure to meet prerequisites can lead to installation errors, poor performance, instability, or security vulnerabilities after deployment. Therefore, DBAs are expected to thoroughly assess the environment before proceeding with installation.

Option A, performing patch management, refers to applying updates and fixes to existing systems to address bugs or security issues. This occurs after software is installed and operational, not before a new database instance is deployed. Option B, upgrading the database instance, involves moving from one version of a database to another and assumes an existing installation is already in place. Option D, provisioning the configuration, focuses on allocating and configuring resources (such as creating instances, users, or storage structures) after prerequisites have been validated.

CompTIA DataSys+ clearly separates environment validation from deployment and configuration activities. Checking prerequisites is a risk-reduction step that ensures the infrastructure can support the database workload and performance expectations from the start. It also supports capacity planning, compliance, and long-term maintainability.

Therefore, the process of verifying space, hardware, and network resources before installing a database instance is best described as checking for database prerequisites, making option C the correct and fully verified answer.

The factor that the administrator should measure to analyze a database server’s disk throughput is IOPS. IOPS, or Input/Output Operations Per Second, is a metric that measures the number of read and write operations that a disk can perform in one second. IOPS indicates the performance or speed of a disk and how well it can handle multiple requests or transactions. Higher IOPS means higher disk throughput and lower latency. IOPS can be affected by various factors, such as disk type, size, speed, cache, RAID level, etc. The other options are either not related or not sufficient for this purpose. For example, RPfvl is not a valid acronym or metric; latency is the time delay between a request and a response; reads are the number of read operations performed by a disk. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 3.0 Database Management and Maintenance, Objective 3.2 Given a scenario, monitor database performance.

The correct answer is B. The rule set was configured to allow specific IP addresses. CompTIA DataSys+ materials emphasize the importance of network security controls, particularly firewall rules and access control lists (ACLs), in regulating remote database access. In this scenario, the database server is reachable by users in Brazil but not by users in Canada, which strongly indicates that access is being selectively permitted rather than globally blocked.

Firewall rule sets are often configured using IP-based allowlists, where only approved IP addresses or IP ranges are permitted to establish a connection. If the analyst allowed the IP address range associated with Brazil but did not include the IP range used by Canadian users, connections from Canada would fail while Brazilian users would still have access. This behavior aligns precisely with selective rule-based access control, a common best practice highlighted in DataSys+ for reducing attack surfaces.

Option A is incorrect because if the perimeter network were rejecting remote connections entirely, users in Brazil would also be unable to connect. Option C is incorrect for the same reason: a firewall rule denying all connections would block access from all locations, not just Canada. Option D, server port security being disabled, would typically prevent all inbound connections to the database service, again affecting all users regardless of geography.

CompTIA DataSys+ stresses that troubleshooting connectivity issues requires identifying whether failures are global or location-specific. Location-specific failures are most commonly caused by misconfigured firewall rules, IP filtering, or regional access restrictions. In database environments that support remote access, DBAs must ensure that firewall rules are consistently applied to all authorized networks.

Therefore, the most accurate and verified explanation is that the rule set was configured to allow specific IP addresses, and the Canadian users’ IP range was not included. This makes option B the correct answer.

The option that the administrator should implement to ensure high availability of the database is replication. Replication is a process that copies and synchronizes data from one database server (the primary or source) to one or more database servers (the secondary or target). Replication helps ensure high availability of the database by providing redundancy, fault tolerance, and load balancing. If the primary server fails, the secondary server can take over and continue to serve the data without interruption or data loss. The other options are either not related or not suitable for this purpose. For example, ETL is a process that extracts, transforms, and loads data from one source to another for analysis or reporting purposes; database dumping is a process that exports the entire content of a database to a file for backup or migration purposes; backup and restore is a process that copies and recovers data from a backup device or media in case of a disaster or corruption. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.3 Given a scenario, implement replication of database management systems.

The correct answer is A. High temperatures activated the fire suppression system. According to CompTIA DataSys+ objectives, physical infrastructure protections are a critical component of database and data center reliability. CO₂ fire suppression systems are specifically designed to respond to fire-related conditions, not recovery metrics or cooling system logic. These systems are typically triggered by smoke detectors, heat sensors, or rapid temperature increases that indicate a fire or imminent fire risk following an event such as a power failure.

When a power outage occurs, backup systems such as generators and uninterruptible power supplies may activate. If these systems malfunction or generate excessive heat, temperature thresholds can be exceeded within minutes. DataSys+ materials emphasize that automated environmental controls are designed to protect equipment and data by suppressing fires quickly, often before flames are visible. CO₂ systems work by displacing oxygen, thereby extinguishing fire without damaging sensitive electronic equipment with water or chemical residue.

Options B and D are incorrect because RPO (Recovery Point Objective) and RTO (Recovery Time Objective) are disaster recovery planning metrics. RPO defines acceptable data loss measured in time, while RTO defines acceptable downtime. Neither setting directly triggers physical fire suppression systems. They are planning and policy metrics, not automated environmental controls.

Option C is also incorrect because cooling systems do not activate CO₂ fire suppression. Cooling failures may indirectly contribute to rising temperatures, but the CO₂ system itself is triggered by fire detection mechanisms, not by cooling system logic.

CompTIA DataSys+ clearly distinguishes between environmental controls (fire suppression, HVAC, power) and disaster recovery metrics (RPO, RTO). Therefore, option A best aligns with documented data center operational behavior and exam objectives.

The correct answer is D. The continuity of operations policy. CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes that when an unexpected system failure occurs—especially during critical activities such as database migrations—the primary concern is restoring services, minimizing downtime, and ensuring data availability. The continuity of operations policy (often aligned with business continuity and disaster recovery planning) provides documented guidance on how to respond to system outages and operational disruptions.

A continuity of operations policy outlines procedures, roles, and responsibilities for maintaining or rapidly restoring essential systems after an incident. This includes steps for failover, rollback procedures, recovery prioritization, communication protocols, and escalation paths. During a migration-related crash, administrators rely on this policy to determine whether to restore from backups, revert to a previous database version, activate standby systems, or follow defined recovery time objectives (RTOs) and recovery point objectives (RPOs). DataSys+ highlights these policies as critical for ensuring predictable and coordinated responses during system failures.

Option A, the data retention policy, focuses on how long data must be stored and when it can be archived or deleted. It does not provide operational guidance for handling system crashes. Option B, the access control policy, governs authentication and authorization rules and is unrelated to recovery actions. Option C, the database compliance policy, addresses regulatory and audit requirements but does not define technical recovery procedures during an outage.

CompTIA DataSys+ clearly distinguishes governance and security policies from operational resilience policies. When a database crashes during a migration, the administrator’s priority is service restoration and data integrity, both of which are addressed by continuity of operations planning.

Therefore, the systems administrator should refer to the continuity of operations policy, making option D the correct and fully verified answer.

The statement that contains an error is option B. This statement is missing the FROM clause, which specifies the table or tables from which to retrieve data. The FROM clause is a mandatory clause in a SELECT statement, unless the statement uses a subquery or a set operator. The correct syntax for option B would be:

SELECT EmpId FROM employee WHERE EmpId=90030 AND DeptId=34

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The other options are either correct or valid SQL statements. For example, option A selects the employee ID from the employee table where the employee ID is equal to 90030; option C selects all columns from the employee table where the employee ID is equal to 90030; option D selects the employee ID from the employee table without any filter condition. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

The best way for the administrator to accomplish this task is to create a materialized view. A materialized view is a type of view that stores the result of a query on one or more tables as a separate table in the database. A materialized view can aggregate data from multiple tables in a way that does not impact the original tables, and then provide this information to a department as a single source of truth. A materialized view also improves query performance and efficiency by reducing the need to recompute complex queries every time they are executed. The other options are either not suitable or not optimal for this task. For example, creating indexes on those tables may improve query performance on individual tables, but not on aggregated data; creating a new database may require additional resources and maintenance, and may introduce inconsistency or redundancy; creating a function may require additional coding and execution, and may not store the result as a separate table. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.2 Given a scenario, create database objects using scripting and programming languages.

A scenario in which a database administrator would use a relational database rather than a non-relational database is when an organization wants to maintain consistency among the data in the database. A relational database is a type of database that organizes data into tables with predefined columns and rows, and enforces rules and constraints to ensure data integrity and accuracy. A relational database also supports transactions, which are sets of operations that must be executed as a whole or not at all, to prevent data corruption or inconsistency. The other options are either not exclusive to relational databases or not relevant to the choice of database type. For example, data encryption can be applied to both relational and non-relational databases, processing complex data sets may require specialized tools or techniques that are not dependent on the database type, and storing a large number of videos, photos, and documents may be better suited for a non-relational database that can handle unstructured or semi-structured data. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.1 Given a scenario, identify and apply database structure types.

The type of RAID that would provide the best write performance if configured with the same number and type of disks is RAID 10. RAID 10, or RAID 1+0, is a type of RAID that combines mirroring and striping techniques to provide both redundancy and performance. Mirroring means that data is duplicated across two or more disks to provide fault tolerance and data protection. Striping means that data is split into blocks and distributed across two or more disks to provide faster access and throughput. RAID 10 requires at least four disks and can tolerate the failure of up to half of the disks without losing data. RAID 10 provides the best write performance among the RAID types because it can write data in parallel to multiple disks without parity calculations or overhead. The other options are either different types of RAID or not related to RAID at all. For example, RAID 3 is a type of RAID that uses striping with a dedicated parity disk to provide redundancy and performance; RAID 5 is a type of RAID that uses striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy and performance; RAID 6 is a type of RAID that uses striping with double distributed parity to provide extra redundancy and performance. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 3.0 Database Management and Maintenance, Objective 3.1 Given a scenario, perform common database maintenance tasks.

The correct answer is C. SQL injection. According to CompTIA DataSys+ objectives, web-based input mechanisms such as contact forms and online surveys represent a significant attack surface for databases if they are not properly secured. These forms commonly accept user-supplied input that is later processed by backend database queries. If input validation and parameterized queries are not correctly implemented, attackers can exploit this by injecting malicious SQL code into form fields.

SQL injection attacks allow an attacker to manipulate database queries executed by the application. This can result in unauthorized access to sensitive data, data modification, data deletion, or even full database compromise. In a healthcare environment, this risk is especially critical because patient data is highly sensitive and often protected by regulatory requirements. DataSys+ highlights SQL injection as one of the most common and dangerous database-focused attacks due to its direct impact on data confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

Option A, Denial of Service (DoS), primarily affects system availability by overwhelming resources, but it does not directly target data stored within the database. Option B, ransomware, typically requires malware execution on servers or endpoints and is not specifically tied to web form input mechanisms. Option D, brute-force attacks, focus on repeatedly guessing authentication credentials and are more closely associated with login systems rather than data entry forms or surveys.

CompTIA DataSys+ materials emphasize that databases connected to web applications must use strong input validation, stored procedures, prepared statements, and least-privilege database accounts to mitigate SQL injection risks. Because contact forms and surveys directly interact with database queries and rely on untrusted user input, SQL injection represents the most direct and realistic threat in this scenario.

Therefore, SQL injection is the attack type to which the company’s data is most vulnerable, making option C the verified and correct answer.

The concept that applies to situations that require court files to be scanned for permanent reference and original documents be stored for ten years before they can be discarded is data retention policies. Data retention policies are rules or guidelines that specify how long data should be kept and when it should be deleted or archived. Data retention policies are often based on legal, regulatory, or business requirements, and help organizations manage their data lifecycle, storage, and compliance. The other options are either not related or not specific to this situation. For example, data loss prevention is a process that aims to prevent data from being leaked, stolen, or corrupted; data classification is a process that assigns labels or categories to data based on its sensitivity, value, or risk; global regulations are laws or standards that apply to data across different countries or regions. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.1 Given a scenario, apply security principles and best practices for databases.

The correct answer is D. It allows connections to databases through scripts. CompTIA DataSys+ documentation describes PowerShell as a powerful automation and scripting language primarily used in Windows-based environments to manage systems, applications, and databases. In a database context, PowerShell enables administrators to automate repetitive tasks, execute administrative commands, and interact with databases programmatically through scripted workflows.

PowerShell is commonly used by database administrators to perform tasks such as running scheduled queries, managing database services, monitoring performance metrics, automating backups and restores, and handling user or permission management. Its strength lies in scripting and orchestration rather than providing a specific database connectivity protocol. Through scripts, PowerShell can leverage database providers, command-line utilities, or modules to connect to and manage database systems efficiently.

Option A is incorrect because Python database connectivity is handled through Python libraries and drivers, not PowerShell. Option B is also incorrect because PowerShell is not designed to enable Linux systems to connect to databases; while PowerShell Core is cross-platform, its function is still automation and scripting, not system-level database connectivity. Option C is misleading because ODBC is a database connectivity standard that can be used by many tools and languages, but PowerShell itself is not defined by its use of ODBC. While PowerShell scripts can invoke ODBC connections, that is not its primary or defining function.

CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes the role of automation tools in database operations. PowerShell fits squarely into this category by enabling DBAs to create repeatable, auditable, and scalable scripts that interact with databases and supporting infrastructure. Its use improves operational efficiency, reduces manual errors, and supports consistent database administration practices.

Therefore, the best and most accurate description of PowerShell’s function in a database environment is allowing connections and management operations through scripts, making D the correct answer.

The document that should be used to analyze the database’s structure is an ERD. An ERD, or Entity Relationship Diagram, is a graphical representation of the entities (tables), attributes (columns), and relationships (constraints) in a database. An ERD helps to visualize the structure and design of the database, as well as the dependencies and associations among the tables. An ERD can also help to evaluate the level of normalization of the database, which is a process that organizes data into tables and columns to reduce redundancy and improve consistency. By using an ERD, a database professional can consider denormalizing a database, which is a process that introduces some redundancy or duplication of data to improve performance or simplify queries. The other options are either different types of documents or not related to the database’s structure. For example, an SOP, or Standard Operating Procedure, is a document that describes the steps and procedures for performing a specific task or operation; a data dictionary is a document that describes the metadata (information about data) of a database; a UML diagram is a graphical representation of a software system or its components using the Unified Modeling Language (UML). References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.2 Given a scenario, create database objects using scripting and programming languages.

The correct answer is A. DDL statement. CompTIA DataSys+ clearly classifies the TRUNCATE statement as a Data Definition Language (DDL) operation because it affects the structure and allocation of database objects rather than manipulating individual rows in a transactional manner.

TRUNCATE is used to quickly remove all rows from a table while preserving the table structure itself. Unlike DELETE, which is a Data Manipulation Language (DML) statement that removes rows one by one and can be rolled back in many database systems, TRUNCATE operates by deallocating data pages. This makes it significantly faster and more efficient for clearing large tables, but also more destructive in nature. DataSys+ emphasizes that DDL operations are typically auto-committed, meaning they cannot be rolled back once executed in most implementations.

Option D, DML, is incorrect because DML statements (such as SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE) work at the row level and are designed for routine data manipulation within existing structures. TRUNCATE does not qualify because it bypasses row-level logging and transactional controls. Option B, DCL (Data Control Language), is used for permission and access management (e.g., GRANT, REVOKE) and has no role in data removal. Option C, MCL, is not a recognized SQL command category and is therefore invalid.

CompTIA DataSys+ materials stress the importance of understanding SQL command categories, particularly the risks associated with DDL statements. Because TRUNCATE is fast, non-transactional, and irreversible in most cases, it should be used cautiously and typically only by administrators. Its classification as DDL is essential knowledge for exam objectives related to database operations, data safety, and change management.

Therefore, the correct and verified classification of TRUNCATE is DDL, making option A the correct answer.

The tool that is used for natively running a Linux system in Windows is WSL. WSL, or Windows Subsystem for Linux, is a feature that allows users to run a Linux system natively on Windows 10 or Windows Server. WSL enables users to install and use various Linux distributions, such as Ubuntu, Debian, Fedora, etc., and run Linux commands, tools, applications, etc., without requiring a virtual machine or a dual-boot setup. WSL also provides users with interoperability and integration between Linux and Windows, such as file system access, network communication, process management, etc. WSL is useful for users who want to use Linux features or functionalities on Windows, such as development, testing, scripting, etc. The other options are either different tools or not related to running a Linux system in Windows at all. For example, Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a protocol that allows users to remotely access and control another computer or device over a network; SSH, or Secure Shell, is a protocol that allows users to securely connect and communicate with another computer or device over a network; Telnet is a protocol that allows users to interact with another computer or device over a network using a text-based interface. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.2 Given a scenario, create database objects using scripting and programming languages.

The correct answer is D. Password policies. CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes that password policies are a core component of authentication and security controls within database systems and enterprise environments. When new users are required to change their credentials for the first time, the system typically enforces predefined password rules. If the new credentials do not meet these rules, the system will reject them automatically.

Password policies define specific requirements such as minimum password length, complexity (use of uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters), password history, expiration intervals, and restrictions against using previously compromised or common passwords. In many environments, first-time password changes are subject to the strictest enforcement of these rules to ensure strong baseline security from the start of a user’s lifecycle.

Option A, identity management, focuses on the creation, provisioning, and lifecycle management of user identities across systems. While identity management systems initiate the credential change process, they do not usually enforce the detailed rules that cause a password to be rejected. Option B, access controls, govern what resources a user can access after authentication, not whether a password itself is valid. Option C, service accounts, are non-interactive accounts used by applications or services and are unrelated to new end-user credential changes.

DataSys+ documentation highlights that authentication failures during credential updates are most commonly tied to policy enforcement, not permissions or account type. This includes scenarios where users unknowingly violate complexity rules or reuse default or temporary passwords that are explicitly disallowed.

Therefore, the rejection of new credentials during a first-time password change is best explained by password policies, making option D the most accurate and verified answer according to CompTIA DataSys+ principles.

The command that the database administrator should use for this task is SELECT. The SELECT command is a SQL statement that retrieves data from one or more tables or views in a database. The SELECT command can also use various clauses or options to filter, group, sort, or aggregate data according to specific criteria or conditions. By using the SELECT command, the database administrator can obtain information about the performance of users in the sales department, such as their sales volume, revenue, commission, etc. The other options are either not related or not suitable for this task. For example, DROP is a SQL command that deletes an existing table or object from a database; UPDATE is a SQL command that modifies existing data in one or more rows of a table; DELETE is a SQL command that removes existing data from one or more rows of a table. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

The attack in which an attacker hopes to profit from locking the database software is ransomware. Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the data or files on a system or network and demands a ransom from the victim to restore them. Ransomware can target database software and lock its access or functionality until the victim pays the ransom, usually in cryptocurrency. Ransomware can cause serious damage and loss to the victim, as well as expose them to further risks or threats. Ransomware can be delivered through various methods, such as phishing emails, malicious attachments, compromised websites, etc. The other options are either different types of attacks or not related to locking database software at all. For example, spear phishing is a type of phishing attack that targets a specific individual or organization with personalized or customized emails; SQL injection is a type of attack that inserts malicious SQL statements into an input field or parameter of a web application to manipulate or compromise the underlying database; on-path is a type of attack that intercepts and modifies the data in transit between two parties on a network. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.4 Given a scenario, identify common types of attacks against databases

The ORM snippet that would return the ID, state, and country of all customers with the newest customers appearing first is option C. This snippet uses the select method to specify the columns to be returned, the order method to sort the results by ID in descending order, and the all method to fetch all the records. The other options either have syntax errors, use incorrect methods, or do not sort the results correctly. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

The correct answers are A. CPU usage and B. Memory usage. According to CompTIA DataSys+ objectives, monitoring server health is a foundational responsibility of a database administrator (DBA), and it primarily focuses on core system resources that directly impact database performance, stability, and availability. CPU and memory are the two most critical indicators of overall server health in database environments.

CPU usage reflects how much processing power is being consumed by database queries, background jobs, indexing operations, and concurrent user activity. High or sustained CPU utilization can indicate inefficient queries, missing indexes, blocking processes, or workload spikes. DataSys+ emphasizes CPU monitoring as essential for identifying performance bottlenecks and ensuring the database server can handle current and future workloads.

Memory usage is equally important because databases rely heavily on memory for caching data, query execution plans, and buffering disk I/O. Insufficient available memory can cause excessive disk reads, slower query performance, and system thrashing. DataSys+ materials highlight memory monitoring as a key metric for tuning database configurations and maintaining consistent performance.

Option C, transaction logs, are important for recovery, auditing, and troubleshooting but do not directly indicate overall server health; they reflect database activity rather than system resource status. Option D, network sniffers, are security and diagnostics tools used by network administrators, not standard DBA health metrics. Option E, domain controllers, relate to authentication infrastructure and fall outside the scope of database server health monitoring. Option F, firewall traffic, is relevant to network security monitoring, not internal server performance.

CompTIA DataSys+ clearly differentiates system health metrics (CPU, memory, disk I/O) from security and infrastructure components. For gauging server health effectively, CPU and memory usage provide the most direct, actionable insight. Therefore, A and B are the verified and correct answers.

The correct order of the steps in the database deployment process is option C. This order follows the best practices for deploying a database system, which are:

Confirm prerequisites: Check the system requirements and compatibility of the database software and tools before installation.

Install: Install the database software and tools on the target server or platform.

Configure: Configure the database settings and parameters according to the specifications and needs of the application or organization.

Connect: Connect the database to the network and other systems or applications that will access it.

Test: Test the functionality and performance of the database system and verify that it meets the expectations and requirements.

Validate: Validate the data quality and integrity of the database system and ensure that it complies with the standards and regulations.

Release: Release the database system to production and make it available for use by end-users or customers. The other options do not follow this order and may result in errors, inefficiencies, or security issues. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.1 Given a scenario, install and configure database software and tools.

 The category of SQL commands that is required to revoke access to database objects is DCL. DCL, or Data Control Language, is a subset of SQL commands that are used to control or manage the access or permissions of users or roles on a database. DCL includes commands such as GRANT and REVOKE. GRANT is a DCL command that is used to grant privileges or roles to users or roles on specific objects in a database, such as tables, views, procedures, etc. REVOKE is a DCL command that is used to revoke privileges or roles from users or roles on specific objects in a database. For example, the following statement uses the REVOKE command to revoke the SELECT privilege from user Alice on table employee:

REVOKE SELECT ON employee FROM Alice;

The other options are either different categories of SQL commands or not related to SQL commands at all. For example, IDDL is not a valid acronym or category of SQL commands; IDML is not a valid acronym or category of SQL commands; TCL, or Transaction Control Language, is a subset of SQL commands that are used to control or manage transactions on a database, such as committing or rolling back changes. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.

The constraint that is used to enforce referential integrity is foreign key. A foreign key is a column or a set of columns in a table that references the primary key of another table. A primary key is a column or a set of columns in a table that uniquely identifies each row in the table. Referential integrity is a rule that ensures that the values in the foreign key column match the values in the primary key column of the referenced table. Referential integrity helps maintain the consistency and accuracy of the data across related tables. The other options are either different types of constraints or not related to referential integrity at all. For example, a surrogate key is a column that is artificially generated to serve as a primary key, such as an auto-increment number or a GUID (Globally Unique Identifier); a unique key is a column or a set of columns in a table that uniquely identifies each row in the table, but it can have null values unlike a primary key; there is no such constraint as TID. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

The correct answer is C. Client-side. CompTIA DataSys+ explains that client-side scripting refers to code that is executed directly within the user’s web browser, rather than on a backend server or operating system shell. The most common and widely recognized client-side scripting language is JavaScript, which runs natively in modern web browsers and is used to enhance interactivity, validate input, and dynamically update content on web pages.

Client-side scripts execute after a web page is delivered to the user’s browser. This allows for immediate feedback, such as form validation, dynamic content updates, and interactive user interfaces, without requiring a round trip to the server. DataSys+ highlights client-side scripting as an important concept when discussing web applications that interact with databases, particularly because improper client-side controls can introduce security risks if not reinforced by server-side validation.

Option A, server-side scripting, runs on the web server rather than in the browser. Examples include PHP, Python, Ruby, and server-side JavaScript (such as Node.js). These scripts handle tasks like database queries, authentication, and business logic and are never executed in the browser itself. Option B, PowerShell, is a scripting and automation language used primarily in Windows environments for system and database administration tasks and cannot run inside a web browser. Option D, command-line scripting, refers to scripts executed in a terminal or shell environment, not within a browser context.

CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes the distinction between client-side and server-side execution models because of their impact on performance, security, and data handling. Understanding where code executes is critical for protecting databases from exposure and enforcing proper validation controls.

Therefore, the type of scripting that can be executed in a web browser is client-side scripting, making option C the correct and fully verified answer.

The correct answer is D. Envelope encryption. CompTIA DataSys+ describes envelope encryption as a key management and data protection method that combines the efficiency of symmetric encryption with the security and manageability of hierarchical key structures. In this approach, data is first encrypted using a data encryption key (DEK), and then the DEK itself is encrypted (or “wrapped”) using a key encryption key (KEK), often referred to as a managed root key.

Envelope encryption is widely used in enterprise database systems and cloud platforms because it provides strong security while simplifying key rotation and management. Encrypting large volumes of data directly with a root or master key would be inefficient and risky. Instead, DataSys+ explains that symmetric DEKs are used for fast data encryption, while the root key is used only to protect the DEKs. If a root key must be rotated or compromised, only the wrapped DEKs need to be re-encrypted—not the underlying data.

Option A, asymmetric encryption, uses public and private key pairs but is computationally expensive and not typically used to encrypt large datasets directly. Option B, DEK-based encryption, is incomplete because it describes only the use of data encryption keys and does not account for the additional wrapping layer that defines envelope encryption. Option C, symmetric encryption, correctly describes how data is encrypted but does not include the managed key hierarchy required by the question.

CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes envelope encryption as a best practice for data-at-rest protection, particularly in environments that require compliance, auditing, and centralized key management. It is commonly implemented using hardware security modules (HSMs) or cloud key management services.

Therefore, the method where data is encrypted with a DEK and then wrapped with a managed root key is envelope encryption, making option D the correct and fully verified answer.

The two options that have data manipulation and procedural scripting power are PL/SQL and T-SQL. PL/SQL, or Procedural Language/Structured Query Language, is an extension of SQL that adds procedural features to SQL for Oracle databases. PL/SQL allows users to create and execute stored procedures, functions, triggers, packages, etc., using variables, loops, conditions, exceptions, etc., in addition to SQL commands. PL/SQL helps improve the performance, functionality, modularity, and security of SQL queries and applications. T-SQL, or Transact-SQL, is an extension of SQL that adds procedural features to SQL for Microsoft SQL Server databases. T-SQL allows users to create and execute stored procedures, functions, triggers, etc., using variables, loops, conditions, exceptions, etc., in addition to SQL commands. T-SQL helps improve the performance, functionality, modularity, and security of SQL queries and applications. The other options are either not related or not having both data manipulation and procedural scripting power. For example, PQL, or Power Query Language, is a data analysis and transformation language for Microsoft Power BI and Excel; Advanced SQL is a term that refers to the advanced features or techniques of SQL, such as subqueries, joins, aggregations, etc.; SQL, or Structured Query Language, is a standard language for manipulating and querying data in relational databases, but it does not have procedural features. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

The index that the developer should use to prevent duplicate values from being inserted is unique. A unique index is a type of index that enforces the uniqueness of the values in one or more columns of a table. A unique index ensures that no two rows in the table have the same value or combination of values in the indexed columns. A unique index helps to maintain data integrity and avoid data duplication or inconsistency. The other options are either not related or not effective for this purpose. For example, a single column index is a type of index that involves only one column of a table, but it does not prevent duplicate values unless it is also unique; an implicit index is a type of index that is automatically created by the database system when a constraint or a primary key is defined on a column or columns of a table, but it does not prevent duplicate values unless it is also unique; a composite index is a type of index that involves two or more columns of a table, but it does not prevent duplicate values unless it is also unique. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

The backup plan that best describes the logs is weekly full, daily incremental. This means that a full backup of the entire database is performed once a week, and then only the changes made since the last backup are backed up every day. This can be inferred from the logs by looking at the size and duration of the backups. The full backups are larger and take longer than the incremental backups, and they occur every seven days. The other backup plans do not match the pattern of the logs. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.2 Given a scenario, implement backup and restoration of database management systems.