CompTIA 220-1202 CompTIA A+ Core 2 2025 Exam Exam Practice Test

The correct answer is A. .app, because macOS applications packaged as .app files are typically self-contained application bundles. This means that all required application files are stored within a single directory that appears as one file in Finder. When the .app file is moved to the Trash, the application is effectively removed from the system.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, macOS applications are commonly distributed as .app bundles, allowing for simple installation and removal. This design contrasts with Windows, where applications often install files across multiple directories and require uninstallers.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that dragging a .app file to the Trash is generally sufficient to uninstall the software, although some applications may leave behind preference files or caches. However, from an exam perspective, .app is the only option that supports this uninstall behavior.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that .msi and .exe are Windows formats, .rpm is used by Linux package managers, and .pkg installers often install system-wide components that require a formal uninstallation process.

Because .app files support simple drag-to-trash uninstallation, A is the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet), now commonly referred to as SDS (Safety Data Sheet), is a document that provides detailed information on the properties of a particular substance. It includes safety guidelines and emergency procedures related to handling, exposure, fire hazards, and first aid—not installation or configuration instructions.

For a battery backup (UPS device), the MSDS would include emergency procedures such as what to do in case of a chemical spill, exposure to battery acid, or fire hazard due to overheating or chemical leakage. This ensures the safety of personnel and complies with hazardous materials handling regulations.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Once a malware incident has been confirmed, the immediate next step is to contain the threat. Quarantining infected systems prevents the malware from spreading to other devices and isolates the malicious code for further analysis or remediation.

B. Educating end users is important but occurs later in the incident response process.

C. Disabling System Restore is part of cleanup, not containment.

D. Updating and scanning should occur after the system is quarantined to prevent further infection or spread.

The most likely cause of repeated application installation failures on a work-issued laptop is an incorrectly configured Access Control List (ACL). In corporate environments, security policies are designed to limit what standard users can install in order to reduce malware risk, maintain compliance, and ensure system stability. These restrictions are enforced through NTFS permissions, ACLs, and Group Policy settings.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, ACLs define which users or groups have permission to read, write, modify, or execute files and directories. If a user does not have sufficient permissions to write to protected locations such as C:\Program Files, system folders, or specific registry keys, software installers will fail—even if the installer itself is legitimate and intact.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide explains that many organizations intentionally restrict installation privileges to administrators only. This prevents users from installing unauthorized or potentially harmful software. When ACLs are misconfigured or intentionally restrictive, installation attempts may fail repeatedly without clearly stating that permissions are the root cause.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that issues like a full browser cache or slow internet speeds typically affect downloads, not the execution of installers. An unformatted hard drive would prevent the operating system from functioning at all, making it irrelevant in this scenario.

Therefore, the repeated installation failure on a work laptop is best explained by incorrectly configured ACLs, making C the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Group Policyis the standard administrative tool for enforcing security and configuration settings across domain-joined systems, including disabling guest accounts.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Study Guide:

“Disabling guest accounts and applying consistent security policies across multiple machines is best achieved through Group Policy on a Windows domain.”

The correct answer is A. Check for malicious applications, because excessive data usage, device overheating, and rapid battery drain are classic indicators of mobile malware or spyware running in the background.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, malicious applications can continuously transmit data, mine cryptocurrency, or monitor user activity, all of which cause increased network usage and battery consumption—even when the device appears idle.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that the first step in mobile troubleshooting is identifying whether unauthorized or malicious apps are present. Reviewing installed applications and running a mobile security scan can quickly confirm the root cause.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual explains that disabling networks or enabling airplane mode only masks symptoms temporarily and does not remove malware. Factory resets are effective but should be used after confirming malware or if other remediation steps fail.

Because the symptoms strongly suggest malicious background activity, the most appropriate first action is to check for malicious applications, making A the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Shreddingphysically destroys the platters, making data recovery virtually impossible. It's more effective and accessible than degaussing or low-level formatting.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Physical destruction methods like shredding are the most secure options for ensuring data on failed drives cannot be recovered.”

The correct answer is C. DDoS (Distributed Denial-of-Service), because the attack involves thousands of compromised machines, commonly referred to as a botnet, generating fraudulent traffic against an online service. Although the activity includes fake purchases, the scale and distributed nature indicate an attempt to overwhelm or disrupt the service.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, DDoS attacks use multiple systems to flood a target with traffic, exhausting server resources and preventing legitimate users from accessing the service. These attacks often involve compromised devices controlled remotely.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that DDoS attacks can take many forms, including HTTP request floods and application-layer attacks that mimic legitimate user actions, such as fake transactions.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that brute-force attacks focus on credential guessing, spoofing involves identity falsification, and SQL injection targets database queries. None of those specifically require thousands of compromised machines.

Because the defining characteristics here are scale, distribution, and coordinated malicious activity, the correct classification is a DDoS attack, making C the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The net use command in Windows is used to map (assign) a shared drive from the command line. The syntax typically looks like: net use X: \server\share where X is the drive letter and \server\share is the network path.

A. pathping tests network latency and packet loss.

B. nslookup is used for DNS troubleshooting.

D. tracert shows the route packets take to reach a destination — not for drive mapping.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

RAM is an electrostatic-sensitive component. When removing or transporting RAM modules, they should be stored in antistatic bags to protect against electrostatic discharge (ESD), which can damage the memory. This is a standard best practice in hardware handling.

A. Demagnetization is not applicable to RAM.

C. Plugging in power to ground is not safe or recommended for static protection.

D. Installing identical memory pairs is applicable for dual-channel configuration, but not directly related to transporting or handling RAM.

The correct answer is C. Change the User Account Control (UAC) settings, because the credential prompt during installation indicates that the system is requesting administrative privileges. In Windows environments, UAC is designed to prevent unauthorized system changes by prompting for administrator approval when elevated permissions are required.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, UAC acts as a security boundary between standard user activities and system-level changes such as software installation. If a user does not have sufficient privileges, the system will request administrator credentials before proceeding.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that technicians can temporarily adjust UAC settings or provide proper elevation to allow legitimate installations. This is especially common in corporate environments where users operate with standard accounts.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that restarting the computer or using a different browser does not change permission requirements. Contacting the software vendor is unnecessary when the issue is clearly related to local security controls.

Because the installation is blocked by privilege restrictions enforced by UAC, adjusting User Account Control settings or providing proper elevation is the correct and most efficient resolution, making C the correct answer.

The correct answer is C. The default gateway is not set, and this is clearly indicated by the ipconfig output showing the Default Gateway: 0.0.0.0. In TCP/IP networking, the default gateway is the router address that allows a workstation to communicate with networks outside its local subnet, including the internet. Without a valid default gateway, a device can only communicate with other devices on the same local network.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, a missing or incorrect default gateway is one of the most common causes of a system being unable to access external resources. The guide explains that when a destination IP address is outside the local subnet, the workstation forwards the traffic to the default gateway. If no gateway is defined, the traffic has nowhere to go and is dropped.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide reinforces that an IP address such as 10.203.10.22 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 is valid for internal communication. The DNS suffix comptia.org is also not responsible for routing failures. DNS resolves names to IP addresses, but routing still requires a gateway.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that a subnet mask error would prevent even local communication, which is not indicated here. Because only external websites are unreachable, the absence of a default gateway is the definitive root cause.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A Potentially Unwanted Program (PUP) is software that a user may not have knowingly installed. It often gets bundled with legitimate software and installs without full disclosure. PUPs can affect performance, change system settings, or display unwanted ads but are not necessarily malicious like viruses or ransomware.

A. Viruses replicate and spread; they are generally more harmful and not "bundled" in the same way.

B. Ransomware encrypts files for payment and is deliberately malicious.

D. A Trojan disguises itself as legitimate software to perform malicious actions but is not typically pre-bundled by legitimate publishers.

Removing users from the local admin group prevents them from installing unauthorized software.

From Quentin Docter – Complete Study Guide:

“Local admin privileges allow users to install unauthorized apps. Removing them from this group restricts installations and helps prevent malware.” .

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Shreddingphysically destroys the platters, making data recovery virtually impossible. It's more effective and accessible than degaussing or low-level formatting.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Physical destruction methods like shredding are the most secure options for ensuring data on failed drives cannot be recovered.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

TheDo Not Disturbsetting in Windows Notification settings allows users to suppress all notification banners and sounds during presentations or video calls.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“Use Windows ‘Do Not Disturb’ to prevent notifications from interrupting full-screen apps like video conferencing.”

The correct answer is D. Enabling HTTPS-Only Mode, because HTTPS ensures that all communication between the browser and websites is encrypted using TLS (Transport Layer Security). This protects sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and payment details from interception.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, HTTPS encrypts data in transit, preventing attackers from eavesdropping or modifying communications. HTTPS-only modes in modern browsers block or warn users when a site does not support secure connections.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that HTTPS is essential for protecting authentication credentials and financial information, especially on public or untrusted networks. Enforcing HTTPS-only connections ensures users cannot accidentally submit data over unencrypted HTTP.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that disabling cookies or JavaScript may break website functionality but does not guarantee encryption. Pop-up blockers address nuisance behavior, not data security.

Because the objective is to encrypt browser communications and protect sensitive data, enabling HTTPS-Only Mode is the most effective and direct solution, making D the correct answer.

The correct answer is C. man, which stands for manual. The man command is used in Linux and UNIX-based operating systems to display the official documentation for commands, configuration files, and system calls. This documentation includes descriptions, syntax, available options, and usage examples.

The Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide explains that Linux relies heavily on built-in documentation accessible from the command line. The man pages are considered the authoritative reference for how a command works and what options it supports. For example, running man cp displays documentation for the file copy command.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that learning to use man is essential for Linux administration and troubleshooting. Unlike graphical help systems, man pages are always available locally and do not require internet access.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that chmod changes file permissions, cat displays file contents, and sudo allows commands to be run with elevated privileges. None of these commands provide documentation about other commands.

Because the question specifically asks about reading another command’s documentation, the Linux command designed for that exact purpose is man, making C the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Managed Detection and Response (MDR)involves outsourcing security monitoring to a third-party that uses multiple tools and analytics.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“MDR providers handle threat detection and response using a combination of advanced tools, analytics, and expert personnel.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

UPS batteries are heavy and often located at the bottom of racks to maintain balance. Safe removal requires the use of correct lifting techniques to avoid injury. OSHA and workplace safety standards emphasize ergonomic handling when dealing with heavy equipment.

A. Fire suppression readiness is important for fire safety but not specifically relevant to battery removal.

C. Antistatic bags are for electronic components, not heavy battery modules.

D. A face mask is not generally necessary unless there is a chemical leak, which is not indicated here.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Anincident reportsummarizes what happened during an outage, the timeline, the actions taken, and the resolution, which is exactly what management typically requests post-incident.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Incident reports document the events of an IT issue or outage, including detection, response, and resolution. They are crucial for post-incident review and management accountability.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)guide technicians through consistent and complete processes, including documentation.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“SOPs ensure that all required steps—such as data collection and issue description—are followed in every support interaction.”

The correct answer is A. gpedit.msc, which opens the Local Group Policy Editor. Group Policy allows administrators to configure and enforce security-related settings, including screensaver timeout, password protection, and automatic locking, across systems or user accounts.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, Group Policy is commonly used to enforce security policies such as inactivity timeouts, especially in departments handling sensitive data like finance or HR.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that screensaver timeout settings can be configured under User Configuration → Administrative Templates → Control Panel → Personalization, ensuring systems lock automatically after a defined period of inactivity.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that tools like certmgr.msc manage certificates, devmgmt.msc manages hardware devices, and perfmon.msc monitors system performance. None of these tools control user security policies.

Because the requirement is to enforce a shorter screensaver timeout for security, Group Policy Editor is the correct and professional tool, making A the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

3G networks generally do not provide the bandwidth required for seamless HD video streaming. With only two signal bars and a 3G connection, the mobile device likely cannot maintain the necessary data throughput, resulting in timeouts or buffering failures. This is a classic symptom of insufficient network speed or signal strength.

A. Lack of Wi-Fi may contribute, but the root cause is the low mobile bandwidth, not the Wi-Fi state.

B. A website subscription lapse would return an account error, not a timeout.

D. Full device storage can affect downloads but not streaming from the internet.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Highmemory usage (97%)suggests the system is overloaded with active processes. The technician should close unneeded applications to free up RAM and improve performance.

FromMike Meyers' Lab Manual:

“When memory usage is near capacity, close all non-essential programs. This can dramatically improve response time without needing hardware upgrades.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

To ensure the authenticity of a downloaded application, the most reliable method is to verify the file’s hash (e.g., SHA256, MD5) against the value provided by the legitimate vendor. If the hash values match, the file has not been altered or tampered with. This verification confirms the integrity and authenticity of the executable.

B. Process IDs are dynamic and not unique to specific software.

C. Running in safe mode doesn’t validate legitimacy—it only runs the app in a minimal environment.

D. File names can be spoofed; matching the name does not prove authenticity.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A bollard is a sturdy physical barrier—often a steel or concrete post—designed to prevent vehicles or unauthorized individuals from ramming into or entering secure areas of a building. It provides physical security and is commonly used outside entrances to prevent forced entry.

A. PIV (Personal Identity Verification) cards are used for identity access control, not physical blocking.

B. Motion lighting may deter activity but doesn’t physically prevent entry.

C. Surveillance records activity but cannot stop a forced entry.

The correct answer is C. In-place upgrades, because this migration method preserves existing user data, applications, and settings while upgrading the operating system to a newer version. Since a large percentage of users store documents locally, maintaining those files during the upgrade is a key requirement.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, an in-place upgrade replaces the operating system files while keeping user profiles, installed applications, and local data intact. This significantly reduces the risk of data loss and minimizes disruption to users.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide explains that clean installs erase the existing OS and require data backup and restoration, which is time-consuming and risky when users store files locally. Zero-touch deployments are automated but typically rely on standardized images and centralized data storage, which does not align with this scenario.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that in-place upgrades are ideal when preserving user environments is a priority and when systems already meet the requirements for the newer OS.

Because the goal is to upgrade Windows while retaining locally stored documents, in-place upgrades are the most appropriate solution, making C the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

exFATis the only listed file system that supports both read and write access across Windows, macOS, and Linux (with appropriate drivers). It’s optimized for flash storage and external drives.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“exFAT is a lightweight file system with cross-platform read/write support, ideal for use on removable drives when compatibility is essential.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In Windows, accessibility tools such as speech recognition are found under the Ease of Access settings. This section includes options for users who require assistive technologies, including screen readers, magnifiers, and voice control interfaces like speech recognition. Setting up speech recognition allows users to control the system and input text using voice commands.

A. Time and Language is for setting regional preferences and language packs.

B. Personalization adjusts themes, backgrounds, and colors.

C. System includes display, storage, notifications, and power settings, but not accessibility tools.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

If uploading fails only offsite,mobile data limits or restrictionsare the likely cause. Data caps or network management can interfere with uploads.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“When mobile users experience network issues, always check if the device has reached a data cap or roaming restriction.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A .bat file (batch file) is a script file in DOS, OS/2, and Microsoft Windows. It contains a series of commands that are executed by the command-line interpreter. In Windows environments, batch files are commonly used to automate log-in tasks, such as mapping network drives, launching applications, or setting environment variables during the user's logon process.

B. .sh is a shell script used in Linux/Unix environments.

C. .py is a Python script, which can be used for automation but is not commonly run directly at user logon in standard Windows environments.

D. .js is JavaScript, used mainly in web development and not for system-level scripting in Windows logon automation.

Host 2, Host 3, Host 4 , Host 5 ,Host 6, Host 7, Host 8 , Media Server - Stop All unwanted and malicious service (Persistance.j1zpxn Installer Service) from all the listed host and Media servers

Refer screenshot below on the required service started/stopped on host2, same service to be started and stopped across all host servers.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

Inbox mail 1 -Account Locked- Phishing - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 2 -Share your feedback - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 3 –Employee orientation - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 4 –Security Update – Spam - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 5 –Interview - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

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Ticket #8675310

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig /renew

For the Low priority ticket #8675310 (“A small yellow triangle appeared in the taskbar. I am no longer able to access network resources.”), the Windows yellow triangle on the network icon is the classic indicator of limited connectivity (often caused by a bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, missing default gateway, or DNS info not being assigned).

Correct PBQ Selections (Ticket #8675310)

Issue

Limited network connectivity

Why (CompTIA logic):

That yellow warning triangle means the NIC is connected at Layer 2 (link is up), but the system likely doesn’t have valid Layer 3 config (IP/gateway/DNS), so it can’t reach network resources.

Resolution

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

When a Windows PC can’t access network resources and shows “limited connectivity,” the fastest, lowest-risk fix is to renew DHCP so the PC can pull:

a valid IP address

default gateway

DNS servers

This directly resolves the most common root cause behind that icon.

Verify / Resolve

ipconfig /renew

Why this is the correct verification/remediation command:

ipconfig /renew is the direct command to request a fresh DHCP lease. After renewal, the user should regain access to network resources if DHCP was the issue.

What this fixes (what you’d expect to see)

Before the fix, the attachment (Output.txt) in these PBQs typically shows symptoms like:

169.254.x.x (APIPA) → DHCP failed

Missing/blank Default Gateway

DNS not present or incorrect

After ipconfig /renew, you should see a normal private IP (like 192.168.x.x / 10.x.x.x / 172.16-31.x.x) and a valid gateway/DNS.

The completed configuration:

1. Wireless AP (LAN side)

1. LAN IP: 192.168.10.1

2. Encryption: WPA2 PSK

2. Router (port-forward rule)

1. Allow TCP Any 3389

This forwards inbound RDP traffic (TCP/3389) from the Internet to the Windows PC, enabling Remote Desktop access.

3. Firewall (screened subnet side)

1. LAN IP: 10.100.0.1

4. Device placement

1. PC: place behind the router (where the port-forward rule points).

2. Game console: place on the Wireless AP (so it can use chat and extra services over WPA2 PSK).

3. Firewall: place in front of the screened subnet (with its 10.100.0.1 IP facing that subnet).

The Windows PC is placed in the screened subnet (behind the firewall) for enhanced security. Remote access to this PC requires port forwarding of TCP port 3389 (RDP), which is correctly configured through the router.

The Game Console is placed on the Wireless AP LAN, using WPA2 PSK for a secure wireless connection. Game consoles typically use peer-to-peer chat and online services that require open access without firewall restrictions, which is why the console is not placed behind the firewall.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:

Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with data and device security.

Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to support and configure network settings.

Study Guide Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 guides recommend using screened subnets (a type of DMZ) for systems needing controlled external access, such as remote desktops, while placing gaming and media devices on less restricted networks for full functionality.

1st CLI Resolution

copy "C:\Program Files\Testing\msvcp100.dll" "User-PC02\C$\Windows\System32" /v /y

2nd CLI Resolution

regsvr32 msvcp100.dll

Why These Are the Correct Choices (Exam Logic)

Why the COPY command is first

The error explicitly states MSVCP100.dll is missing

Other users can run the app → the DLL exists on another system

The fastest, least disruptive fix (preferred by CompTIA) is to:

Copy the known-good DLL into C:\Windows\System32

The /v switch verifies the copy, and /y suppresses prompts — both are enterprise-safe defaults

This restores the missing runtime dependency immediately.

Why REGSVR32 is second

After copying a DLL, Windows may not recognize or properly load it

regsvr32 registers the DLL with the operating system

This ensures:

The Testing application can properly call the runtime library

The fix persists after reboot

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig

Issue (drop-down)

Limited network connectivity

Why this matches:

“Internet Down” most commonly indicates the workstation has lost valid Layer 3 connectivity (bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, wrong gateway, etc.). In CompTIA A+ terms, this aligns best with limited connectivity symptoms (can’t reach internet resources).

Resolution (drop-down)

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

If the client has:

an expired lease

an APIPA address (169.254.x.x) because DHCP failed

an incorrect IP/gateway from a bad lease

…then the fastest first remediation is to renew DHCP to obtain a correct IP address, default gateway, and DNS servers. This is a standard CompTIA A+ troubleshooting action (quick, low-risk, high-success).

Verify/Resolve (drop-down)

ipconfig

Why this is the correct verification tool:

ipconfig is the primary Windows CLI tool to:

check current IP settings (ipconfig /all)

release/renew DHCP (ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew)

confirm you received a valid IP + gateway + DNS, which is required for internet access.

What you would do (mapped to those choices)

Using ipconfig to complete “Refresh DHCP” and confirm the fix:

Check current addressing

ipconfig /all

Look for:

Valid IPv4 (not 169.254.x.x)

Valid Default Gateway

DNS servers present

Refresh the DHCP lease

ipconfig /release

ipconfig /renew

Verify outcome

Run ipconfig again to confirm:

You now have a correct IP for the network

Default gateway is populated

If the gateway/DNS populate correctly, internet access typically returns.

First Chat Response:When the user mentions setting up a new router, the best initial response to maintain a helpful and professional tone is:

>Select reply:"I am happy to assist you today."

Second Chat Response:When the user states that they need to set up basic security settings:

>Select reply:"Is this the first router in your office?"

Third Chat Response:After learning it's a replacement router and the user is logged into the router's web page:

>Select reply:"The first thing you need to do is change the default password."

Fourth Chat Response:For the response about password settings:

>Select reply:"Create a new password with an uppercase, a lowercase, and a special character."

Fifth Chat Response:When the router prompts to reboot:

>Select reply:"Yes, reboot please."

Study Guide Reference: The CompTIA A+ Core 2 guide highlights the importance of changing default credentials and using strong password policies, particularly in SOHO environments where routers are often targeted.