CompTIA CS0-003 CompTIA CySA+ Certification Beta Exam Exam Practice Test

The activities taken by the process with PID 1024 will provide the best insight into this potentially malicious process, based on the anomalous behavior. BGInfo.exe is a legitimate tool that displays system information on the desktop background, but it can also be used by attackers to gather information about the compromised host or to disguise malicious processes12. By monitoring the activities of PID 1024, such as the files it accesses, the network connections it makes, or the commands it executes, the analyst can determine if the process is benign or malicious.

References: bginfo.exe Windows process - What is it?, What is bginfo.exe? Is it Safe or a Virus? How to remove or fix it

A signal-shielded bag and a tamper-evident seal are tools that can be used to maintain the integrity of the mobile phone while it is transported. A signal-shielded bag prevents the phone from receiving or sending any signals that could compromise the data or evidence on the device. A tamper-evident seal ensures that the phone has not been opened or altered during the transportation. References: Mobile device forensics, Section: Acquisition

Searching for other mail users who have received the same file is the best activity to perform next, as it helps to identify and contain the scope of the ransomware attack and prevent further damage. Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts files on a system and demands payment for their decryption. Ransomware can spread through phishing emails that contain malicious attachments or links that download the ransomware. By searching for other mail users who have received the same file, the analyst can alert them not to open it, delete it from their inboxes, and scan their systems for any signs of infection. The other activities are not as urgent or effective as searching for other mail users who have received the same file, as they do not address the immediate threat of ransomware spreading or affecting more systems. Wiping the computer and reinstalling software may restore the functionality of the affected workstation, but it will also erase any evidence of the ransomware attack and make recovery of encrypted files impossible. Shutting down the email server and quarantining it from the network may stop the delivery of more phishing emails, but it will also disrupt normal communication and operations for the organization. Acquiring a bit-level image of the affected workstation may preserve the evidence of the ransomware attack, but it will not help to stop or remove the ransomware or decrypt the files.

A tabletop exercise is a type of simulation exercise that involves testing possible incident scenarios and how to react properly, without actually performing any actions or using any resources. A tabletop exercise is usually conducted by a facilitator who presents a realistic scenario to a group of participants, such as a cyberattack, a natural disaster, or a data breach. The participants then discuss and evaluate their roles, responsibilities, plans, procedures, and policies for responding to the incident, as well as the potential impacts and outcomes. A tabletop exercise can help identify strengths and weaknesses in the incident response plan, improve communication and coordination among the stakeholders, raise awareness and preparedness for potential incidents, and provide feedback and recommendations for improvement.

Sandboxing is a technique that isolates potentially malicious programs or files in a controlled environment, preventing them from affecting the rest of the system. It can help mitigate the effects of a new ransomware attack by preventing it from encrypting or deleting important data or spreading to other devices. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5, page 202; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, page 210.

A risk register typically contains details like ID, name, description, classification of information, and responsible party. It’s used for tracking identified risks and managing them.Recording details like ID, Name, Description, Classification of information, and Responsible party is typically done in a Risk Register. This document is used to identify, assess, manage, and monitor risks within an organization. It's not directly related to incident response or change control documentation.

Updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware is the best action to perform to remediate the infected device, as it helps to ensure that the device is restored to a clean and secure state and that any traces of malware are removed. Firmware is a type of software that controls the low-level functions of a hardware device, such as a motherboard, hard drive, or network card. Firmware can be updated or flashed to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security. Reimaging is a process of erasing and restoring the data on a storage device, such as a hard drive or a solid state drive, using an image file that contains a copy of the operating system, applications, settings, and files. Reimaging can help to recover from system failures, data corruption, or malware infections. Updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware can help to remediate the infected device by removing any malicious code or configuration changes that may have been made by the malware, as well as restoring any missing or damaged files or settings that may have been affected by the malware. This can help to prevent further damage, data loss, or compromise of the device or the network. The other actions are not as effective or appropriate as updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware, as they do not address the root cause of the infection or ensure that the device is fully cleaned and secured. Installing an additional malware scanner that will send email alerts to the analyst may help to detect and remove some types of malware, but it may not be able to catch all malware variants or remove them completely. It may also create conflicts or performance issues with other security tools or systems on the device. Configuring the system to use a proxy server for Internet access may help to filter or monitor some types of malicious traffic or requests, but it may not prevent or remove malware that has already infected the device or that uses other methods of communication or propagation. Deleting the user profile and restoring data from backup may help to recover some data or settings that may have been affected by the malware, but it may not remove malware that has infected other parts of the system or that has persisted on the device.

A vulnerability scan report should include information about the affected hosts, such as their IP addresses, hostnames, operating systems, and services. It should also include a risk score for each vulnerability, which indicates the severity and potential impact of the vulnerability on the host and the organization. Official References:

In a root cause analysis following unauthorized access, the initial step is usually to review relevant log files. These logs can provide critical information about how and when the attacker gained access.

The first step in a root cause analysis after a data breach is typically to review the logs. This helps the analyst understand how the attacker gained access by providing a detailed record of all events, including unauthorized or abnormal activities. Documenting the incident, interviewing employees, and identifying immediate containment actions are important steps, but they usually follow the initial log review.

Brady should be prioritized for remediation, as it has the highest risk score and the highest number of affected users. The risk score is calculated by multiplying the CVSS score by the exposure factor, which is the percentage of systems that are vulnerable to the exploit. Brady has a risk score of 9 x 0.8 = 7.2, which is higher than any other system. Brady also has 500 affected users, which is more than any other system. Therefore, patching brady would reduce the most risk and impact for the organization. The other systems have lower risk scores and lower numbers of affected users, so they can be remediated later.

According to the security policy, the company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities. Option C has the highest CVSSv3.1 Base Score of 9.8, which indicates a critical severity level. The company shall also prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data, and option C has a high impact on confidentiality (C:H). Finally, the company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available systems, and option C affects a public-facing web server. Official References:

An incident response plan is a set of predefined procedures and guidelines that an organization follows when faced with a security breach or attack. An incident response plan helps to ensure that the organization can quickly and effectively contain, analyze, eradicate, and recover from the incident, as well as prevent or minimize the damage and impact to the business operations, reputation, and customers. An incident response plan also defines the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team, the communication channels and protocols, the escalation and reporting procedures, and the tools and resources available for the incident response.

By following the company’s incident response plan, the administrator can ensure that they are following the best practices and standards for handling a security incident, and that they are coordinating and collaborating with the relevant stakeholders and authorities. Following the company’s incident response plan can also help to avoid or reduce any legal, regulatory, or contractual liabilities or penalties that may arise from the incident.

The other options are not as effective or appropriate as following the company’s incident response plan. Informing the internal incident response team (A) is a good step, but it should be done according to the company’s incident response plan, which may specify who, when, how, and what to report. Reviewing the lessons learned for the best approach © is a good step, but it should be done after the incident has been resolved and closed, not during the active response phase. Determining when the access started (D) is a good step, but it should be done as part of the analysis phase of the incident response plan, not before following the plan.

The best implementation to give the best central visibility into the events occurring throughout the corporate environment without logging in to the servers individually is B. Configure the servers to forward logs to a SIEM.

A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a security solution that helps organizations detect, analyze, and respond to security threats before they disrupt business1. SIEM tools collect, aggregate, and correlate log data from various sources across an organization’s network, such as applications, devices, servers, and users. SIEM tools also provide real-time alerts, dashboards, reports, and incident response capabilities to help security teams identify and mitigate cyberattacks2345.

By configuring the servers to forward logs to a SIEM, the security analysts can have a central view of potential threats and monitor security incidents across the corporate environment without logging in to the servers individually. This can save time, improve efficiency, and enhance security posture2345.

Deploying a database to aggregate the logging (A) may not provide the same level of analysis, correlation, and alerting as a SIEM tool. Sharing the log directory on each server to allow local access © may not be scalable or secure for a large number of servers. Automating the emailing of logs to the analysts (D) may not be timely or effective for real-time threat detection and response. Therefore, B is the best option among the choices given.

The Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) is a public repository of standardized identifiers and descriptions for common cybersecurity vulnerabilities. It helps security analysts to identify, prioritize, and report on the most critical vulnerabilities in their systems and applications. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: Cyber Threat Intelligence (CTI) is a collection of information and analysis on current and emerging cyber threats; Cyber Analytics Repository (CAR) is a knowledge base of analytics developed by MITRE based on the ATT&CK adversary model; ATT&CK is a globally-accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations.References: According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition1, one of the objectives for the exam is to “use appropriate tools and methods to manage, prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities”. The book also covers the usage and syntax of various cybersecurity frameworks and standards, such as CVE, CTI, CAR, and ATT&CK, in chapter 1. Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of each framework and standard, such as CVE, which provides a common language for describing and sharing information about vulnerabilities1, page 28. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.

Determining what attack the odd characters are indicative of is the next step that should be taken after reviewing web server logs and noticing several entries with the same time stamps, but all contain odd characters in the request line. This step can help the analyst identify the type and severity of the attack, as well as the possible source and motive of the attacker. The odd characters in the request line may indicate that the attacker is trying to exploit a vulnerability or inject malicious code into the web server or application, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, buffer overflow, or command injection. The analyst can use tools and techniques such as log analysis, pattern matching, signature detection, or threat intelligence to determine what attack the odd characters are indicative of, and then proceed to the next steps of incident response, such as containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned. Official References:

• https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
• https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
• https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

 XSS (cross-site scripting) is the vulnerability type that the security analyst is validating, as the snippet shows an attempt to inject a script tag into the web application. XSS is a web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary JavaScript code in the browser of another user who visits the vulnerable website. XSS can be used to perform various malicious actions, such as stealing cookies, session hijacking, phishing, or defacing websites. The other vulnerability types are not relevant to the snippet, as they involve different kinds of attacks. Directory traversal is an attack that allows an attacker to access files and directories that are outside of the web root folder. XXE (XML external entity) injection is an attack that allows an attacker to interfere with an application’s processing of XML data, and potentially access files or systems. SSRF (server-side request forgery) is an attack that allows an attacker to induce the server-side application to make requests to an unintended location. Official References:

• https://portswigger.net/web-security/xxe
• https://portswigger.net/web-security/ssrf
• https://cheatsheetseries.owasp.org/cheatsheets/Server_Side_Request_Forgery_Prevention_Cheat_Sheet.html

The best option to safeguard PII during an incident is to ensure permissions are limited in the investigation team and encrypt the data. This is because limiting permissions reduces the risk of unauthorized access or leakage of sensitive data, and encryption protects the data from being read or modified by anyone who does not have the decryption key. Option A is not correct because closing the data may hinder the investigation process and prevent collaboration with other parties who may need access to the data. Option C is not correct because deleting data that is no longer needed may violate legal or regulatory requirements for data retention, and may also destroy potential evidence for the incident. Option D is not correct because opening permissions to the company may expose the data to more people than necessary, increasing the risk of compromise or misuse.

References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4, “Data Protection and Privacy Practices”, page 195; CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 4.0 “Compliance and Assessment”, Objective 4.1 “Given a scenario, analyze data as part of a security incident”, Sub-objective “Data encryption”, page 23

CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition : CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0.pdf)

The best way to prevent network printers from printing pages during a vulnerability scan is to create a tailored scan for the printer subnet that excludes the ports and services that trigger the printing behavior. The other options are not effective for this purpose: performing non-credentialed scans may not reduce the impact on the printers; ignoring embedded web server ports may not cover all the possible ports that cause printing; increasing the threshold length of the scan timeout may not prevent the printing from occurring.

References: According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition1, one of the objectives for the exam is to “use appropriate tools and methods to manage, prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities”. The book also covers the usage and syntax of vulnerability scanning tools, such as Nessus, Nmap, and Qualys, in chapter 4. Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of each component in vulnerability scanning, such as credentialed vs. non-credentialed scans, port scanning, and scan scheduling1, pages 149-160. It also discusses the common issues and challenges of vulnerability scanning, such as network disruptions, false positives, and scan scope1, pages 161-162. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.

Mean time to detect (MTTD) is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system. MTTD is a metric that measures how long it takes to detect a security incident or threat from the time it occurs. MTTD can be improved by using tools and processes that can collect, correlate, analyze, and alert on security data from various sources. SIEM, SOAR, and ticketing systems are examples of such tools and processes that can help reduce MTTD and enhance security operations. Official References:

TCPDump is the best tool to prove whether the server was experiencing a DoS attack related to half-open TCP sessions consuming memory. TCPDump is a command-line tool that can capture and analyze network traffic, such as TCP, UDP, and ICMP packets. TCPDump can help the administrator to identify the source and destination of the traffic, the TCP flags and sequence numbers, the packet size and frequency, and other information that can indicate a DoS attack. A DoS attack related to half-open TCP sessions is also known as a SYN flood attack, which is a type of volumetric attack that aims to exhaust the network bandwidth or resources of the target server by sending a large amount of TCP SYN requests and ignoring the TCP SYN-ACK responses. This creates a backlog of half-open connections on the server, which consume memory and CPU resources, and prevent legitimate connections from being established12. TCPDump can help the administrator to detect a SYN flood attack by looking for a high number of TCP SYN packets with different source IP addresses, a low number of TCP SYN-ACK packets, and a very low number of TCP ACK packets34. References: SYN flood DDoS attack | Cloudflare, What is a SYN flood attack and how to prevent it? | NETSCOUT, TCPDump - A Powerful Tool for Network Analysis and Security, How to Detect a SYN Flood Attack with TCPDump

Host03 should be patched first, based on the metrics, as it has the highest risk score and the highest number of critical vulnerabilities. The risk score is calculated by multiplying the CVSS score by the exposure factor, which is the percentage of systems that are vulnerable to the exploit. Host03 has a risk score of 10 x 0.9 = 9, which is higher than any other host. Host03 also has 5 critical vulnerabilities, which are the most severe and urgent to fix, as they can allow remote code execution, privilege escalation, or data loss. The other hosts have lower risk scores and lower numbers of critical vulnerabilities, so they can be patched later.

The most likely reason for this vulnerability is B. The developer did not set proper cross-site scripting protections in the header. Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a type of web application vulnerability that allows an attacker to inject malicious code into a web page that is viewed by other users. XSS can be used to steal cookies, session tokens, credentials, or other sensitive information, or to perform actions on behalf of the victim1.

One of the common ways to prevent XSS attacks is to set proper HTTP response headers that instruct the browser how to handle the content of the web page. For example, the Content-Type header can specify the MIME type and character encoding of the web page, which can help the browser avoid interpreting data as code. The X-XSS-Protection header can enable or disable the browser’s built-in XSS filter, which can block or sanitize suspicious scripts. The Content-Security-Policy header can define a whitelist of sources and directives that control what resources and scripts can be loaded or executed on the web page2.

According to the output of Arachni, a web application security scanner framework3, it detected an XSS vulnerability in the form input ‘txtSearch’ with action This means that Arachni was able to inject a malicious script into the input field and observe its execution in the response. This indicates that the developer did not set proper cross-site scripting protections in the header of search.aspx, which allowed Arachni to bypass the browser’s default security mechanisms and execute arbitrary code on the web page.

When documenting a physical incident in a network data closet, taking photos provides a clear and immediate record of the situation, which is essential for thorough incident documentation and subsequent investigation.

Proper documentation of an incident in a data closet should include taking photos of the impacted items. This provides visual evidence and helps in understanding the physical context of the incident, which is crucial for a thorough investigation. Backing up configuration files, recording connections, and creating network diagrams, while important, are not the primary means of documenting the physical aspects of an incident.

Performing input validation before allowing submission is the best recommendation for remediation of this application vulnerability. Input validation is a technique that checks the data entered by users or attackers against a set of rules or constraints, such as data type, length, format, or range. Input validation can prevent common web application attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), or command injection, which exploit the lack of input validation to execute malicious code or commands on the server or the client side. By validating the input before allowing submission, the web application can reject or sanitize any malicious or unexpected input, and protect the user credentials and other sensitive data from being compromised12. References: Input Validation - OWASP, 4 Most Common Application Vulnerabilities and Possible Remediation

A social engineering attack is underway is the most likely explanation for the outbound traffic to a host IP that resolves to while the site’s standard VPN logon page is A social engineering attack is a technique that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or divulging information that benefit the attackers. A common type of social engineering attack is phishing, which involves sending fraudulent emails or other messages that appear to come from a legitimate source, such as a company or a colleague, and lure the recipients into clicking on malicious links or attachments, or entering their credentials or other sensitive information on fake websites. In this case, the attackers may have registered a domain name that looks similar to the company’s domain name, but with a typo (offce365 instead of office365), and set up a fake website that mimics the company’s VPN logon page. The attackers may have also sent phishing emails to the company’s employees, asking them to reset their passwords or log in to their VPN accounts using the malicious link. The security analyst should investigate the source and content of the phishing emails, and alert the employees not to click on any suspicious links or enter their credentials on any untrusted websites. Official References:

• https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
• https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
• https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

After detecting a compromised email server and unusual network traffic, the next step in incident response is containment, to prevent further damage or spread of the compromise. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Incident Response, page 197.

A successful information security program consists of several key elements that align with the organization’s goals and objectives, and address the risks and threats to its information assets. 

• Security policy implementation: This is the process of developing, documenting, and enforcing the rules and standards that govern the security of the organization’s information assets. Security policies define the scope, objectives, roles, and responsibilities of the security program, as well as the acceptable use, access control, incident response, and compliance requirements for the information assets.
• Assignment of roles and responsibilities: This is the process of identifying and assigning the specific tasks and duties related to the security program to the appropriate individuals or groups within the organization. Roles and responsibilities define who is accountable, responsible, consulted, and informed for each security activity, such as risk assessment, vulnerability management, threat detection, incident response, auditing, and reporting.
• Information asset classification: This is the process of categorizing the information assets based on their value, sensitivity, and criticality to the organization. Information asset classification helps to determine the appropriate level of protection and controls for each asset, as well as the impact and likelihood of a security breach or loss. Information asset classification also facilitates the prioritization of security resources and efforts based on the risk level of each asset.

Transfer is the risk management principle that is accomplished by purchasing cyber insurance. Transfer is a strategy that involves shifting the risk or its consequences to another party, such as an insurance company, a vendor, or a partner. Transfer does not eliminate the risk, but it reduces the potential impact or liability of the risk for the original party. Cyber insurance is a type of insurance that covers the losses and damages resulting from cyberattacks, such as data breaches, ransomware, denial-of-service attacks, or network disruptions. Cyber insurance can help transfer the risk of cyber incidents by providing financial compensation, legal assistance, or recovery services to the insured party. Official References:

• https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
• https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
• https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

The best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy policies is to ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information, such as name, email address, phone number, or employee ID. This can help protect the privacy and confidentiality of the user and prevent any potential discrimination or retaliation. Additionally, password protecting the evidence and restricting access to personnel related to the investigation can help preserve the integrity and security of the evidence and prevent any unauthorized or accidental disclosure or modification.

The first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan is to agree on the goals and objectives of the plan. The goals and objectives of the plan should define what the plan aims to achieve, such as minimizing downtime, restoring critical functions, ensuring data integrity, or meeting compliance requirements. The goals and objectives of the plan should also be aligned with the business needs and priorities of the organization and be measurable and achievable.

SOAR stands for security orchestration, automation, and response, which is a term that describes a set of tools, technologies, or platforms that can help streamline, standardize, and automate security operations and incident response processes and tasks. SOAR can help minimize human engagement and aid in process improvement in security operations by reducing manual work, human errors, response time, or complexity. SOAR can also help enhance collaboration, coordination, efficiency, or effectiveness of security operations and incident response teams.

Weaponization is the stage of the Cyber Kill Chain where the attacker creates or modifies a malicious payload to use against a target. In this case, the disgruntled open-source developer has created a logic bomb that will act as a wiper, which is a type of malware that destroys data on a system. This is an example of weaponization, as the developer has prepared a cyberweapon to sabotage the code repository.

References: The answer was based on the web search results from Bing, especially the following sources:

• Cyber Kill Chain® | Lockheed Martin, which states: “In the weaponization step, the adversary creates remote access malware weapon, such as a virus or worm, tailored to one or more vulnerabilities.”
• The Cyber Kill Chain: The Seven Steps of a Cyberattack - EC-Council, which states: “In the weaponization stage, all of the attacker’s preparatory work culminates in the creation of malware to be used against an identified target.”
• What is the Cyber Kill Chain? Introduction Guide - CrowdStrike, which states: “Weaponization: The attacker creates a malicious payload that will be delivered to the target.”

The correct answer is D. MITRE ATT&CK.

MITRE ATT&CK is a framework that maps the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of various threat actors and groups, based on real-world observations and data. MITRE ATT&CK can help a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day, as well as to align their security controls around the most relevant and prevalent threats. MITRE ATT&CK can also help the CISO to assess the effectiveness and maturity of their security posture, as well as to identify and prioritize the gaps and improvements .

The other options are not the best recommendations for mapping all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. OSSTMM (Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual) (A) is a methodology that provides guidelines and best practices for conducting security testing and auditing, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis (B) is a model that analyzes the relationships and interactions between four elements of an intrusion: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. The Diamond Model can help understand the characteristics and context of an intrusion, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) © is a project that provides resources and tools for improving the security of web applications, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups.

A sandbox environment is a safe and isolated way to analyze malware without affecting the organization’s network. An online service can provide a sandbox environment without requiring the security analyst to set up a virtual host or use an RDP session. Disconnecting and using an existing infected asset is risky and may not provide accurate results. References: Malware Analysis: Steps & Examples, Dynamic Analysis

Researching federal laws, regulatory compliance requirements, and organizational policies to document specific reporting SLAs is the best action to address the reporting issue. Reporting SLAs are service level agreements that specify the time frame and the format for notifying the relevant authorities and the affected individuals of a data breach. Reporting SLAs may vary depending on the type and severity of the breach, the type and location of the data, the industry and jurisdiction of the organization, and the internal policies of the organization. By researching and documenting the reporting SLAs for different scenarios, the organization can ensure that it complies with the legal and ethical obligations of data breach notification, and avoid any penalties, fines, or lawsuits that may result from failing to report a breach in a timely and appropriate manner12. References: When and how to report a breach: Data breach reporting best practices, Incident and Breach Management

Vulnerability 2 should be prioritized as it is exploitable, has high exploit activity, and is exposed externally according to the SMITTEN metric. References: Vulnerability Management Metrics: 5 Metrics to Start Measuring in Your Program, Section: Vulnerability Severity.

Indicators of compromise (IoCs) are pieces of data or evidence that suggest a system or network has been compromised by an attacker or malware. IoCs can include IP addresses, domain names, URLs, file hashes, registry keys, network traffic patterns, user behaviors, or system anomalies. IoCs can be used to detect, analyze, and respond to security incidents, as well as to share threat intelligence with other organizations or authorities. IoCs can produce the data needed for an executive briefing on possible threats to the organization, as they can provide information on the source, nature, scope, impact, and mitigation of the threats.

A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing the security weaknesses of a system or network. A vulnerability scan can help a security analyst to effectively identify the most security risks associated with a locally hosted server, such as missing patches, misconfigurations, outdated software, or exposed services. A vulnerability scan can also provide recommendations on how to remediate the identified vulnerabilities and improve the security posture of the server12 References: 1: What is a Vulnerability Scan? | Definition and Examples 2: Securing a server: risks, challenges and best practices - Vaadata

The next step in the remediation process after applying a software patch is validation. Validation is a process that involves verifying that the patch has been successfully applied, that it has fixed the vulnerability, and that it has not caused any adverse effects on the system or application functionality or performance. Validation can be done using various methods, such as scanning, testing, monitoring, or auditing.

The best practice that the company should follow with this proxy is to decommission the proxy. Decommissioning the proxy involves removing or disposing of the proxy from the rack and the network, as well as deleting or wiping any data or configuration on the proxy. Decommissioning the proxy can help eliminate the vulnerability on the proxy, as well as reduce the attack surface, complexity, or cost of maintaining the network. Decommissioning the proxy can also free up space or resources for other devices or systems that are in use or needed by the company.

A credentialed scan is a type of vulnerability scan that uses valid credentials to log in to the scanned systems and perform a more thorough and accurate assessment of their vulnerabilities. A credentialed scan can access more information than a non-credentialed scan, such as registry keys, patch levels, configuration settings, and installed applications. A credentialed scan can also reduce the number of false positives and false negatives, as it can verify the actual state of the system rather than relying on inference or assumptions. The other types of scans are not related to the issue of incomplete findings, as they refer to different aspects of vulnerability scanning, such as the scope, location, or frequency of the scan. An external scan is a scan that is performed from outside the network perimeter, usually from the internet. An external scan can reveal how an attacker would see the network and what vulnerabilities are exposed to the public. An external scan cannot access internal systems or resources that are behind firewalls or other security controls. A differential scan is a scan that compares the results of two scans and highlights the differences between them. A differential scan can help identify changes in the network environment, such as new vulnerabilities, patched vulnerabilities, or new devices. A differential scan does not provide a complete list of findings by itself, but rather a summary of changes. A network scan is a scan that focuses on the network layer of the OSI model and detects vulnerabilities related to network devices, protocols, services, and configurations. A network scan can discover open ports, misconfigured firewalls, unencrypted traffic, and other network-related issues. A network scan does not provide information about the application layer or the host layer of the OSI model, such as web applications or operating systems.

The Command and Control stage of the Cyber Kill Chain describes the communication between the attacker and the compromised system. The attacker may use this channel to send commands, receive data, or update malware. If the analyst discovers unusual outbound connections to an IP that was previously blocked, it may indicate that the attacker has established a command and control channel and bypassed the security controls. References: Cyber Kill Chain® | Lockheed Martin

ISO 27001 is an international standard that establishes a framework for implementing, maintaining, and improving an information security management system (ISMS). It helps organizations demonstrate their commitment to protecting their data and complying with various regulations and best practices. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: PCI DSS is a standard that focuses on protecting payment card data; COBIT is a framework that provides guidance on governance and management of enterprise IT; ITIL is a framework that provides guidance on service management and delivery.

References: According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition1, one of the objectives for the exam is to “use appropriate tools and methods to manage, prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities”. The book also covers the usage and syntax of various cybersecurity frameworks and standards, such as ISO 27001, PCI DSS, COBIT, and ITIL, in chapter 1. Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of each framework and standard, such as ISO 27001, which provides a comprehensive approach to information security management1, page 29. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.

A compensating control is an alternative measure that provides a similar level of protection as the original control, but is used when the original control is not feasible or cost-effective. In this case, the CISO should develop a compensating control to mitigate the risk of the vulnerability in the ACE software, such as implementing additional monitoring, firewall rules, or encryption, until the issue can be fixed permanently by the developers. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5, page 197; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, page 205.

The correct answer is A. Configure the server to prefer TLS 1.3 and B. Remove cipher suites that use CBC.

A padding oracle attack is a type of attack that exploits the padding validation of a cryptographic message to decrypt the ciphertext without knowing the key. A padding oracle is a system that responds to queries about whether a message has a valid padding or not, such as a web server that returns different error messages for invalid padding or invalid MAC. A padding oracle attack can be applied to the CBC mode of operation, where the attacker can manipulate the ciphertext blocks and use the oracle’s responses to recover the plaintext12.

To remediate this issue, the organization should make the following configuration changes:

• Configure the server to prefer TLS 1.3. TLS 1.3 is the latest version of the Transport Layer Security protocol, which provides secure communication between clients and servers. TLS 1.3 has several security improvements over previous versions, such as:
• Remove cipher suites that use CBC. Cipher suites are combinations of cryptographic algorithms that specify how TLS connections are secured. Cipher suites that use CBC mode are vulnerable to padding oracle attacks, as well as other attacks such as BEAST and Lucky 13. Therefore, they should be removed from the server’s configuration and replaced with cipher suites that use more secure modes of operation, such as GCM or CCM78.

The other options are not effective or necessary to remediate this issue.

Option C is not effective because configuring the server to prefer ephemeral modes for key exchange does not prevent padding oracle attacks. Ephemeral modes for key exchange are methods that generate temporary and random keys for each session, such as Diffie-Hellman or Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman. Ephemeral modes provide forward secrecy, which means that compromising the long-term keys does not affect the security of past sessions. However, ephemeral modes do not protect against padding oracle attacks, which exploit the padding validation of the ciphertext rather than the key exchange9.

Option D is not necessary because requiring client browsers to present a user certificate for mutual authentication does not prevent padding oracle attacks. Mutual authentication is a process that verifies the identity of both parties in a communication, such as using certificates or passwords. Mutual authentication enhances security by preventing impersonation or spoofing attacks. However, mutual authentication does not protect against padding oracle attacks, which exploit the padding validation of the ciphertext rather than the authentication.

Option E is not necessary because configuring the server to require HSTS does not prevent padding oracle attacks. HSTS stands for HTTP Strict Transport Security and it is a mechanism that forces browsers to use HTTPS connections instead of HTTP connections when communicating with a web server. HSTS enhances security by preventing downgrade or man-in-the-middle attacks that try to intercept or modify HTTP traffic. However, HSTS does not protect against padding oracle attacks, which exploit the padding validation of HTTPS traffic rather than the protocol.

Option F is not effective because removing cipher suites that use GCM does not prevent padding oracle attacks. GCM stands for Galois/Counter Mode and it is a mode of operation that provides both encryption and authentication for block ciphers, such as AES. GCM is more secure and efficient than CBC mode, as it prevents various types of attacks, such as padding oracle, BEAST, Lucky 13, and IV reuse attacks. Therefore, removing cipher suites that use GCM would reduce security rather than enhance it .

References:

• 1 Padding oracle attack - Wikipedia
• 2 flast101/padding-oracle-attack-explained - GitHub
• 3 A Cryptographic Analysis of the TLS 1.3 Handshake Protocol | Journal of Cryptology
• 4 Which block cipher mode of operation does TLS 1.3 use? - Cryptography Stack Exchange
• 5 The Essentials of Using an Ephemeral Key Under TLS 1.3
• 6 Guidelines for the Selection, Configuration, and Use of … - NIST
• 7 CBC decryption vulnerability - .NET | Microsoft Learn
• 8 The Padding Oracle Attack | Robert Heaton
• 9 What is Ephemeral Diffie-Hellman? | Cloudflare
• [10] What is Mutual TLS? How mTLS Authentication Works | Cloudflare
• [11] What is HSTS? HTTP Strict Transport Security Explained | Cloudflare
• [12] Galois/Counter Mode - Wikipedia
• [13] AES-GCM and its IV/nonce value - Cryptography Stack Exchange

Reviewing the code and debugging the code are two methods that can help a developer identify and fix runtime errors in the code. Reviewing the code involves checking the syntax, logic, and structure of the code for any errors or inconsistencies. Debugging the code involves running the code in a controlled environment and using tools such as breakpoints, watches, and logs to monitor the execution and find the source of errors. Both methods can help improve the quality and security of the code. 

The correct answer is B. Replace the current MD5 with SHA-256.

The vulnerability that the security analyst is able to exploit is a hash collision, which is a situation where two different files produce the same hash value. Hash collisions can allow an attacker to bypass the integrity or authentication checks that rely on hash values, and submit malicious files to the system. The web application uses MD5, which is a hashing algorithm that is known to be vulnerable to hash collisions. Therefore, the analyst should suggest replacing the current MD5 with SHA-256, which is a more secure and collision-resistant hashing algorithm.

The other options are not the best suggestions to mitigate the vulnerability with the fewest changes to the current script and infrastructure. Deploying a WAF (web application firewall) to the front of the application (A) may help protect the web application from some common attacks, but it may not prevent hash collisions or detect malicious files. Deploying an antivirus application on the hosting system © may help scan and remove malicious files from the system, but it may not prevent hash collisions or block malicious files from being submitted. Replacing the MD5 with digital signatures (D) may help verify the authenticity and integrity of the files, but it may require significant changes to the current script and infrastructure, as digital signatures involve public-key cryptography and certificate authorities.

Registry key values would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration, as the scanner appliance would not have access to the Windows Registry of the scanned systems. The Windows Registry is a database that stores configuration settings and options for the operating system and installed applications. To scan the Registry, the scanner would need to have credentials to log in to the systems and run a local agent or script. The other items would not be missing from the scan, as they can be detected by the scanner appliance without credentials. Operating system version can be identified by analyzing service banners or fingerprinting techniques. Open ports can be discovered by performing a port scan or sending probes to common ports. IP address can be obtained by resolving the hostname or using network discovery tools.

A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a tool that can help reduce the risk of shadow IT in the enterprise by providing visibility and control over cloud applications and services. A CASB can enable policy enforcement by blocking unauthorized or risky cloud applications, enforcing data loss prevention rules, encrypting sensitive data, and detecting anomalous user behavior.

The best security control to implement against sensitive information being disclosed via file sharing services is to improve employee training and awareness. Employee training and awareness can help educate employees on the risks and consequences of using file sharing services for sensitive information, as well as the policies and procedures for handling such information securely and appropriately. Employee training and awareness can also help foster a security culture and encourage employees to report any incidents or violations of information security.

An Office document with a malicious macro was opened is the most likely explanation for the suspicious activity on the company laptop, as it reflects the common technique of using macros to execute PowerShell commands that download and run malware. A macro is a piece of code that can automate tasks or perform actions in an Office document, such as a Word file or an Excel spreadsheet. Macros can be useful and legitimate, but they can also be abused by threat actors to deliver malware or perform malicious actions on the system. A malicious macro can be embedded in an Office document that is sent as an attachment in a phishing email or hosted on a compromised website. When the user opens the document, they may be prompted to enable macros or content, which will trigger the execution of the malicious code. The malicious macro can then use PowerShell, which is a scripting language and command-line shell that is built into Windows, to perform various tasks, such as downloading and running malware from a remote URL, bypassing security controls, or establishing persistence on the system. The log excerpt shows that PowerShell was used to download a string from a URL using the WebClient.DownloadString method, which is a common way to fetch and execute malicious code from the internet. The log also shows that PowerShell was used to invoke an expression (iex) that contains obfuscated code, which is another common way to evade detection and analysis. The other options are not as likely as an Office document with a malicious macro was opened, as they do not match the evidence in the log excerpt. A credential-stealing website was visited is possible, but it does not explain why PowerShell was used to download and execute code from a URL. A phishing link in an email was clicked is also possible, but it does not explain what happened after the link was clicked or how PowerShell was involved. A web browser vulnerability was exploited is unlikely, as it does not explain why PowerShell was used to download and execute code from a URL.

The malicious activity that was most likely attempted is SSRF (Server-Side Request Forgery). This is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerable web application to make requests to other resources on behalf of the web server. In this case, the attacker tried to use the fopen function to access the local loopback address (127.0.0.1) on port 16, which could be a service that is not intended to be exposed to the public. The connection was refused, indicating that the port was closed or filtered. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2: Software and Application Security, page 66.

SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) technology aggregates and analyzes activity from many different resources across your IT infrastructure. The description of correlating information from various sources and triggering notifications aligns with the capabilities of a SIEM system.

Deploying EDR on the web server and the database server to reduce the adversaries capabilities and using micro segmentation to restrict connectivity to/from the web and database servers are two compensating controls that will help contain the adversary while meeting the other requirements. A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or an attack when the primary control is not feasible or effective. EDR stands for Endpoint Detection and Response, which is a tool that monitors endpoints for malicious activity and provides automated or manual response capabilities. EDR can help contain the adversary by detecting and blocking their actions, such as data exfiltration, lateral movement, privilege escalation, or command execution. Micro segmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller segments based on policies and rules, and applies granular access controls to each segment. Micro segmentation can help contain the adversary by isolating the web and database servers from other parts of the network, and limiting the traffic that can flow between them. Official References:

• https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
• https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
• https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

USB ports are a common attack vector that can be used to deliver malware, steal data, or compromise systems. The first step to mitigate this vulnerability is to check the configurations of the company assets and disable or restrict the USB ports if possible. This will prevent unauthorized devices from being connected and reduce the attack surface. The other options are also important, but they are not the first priority in this scenario.

References:

• CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 247
• What are Attack Vectors: Definition & Vulnerabilities, section “How to secure attack vectors”
• Are there any attack vectors for a printer connected through USB in a Windows environment?, answer by user “schroeder”

The takeown command is used to take ownership of a file or folder that previously was denied access to the current user or group12. The activity observed indicates that someone has taken ownership of all files and folders under the C:\Users\Documents\HR\Employees directory, which may contain sensitive or confidential information. This could be a sign of unauthorized privileges, as the user or group may not have the legitimate right or need to access those files or folders. Taking ownership of files or folders could also enable the user or group to modify or delete them, which could affect the integrity or availability of the data.

The analyst should look at p4wnp1_aloa.lan (192.168.86.56) first, as this is the most suspicious device on the network. P4wnP1 ALOA is a tool that can be used to create a malicious USB device that can perform various attacks, such as keystroke injection, network sniffing, man-in-the-middle, or backdoor creation. The presence of a device with this name on the network could indicate that an attacker has plugged in a malicious USB device to a system and gained access to the network. Official References:

The vulnerability that should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system, is:

TSpirit: Cobain: Yes Grohl: Yes Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No

This vulnerability has three out of five metrics marked as Yes, which indicates a high severity level. The metrics Cobain, Grohl, and Novo are more important than Smear and Channing, according to the vulnerability management team. Therefore, this vulnerability poses a greater risk than the other vulnerabilities and should be patched first.

The correct answer is B. Adversary emulation.

Adversary emulation is a technique that involves mimicking the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of a specific threat actor or group to test the effectiveness of the security controls and incident response capabilities of an organization1. Adversary emulation can help identify and address the gaps and weaknesses in the security posture of an organization, as well as improve the readiness and skills of the security team. Adversary emulation can also help measure the dwell time, which is the duration that a threat actor remains undetected inside the network2.

The other options are not the best techniques to meet the CISO’s goals. Vulnerability scanning (A) is a technique that involves scanning the network and systems for known vulnerabilities, but it does not simulate a real attack or test the incident response capabilities. Passive discovery © is a technique that involves collecting information about the network and systems without sending any packets or probes, but it does not identify or exploit any vulnerabilities or test the security controls. Bug bounty (D) is a program that involves rewarding external researchers or hackers for finding and reporting vulnerabilities in an organization’s systems or applications, but it does not focus on a specific threat actor or group.

Deploying an additional layer of access controls to verify authorized individuals is the best compensating control for the authentication vulnerability that could bypass the primary control. A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or a threat when the primary control is not sufficient or feasible. A compensating control should provide a similar or greater level of protection as the primary control, and should be closely related to the vulnerability or the threat it is addressing1. In this case, the primary control is to restrict access to a sensitive database, and the vulnerability is an authentication bypass. Therefore, the best compensating control is to deploy an additional layer of access controls, such as multifactor authentication, role-based access control, or encryption, to verify the identity and the authorization of the individuals who are accessing the database. This way, the compensating control can prevent unauthorized access to the database, even if the primary control is bypassed23. Running regular penetration tests, conducting regular security awareness training, and implementing intrusion detection software are all good security practices, but they are not compensating controls for the authentication vulnerability, as they do not provide a similar or greater level of protection as the primary control, and they are not closely related to the vulnerability or the threat they are addressing. References: Compensating Controls: An Impermanent Solution to an IT … - Tripwire, What is Multifactor Authentication (MFA)? | Duo Security, Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) and Role-Based Security, [What is a Penetration Test and How Does It Work?]

Non-repudiation ensures that a message sender cannot deny the authenticity of their sent message. This is crucial in banking communications for legal and security reasons.

The goal of allowing a message recipient to prove the message's origin is non-repudiation. This ensures that the sender cannot deny the authenticity of their message. Non-repudiation is a fundamental aspect of secure messaging systems, especially in banking and financial communications.

An incident manager should work with the legal and public relations entities to ensure correct processes are adhered to when communicating incident reporting to the general public, as a best practice. The legal entity can provide guidance on the legal implications and obligations of disclosing the incident, such as compliance with data protection laws, contractual obligations, and liability issues. The public relations entity can help craft the appropriate message and tone for the public communication, as well as manage the reputation and image of the organization in the aftermath of the incident. These two entities can help the incident manager balance the need for transparency and accountability with the need for confidentiality and security12. References: Incident Communication Templates, Incident Management: Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian

The correct answer is B. It proactively facilitates real-time information sharing between the public and private sectors.

TAXII, or Trusted Automated eXchange of Intelligence Information, is a standard protocol for sharing cyber threat intelligence in a standardized, automated, and secure manner. TAXII defines how cyber threat information can be shared via services and message exchanges, such as discovery, collection management, inbox, and poll. TAXII is designed to support STIX, or Structured Threat Information eXpression, which is a standardized language for describing cyber threat information in a readable and consistent format. Together, STIX and TAXII form a framework for sharing and using threat intelligence, creating an open-source platform that allows users to search through records containing attack vectors details such as malicious IP addresses, malware signatures, and threat actors123.

The importance of implementing TAXII as part of a threat intelligence program is that it proactively facilitates real-time information sharing between the public and private sectors. By using TAXII, organizations can exchange cyber threat information with various entities, such as security vendors, government agencies, industry associations, or trusted groups. TAXII enables different sharing models, such as hub and spoke, source/subscriber, or peer-to-peer, depending on the needs and preferences of the information producers and consumers. TAXII also supports different levels of access control, encryption, and authentication to ensure the security and privacy of the shared information123.

By implementing TAXII as part of a threat intelligence program, organizations can benefit from the following advantages:

• They can receive timely and relevant information about the latest threats and vulnerabilities that may affect their systems or networks.
• They can leverage the collective knowledge and experience of other organizations that have faced similar or related threats.
• They can improve their situational awareness and threat detection capabilities by correlating and analyzing the shared information.
• They can enhance their incident response and mitigation strategies by applying the best practices and recommendations from the shared information.
• They can contribute to the overall improvement of cyber security by sharing their own insights and feedback with other organizations123.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the importance of implementing TAXII as part of a threat intelligence program.

Option A is incorrect because TAXII does not provide a structured way to gain information about insider threats. Insider threats are malicious activities conducted by authorized users within an organization, such as employees, contractors, or partners. Insider threats can be detected by using various methods, such as user behavior analysis, data loss prevention, or anomaly detection. However, TAXII is not designed to collect or share information about insider threats specifically. TAXII is more focused on external threats that originate from outside sources, such as hackers, cybercriminals, or nation-states4.

Option C is incorrect because TAXII does not exchange messages in the most cost-effective way and requires little maintenance once implemented. TAXII is a protocol that defines how messages are exchanged, but it does not specify the cost or maintenance of the exchange. The cost and maintenance of implementing TAXII depend on various factors, such as the type and number of services used, the volume and frequency of data exchanged, the security and reliability requirements of the exchange, and the availability and compatibility of existing tools and platforms. Implementing TAXII may require significant resources and efforts from both the information producers and consumers to ensure its functionality and performance5.

Option D is incorrect because TAXII is not a semi-automated solution to gather threat intelligence about competitors in the same sector. TAXII is a fully automated solution that enables the exchange of threat intelligence among various entities across different sectors. TAXII does not target or collect information about specific competitors in the same sector. Rather, it aims to foster collaboration and cooperation among organizations that share common interests or goals in cyber security. Moreover, gathering threat intelligence about competitors in the same sector may raise ethical and legal issues that are beyond the scope of TAXII.

References:

• 1 What is STIX/TAXII? | Cloudflare
• 2 What Are STIX/TAXII Standards? - Anomali Resources
• 3 What is STIX and TAXII? - EclecticIQ
• 4 What Is an Insider Threat? Definition & Examples | Varonis
• 5 Implementing STIX/TAXII - GitHub Pages
• [6] Cyber Threat Intelligence: Ethical Hacking vs Unethical Hacking | Infosec

The most likely reason to include lessons learned in an after-action report is to identify areas of improvement in the incident response process. The lessons learned process is a way of reviewing and evaluating the incident response activities and outcomes, as well as identifying and documenting any strengths, weaknesses, gaps, or best practices. Identifying areas of improvement in the incident response process can help enhance the security posture, readiness, or capability of the organization for future incidents, as well as provide feedback or recommendations on how to address any issues or challenges.

The exploit code maturity of a vulnerability is indicated by the E metric in the CVSS temporal score. The value of U means that no exploit code is available or unknown1. The other options are not related to the exploit code maturity, but to other aspects of the vulnerability, such as attack vector, scope, availability, and complexity1.

Conducting regular code reviews using OWASP best practices is the most effective action to reduce risks associated with the application development. Code reviews are a systematic examination of the source code of an application to detect and fix errors, vulnerabilities, and weaknesses that may compromise the security, functionality, or performance of the application. Code reviews can help to improve the quality and security of the code, as well as to identify and remediate common security risks, such as insufficient logging capabilities. OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a global nonprofit organization that provides free and open resources, tools, standards, and best practices for web application security. OWASP best practices for logging include following a common logging format and approach, logging relevant security events and data, protecting log data from unauthorized access or modification, and using log analysis and monitoring tools to detect and respond to security incidents. By following OWASP best practices for logging, developers can ensure that their web applications have sufficient and effective logging capabilities that can help to prevent, detect, and mitigate security threats.

References: OWASP Logging Cheat Sheet, OWASP Logging Guide, C9: Implement Security Logging and Monitoring - OWASP Foundation

SPF (Sender Policy Framework) is a DNS TXT record that lists authorized sending IP addresses for a given domain. If an email hosting provider added a new data center with new public IP addresses, the SPF record needs to be updated to include those new IP addresses, otherwise the emails from the new data center may fail SPF checks and get blocked by spam filters123 References: 1: Use DMARC to validate email, setup steps 2: How to set up SPF, DKIM and DMARC: other mail & hosting providers providers 3: Set up SPF, DKIM, or DMARC records for my hosting email

The correct answer is A. To provide metrics and test continuity controls.

A disaster recovery exercise is a simulation or a test of the disaster recovery plan, which is a set of procedures and resources that are used to restore the normal operations of an organization after a disaster or a major incident. The goal of a disaster recovery exercise is to provide metrics and test continuity controls, which are the measures that ensure the availability and resilience of the critical systems and processes of an organization. A disaster recovery exercise can help evaluate the effectiveness, efficiency, and readiness of the disaster recovery plan, as well as identify and address any gaps or issues .

The other options are not the best descriptions of the goal of a disaster recovery exercise. Verifying the roles of the incident response team (B) is a goal of an incident response exercise, which is a simulation or a test of the incident response plan, which is a set of procedures and roles that are used to detect, contain, analyze, and remediate an incident. Providing recommendations for handling vulnerabilities © is a goal of a vulnerability assessment, which is a process of identifying and prioritizing the weaknesses and risks in an organization’s systems or network. Performing tests against implemented security controls (D) is a goal of a penetration test, which is an authorized and simulated attack on an organization’s systems or network to evaluate their security posture and identify any vulnerabilities or misconfigurations.

An API endpoint is a point of entry for a communication between two different SaaS-based security tools. It allows one tool to send requests and receive responses from the other tool using a common interface. An API endpoint can be used to notify the other tool in the event a threat is detected and trigger an appropriate action. SMB share, SMTP notification, and SNMP trap are not suitable for SaaS integration security, as they are either network protocols or email services that do not provide a direct and secure communication between two different SaaS tools. References: Top 10 Best SaaS Security Tools - 2023, What is SaaS Security? A Guide to Everything SaaS Security, 6 Key Considerations for SaaS Integration Security | Prismatic, Introducing Security for Interconnected SaaS - Palo Alto Networks

The correct answer is B. Metrics.

The Metrics section of the vulnerability report provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs. The Metrics section contains the CVE dictionary entry and the CVSS base score of the vulnerability. CVE stands for Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures and it is a standardized system for identifying and naming vulnerabilities. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System and it is a standardized system for measuring and rating the severity of vulnerabilities.

The CVSS base score is a numerical value between 0 and 10 that reflects the intrinsic characteristics of a vulnerability, such as its exploitability, impact, and scope. The CVSS base score is composed of three metric groups: Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metric group captures the characteristics of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across user environments. The Base metric group consists of six metrics: Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges Required, User Interaction, Scope, and Impact. The Impact metric measures the effect of a vulnerability on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the affected resources.

In this case, the CVSS base score of the vulnerability is 9.8, which indicates a critical severity level. The Impact metric of the CVSS base score is 6.0, which indicates a high impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Therefore, the Metrics section provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs.

The other sections of the vulnerability report do not provide information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs. The Payloads section contains links to request and response payloads that demonstrate how the vulnerability can be exploited. The Payloads section can help an analyst to understand how the attack works, but it does not provide a quantitative measure of the impact. The Vulnerability section contains information about the type, group, and description of the vulnerability. The Vulnerability section can help an analyst to identify and classify the vulnerability, but it does not provide a numerical value of the impact. The Profile section contains information about the authentication, times viewed, and aggressiveness of the vulnerability. The Profile section can help an analyst to assess the risk and priority of the vulnerability, but it does not provide a specific measure of the impact on data confidentiality.

References:

• [1] CVE - Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)
• [2] Common Vulnerability Scoring System SIG
• [3] CVSS v3.1 Specification Document
• [4] CVSS v3.1 User Guide
• [5] How to Read a Vulnerability Report - Security Boulevard

Based on the events in the log, the most likely occurrence is that an adversary is performing a vulnerability scan. The log shows LDAP read operations and EDR enumerating local groups, which are indicative of an adversary scanning the system to find vulnerabilities or sensitive information. The final entry shows SMB connection attempts to multiple hosts from a single host, which could be a sign of network discovery or lateral movement. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 161; Monitor logs from vulnerability scanners, Section: Reports on Nessus vulnerability data.

An important aspect that should be included in the lessons-learned step after an incident is to identify any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures. The lessons-learned step is a process that involves reviewing and evaluating the incident response activities and outcomes, as well as identifying and documenting any strengths, weaknesses, gaps, or best practices. Identifying any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures can help enhance the security posture, readiness, or capability of the organization for future incidents

The signature of the malware is a unique identifier that can be used to compare it with known malware samples and their behaviors. Open-source threat intelligence sources provide information on various types of malware, their indicators of compromise, and their mitigation strategies. By cross-referencing the signature with these sources, the analyst can determine the type of malware and its telemetry. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: configuring the EDR to perform a full scan may not provide additional information on the malware type; transferring the malware to a sandbox environment may expose the analyst to further risks; logging in to the affected systems and running netstat may not reveal the malware activity.

References: According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition1, one of the objectives for the exam is to “use appropriate tools and methods to manage, prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities”. The book also covers the usage and syntax of EDR, a tool used for endpoint security, in chapter 5. Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of malware signatures and how they can be used to identify malware types1, page 203. It also discusses the benefits and challenges of using open-source threat intelligence sources to enhance security analysis1, page 211. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.

A discovery scan is a type of web application scanning that involves identifying active, internet-facing web applications and their URIs, without performing any intrusive or in-depth tests. This type of scan can help to understand the scope and structure of a web application before conducting more comprehensive vulnerability scans12. References: 1: OWASP Vulnerability Scanning Tools 2: CISA Web Application Scanning

The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is a framework that helps analysts to understand the relationships between the adversary, the victim, the infrastructure, and the capability involved in an attack. It also enables analytical pivoting, which is the process of moving from one piece of information to another related one, and identifies knowledge gaps that need further investigation. 

The most likely scenario occurring with the time stamps is that the NTP server is not configured on the host. NTP is the Network Time Protocol, which is used to synchronize the clocks of computers over a network. NTP uses a hierarchical system of time sources, where each level is assigned a stratum number. The most accurate time sources, such as atomic clocks or GPS receivers, are at stratum 0, and the devices that synchronize with them are at stratum 1, and so on. NTP clients can query multiple NTP servers and use algorithms to select the best time source and adjust their clocks accordingly1. If the NTP server is not configured on the host, the host will rely on its own hardware clock, which may drift over time and become inaccurate. This can cause discrepancies in the time stamps between the host and other devices on the network, such as the firewall, which may be synchronized with a different NTP server or use a different time zone. This can affect the security analysis and correlation of events, as well as the compliance and auditing of the network23. References: How the Windows Time Service Works, Time Synchronization - All You Need To Know, Firewall rules logging: a closer look at our new network compliance and …

The most volatile type of evidence that must be collected first in a computer system is running processes. Running processes are programs or applications that are currently executing on a computer system and using its resources, such as memory, CPU, disk space, or network bandwidth. Running processes are very volatile because they can change rapidly or disappear completely when the system is shut down, rebooted, logged off, or crashed. Running processes can also be affected by other processes or users that may modify or terminate them. Therefore, running processes must be collected first before any other type of evidence in a computer system

tcpdump is a command-line tool that can capture and analyze network packets from a given interface or file. The -n option prevents tcpdump from resolving hostnames, which can speed up the analysis. The -r option reads packets from a file, in this case packets.pcap. The host [IP address] filter specifies that tcpdump should only display packets that have the given IP address as either the source or the destination. This command can help the security analyst detect connections to a suspicious IP address by collecting the packet captures from the gateway. Official References:

• https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/quiz/Sample-CompTIA-CySA-test-questions-with-answers
• https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/tmxx84/passed_cysa_heres_my_experience_and_how_i_studied/

The vulnerability scan shows that the version information is visible in the http-server-header, which can be exploited by attackers to identify vulnerabilities specific to that version. Removing or obfuscating this information can enhance security.

References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Vulnerability Management, page 172; CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Vulnerability Management, page 223.

An SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a contract or agreement between a service provider and a customer that defines the expected level of service, performance, quality, and availability of the service. An SLA also specifies the responsibilities, obligations, and penalties for both parties in case of non-compliance or breach of the agreement. An SLA can help organizations to ensure that their security services are delivered in a timely and effective manner, and that any security incidents or vulnerabilities are addressed and resolved within a specified time frame. An SLA can also help to establish clear communication, expectations, and accountability between the service provider and the customer12

An MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a document that expresses a mutual agreement or understanding between two or more parties on a common goal or objective. An MOU is not legally binding, but it can serve as a basis for future cooperation or collaboration. An MOU may not be suitable for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not have the same level of enforceability, specificity, or measurability as an SLA.

Best-effort patching is an informal and ad hoc approach to applying security patches or updates to systems or software. Best-effort patching does not follow any defined process, policy, or schedule, and relies on the availability and discretion of the system administrators or users. Best-effort patching may not be effective or efficient for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not guarantee that the patches are applied correctly, consistently, or promptly. Best-effort patching may also introduce new risks or vulnerabilities due to human error, compatibility issues, or lack of testing.

Organizational governance is the framework of rules, policies, procedures, and processes that guide and direct the activities and decisions of an organization. Organizational governance can help to establish the roles, responsibilities, and accountabilities of different stakeholders within the organization, as well as the goals, values, and principles that shape the organizational culture and behavior. Organizational governance can also help to ensure compliance with internal and external standards, regulations, and laws. Organizational governance may not be sufficient for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not specify the details or metrics of the service delivery or performance. Organizational governance may also vary depending on the size, structure, and nature of the organization.

Reverse engineering is the process of analyzing a binary file to understand its structure, functionality, and behavior. It can help to identify the purpose of the binary file, such as whether it is a malicious program, a legitimate application, or a library. Reverse engineering can involve various techniques, such as disassembling, decompiling, debugging, or extracting strings or resources from the binary file123. Reverse engineering can also help to find vulnerabilities, backdoors, or hidden features in the binary file

The best action that would allow the analyst to gather intelligence without disclosing information to the attackers is to upload the binary to an air gapped sandbox for analysis. An air gapped sandbox is an isolated environment that has no connection to any external network or system. Uploading the binary to an air gapped sandbox can prevent any communication or interaction between the binary and the attackers, as well as any potential harm or infection to other systems or networks. An air gapped sandbox can also allow the analyst to safely analyze and observe the behavior, functionality, or characteristics of the binary. 

SLA stands for Service Level Agreement, which is a contract that defines the various levels of maintenance to be provided by an external business vendor in a secure environment. An SLA specifies the expectations, responsibilities, and obligations of both parties, such as the scope, quality, availability, and performance of the service, as well as the metrics and methods for measuring and reporting the service level. An SLA also outlines the penalties or remedies for any breach or failure of the service level. An SLA can help ensure that the external business vendor delivers the service in a timely, consistent, and secure manner, and that the customer receives the service that meets their needs and requirements. Official References:

• https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
• https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
• https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

SQL injection is a type of attack that injects malicious SQL statements into a web application’s input fields or parameters, in order to manipulate or access the underlying database. The request shown in the image contains an SQL injection attempt, as indicated by the “UNION SELECT” statement, which is used to combine the results of two or more queries. The attacker is trying to extract information from the database by appending the malicious query to the original one

Port 1433 is commonly used by Microsoft SQL Server, which is a database management system. A spike in traffic on this port between two IP addresses on opposite sides of a WAN connection could indicate a database replication process, which is a way of copying and distributing data from one database server to another. This could be a legitimate activity performed by an administrator, but it should be communicated to the security operations center (SOC) to avoid confusion and false alarms.

References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Security Operations, page 107; CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations, page 153.