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Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0) Exam Practice Test

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Total 326 questions

Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0) Questions and Answers

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Question 1

How should an SDLC be modified to address application security in a Cloud Computing environment?

Options:

A.

Integrated development environments

B.

Updated threat and trust models

C.

No modification is needed

D.

Just-in-time compilers

E.

Both B and C

Question 2

What is the primary function of Data Encryption Keys (DEK) in cloud security?

Options:

A.

To increase the speed of cloud services

B.

To encrypt application data

C.

To directly manage user access control

D.

To serve as the primary key for all cloud resources

Question 3

Any given processor and memory will nearly always be running multiple workloads, often from different tenants.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 4

Which aspect is crucial for crafting and enforcing CSP (Cloud Service Provider) policies?

Options:

A.

Integration with network infrastructure

B.

Adherence to software development practices

C.

Optimization for cost reduction

D.

Alignment with security objectives and regulatory requirements

Question 5

In which deployment model should the governance strategy consider the minimum common set of controls comprised of the Cloud Service Provider contract and the organization's internal governance agreements?

Options:

A.

Public

B.

PaaS

C.

Private

D.

IaaS

E.

Hybrid

Question 6

Who is responsible for the security of the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform?

Options:

A.

The cloud consumer

B.

The majority is covered by the consumer

C.

It depends on the agreement

D.

The responsibility is split equally

E.

The cloud provider

Question 7

Which statement best describes the impact of Cloud Computing on business continuity management?

Options:

A.

A general lack of interoperability standards means that extra focus must be placed on the security aspects of migration between Cloud providers.

B.

The size of data sets hosted at a Cloud provider can present challenges if migration to another provider becomes necessary.

C.

Customers of SaaS providers in particular need to mitigate the risks of application lock-in.

D.

Clients need to do business continuity planning due diligence in case they suddenly need to switch providers.

E.

Geographic redundancy ensures that Cloud Providers provide highly available services.

Question 8

Which of the following best describes the concept of Measured Service in cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Cloud systems allocate a fixed immutable set of measured services to each customer.

B.

Cloud systems offer elastic resources.

C.

Cloud systems provide usage reports upon request, based on manual reporting.

D.

Cloud systems automatically monitor resource usage and provide billing based on actual consumption.

Question 9

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in cybersecurity contexts?

Options:

A.

Reduces the need for security auditing

B.

Enables consistent security configurations through automation

C.

Increases manual control over security settings

D.

Increases scalability of cloud resources

Question 10

ENISA: Which is a potential security benefit of cloud computing?

Options:

A.

More efficient and timely system updates

B.

ISO 27001 certification

C.

Provider can obfuscate system O/S and versions

D.

Greater compatibility with customer IT infrastructure

E.

Lock-In

Question 11

Which of the following best describes the shared responsibility model in cloud security?

Options:

A.

Cloud providers handle physical infrastructure security while customers handle workload security.

B.

Cloud providers handle both infrastructure and workload security.

C.

Neither cloud providers nor customers are responsible for security.

D.

Customers handle both infrastructure and workload security.

Question 12

Which of the following represents a benefit of using serverless computing for new workload types?

Options:

A.

Requires short-term commitments and defers upfront costs

B.

Automatic scaling and reduced operational overhead

C.

Large initial configuration is not required

D.

Full control over underlying server environments

Question 13

CCM: In the CCM tool, ais a measure that modifies risk and includes any process, policy, device, practice or any other actions which modify risk.

Options:

A.

Risk Impact

B.

Domain

C.

Control Specification

Question 14

Why is it important to capture and centralize workload logs promptly in a cybersecurity environment?

Options:

A.

To simplify application debugging processesB Primarily to reduce data storage costs

B.

Logs may be lost during a scaling event

C.

To comply with data privacy regulations

Question 15

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

Options:

A.

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit

B.

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements

C.

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload

D.

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology

Question 16

When comparing different Cloud Service Providers (CSPs), what should a cybersecurity professional be mindful of regarding their organizational structures?

Options:

A.

All CSPs use the same organizational structure and terminology

B.

Different CSPs may have similar structures but use varying terminology

C.

CSPs have vastly different organizational structures and identical terminology

D.

Terminology difference in CSPs does not affect cybersecurity practices.

Question 17

What is the primary objective of posture management in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Automating incident response procedures

B.

Optimizing cloud cost efficiency

C.

Continuous monitoring of configurations

D.

Managing user access permissions

Question 18

Why is a service type of network typically isolated on different hardware?

Options:

A.

It requires distinct access controls

B.

It manages resource pools for cloud consumers

C.

It has distinct functions from other networks

D.

It manages the traffic between other networks

E.

It requires unique security

Question 19

How does SASE enhance traffic management when compared to traditional network models?

Options:

A.

It solely focuses on user authentication improvements

B.

It replaces existing network protocols with new proprietary ones

C.

It filters traffic near user devices, reducing the need for backhauling

D.

It requires all traffic to be sent through central data centers

Question 20

Why is consulting with stakeholders important for ensuring cloud security strategy alignment?

Options:

A.

IT simplifies the cloud platform selection process

B.

It reduces the overall cost of cloud services.

C.

It ensures that the strategy meets diverse business requirements.

D.

It ensures compliance with technical standards only.

Question 21

Which statement best describes the Data Security Lifecycle?

Options:

A.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, is strictly linear, and never varies.

B.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

C.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, is circular, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

D.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

E.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

Question 22

Which of the following is a primary benefit of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in a security context?

Options:

A.

Manual patch management

B.

Ad hoc security policies

C.

Static resource allocation

D.

Automated compliance checks

Question 23

CCM: The Cloud Service Delivery Model Applicability column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

Options:

A.

Mappings to well-known standards and frameworks

B.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

C.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

D.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

Question 24

In cloud environments, why are Management Plane Logs indispensable for security monitoring?

Options:

A.

They provide real-time threat detection and response

B.

They detail the network traffic between cloud services

C.

They track cloud administrative activities

D.

They report on user activities within applications

Question 25

Which of the following best describes a primary risk associated with the use of cloud storage services?

Options:

A.

Increased cost due to redundant data storage practices

B.

Unauthorized access due to misconfigured security settings

C.

Inherent encryption failures within all cloud storage solutions

D.

Complete data loss due to storage media degradation

Question 26

After an incident has been identified and classified, which activity is typically performed during the Containment, Eradication, and Recovery phase of incident response?

Options:

A.

Documenting lessons learned and finalizing reports

B.

Restoring systems to operational status while preventing recurrence

C.

Monitoring network traffic for anomalies

D.

Identifying and classifying security threats

Question 27

Which approach creates a secure network, invisible to unauthorized users?

Options:

A.

Firewalls

B.

Software-Defined Perimeter (SDP)

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

Question 28

Which technique is most effective for preserving digital evidence in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Analyzing management plane logs

B.

Regularly backing up data

C.

Isolating the compromised system

D.

Taking snapshots of virtual machines

Question 29

Without virtualization, there is no cloud.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 30

Which of the following statements is true in regards to Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?

Options:

A.

DLP can provide options for quickly deleting all of the data stored in a cloud environment.

B.

DLP can classify all data in a storage repository.

C.

DLP never provides options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

D.

DLP can provide options for where data is stored.

E.

DLP can provide options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

Question 31

How does DevSecOps fundamentally differ from traditional DevOps in the development process?

Options:

A.

DevSecOps removes the need for a separate security team.

B.

DevSecOps focuses primarily on automating development without security.

C.

DevSecOps reduces the development time by skipping security checks.

D.

DevSecOps integrates security into every stage of the DevOps process.

Question 32

How can the use of third-party libraries introduce supply chain risks in software development?

Options:

A.

They are usually open source and do not require vetting

B.

They might contain vulnerabilities that can be exploited

C.

They fail to integrate properly with existing continuous integration pipelines

D.

They might increase the overall complexity of the codebase

Question 33

Which approach is essential in identifying compromised identities in cloud environments where attackers utilize automated methods?

Options:

A.

Focusing exclusively on signature-based detection for known malware

B.

Deploying behavioral detectors for IAM and management plane activities

C.

Implementing full packet capture and monitoring

D.

Relying on IP address and connection header monitoring

Question 34

What is true of searching data across cloud environments?

Options:

A.

You might not have the ability or administrative rights to search or access all hosted data.

B.

The cloud provider must conduct the search with the full administrative controls.

C.

All cloud-hosted email accounts are easily searchable.

D.

Search and discovery time is always factored into a contract between the consumer and provider.

E.

You can easily search across your environment using any E-Discovery tool.

Question 35

Which aspect of a Cloud Service Provider's (CSPs) infrastructure security involves protecting the interfaces used to manage configurations and resources?

Options:

A.

Management plane

B.

Virtualization layers

C.

Physical components

D.

PaaS/SaaS services

Question 36

What are the essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by the NIST model?

Options:

A.

Resource sharing, automated recovery, universal connectivity, distributed costs, fair pricing

B.

High availability, geographical distribution, scaled tenancy, continuous resourcing, market pricing

C.

On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, measured service

D.

Equal access to dedicated hosting, isolated networks, scalability resources, and automated continuous provisioning

Question 37

Sending data to a provider’s storage over an API is likely as much more reliable and secure than setting up your own SFTP server on a VM in the same provider

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 38

In the context of incident response, which phase involves alerts validation to reduce false positives and estimates the incident's scope?

Options:

A.

Preparation

B.

Post-Incident Analysis

C.

Detection & Analysis

D.

Containment, Eradication, & Recovery

Question 39

Why is governance crucial in balancing the speed of adoption with risk control in cybersecurity initiatives?

Options:

A.

Only involves senior management in decision-making

B.

Speeds up project execution irrespective of and focuses on systemic risk

C.

Ensures adequate risk management while allowing innovation

D.

Ensures alignment between global compliance standards

Question 40

Which best practice is recommended when securing object repositories in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Using access controls as the sole security measure

B.

Encrypting all objects in the repository

C.

Encrypting the access paths only

D.

Encrypting only sensitive objects

Question 41

Why is it important to plan and coordinate response activities for incidents affecting the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

Options:

A.

It eliminates the need for monitoring systems

B.

It ensures a systematic approach, minimizing damage and recovery time

C.

It guarantees that no incidents will occur in the future

D.

It reduces the frequency of security audits required

Question 42

Which of the following is true about access policies in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

They are used to monitor real-time network traffic

B.

They are solely concerned with user authentication methods

C.

They provide data encryption protocols for secure communication

D.

They define permissions and network rules for resource access

Question 43

Which governance domain deals with evaluating how cloud computing affects compliance with internal

security policies and various legal requirements, such as regulatory and legislative?

Options:

A.

Legal Issues: Contracts and Electronic Discovery

B.

Infrastructure Security

C.

Compliance and Audit Management

D.

Information Governance

E.

Governance and Enterprise Risk Management

Question 44

In a cloud environment, what does the Shared Security Responsibility Model primarily aim to define?

Options:

A.

The division of security responsibilities between cloud providers and customers

B.

The relationships between IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS providers

C.

The compliance with geographical data residency and sovereignty

D.

The guidance for the cloud compliance framework

Question 45

What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in compute virtualizations?

Options:

A.

Enforce isolation and maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure

B.

Monitor and log workloads and configure the security settings

C.

Enforce isolation and configure the security settings

D.

Maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure and configure the security settings

E.

Enforce isolation and monitor and log workloads

Question 46

What primary aspects should effective cloud governance address to ensure security and compliance?

Options:

A.

Service availability, disaster recovery, load balancing, and latency

B.

Decision making, prioritization, monitoring, and transparency

C.

Encryption, redundancy, data integrity, and scalability

D.

Authentication, authorization, accounting, and auditing

Question 47

CCM: Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is a completely independent cloud

assessment toolkit that does not map any existing standards.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 48

What type of logs record interactions with specific services in a system?

Options:

A.

(Service and Application Logs

B.

Security Logs

C.

Network Logs

D.

Debug Logs

Question 49

REST APIs are the standard for web-based services because they run over HTTPS and work well across diverse environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 50

Which Identity and Access Management (IAM) principle focuses on implementing multiple security layers to dilute access power, thereby averting a misuse or compromise?

Options:

A.

Continuous Monitoring

B.

Federation

C.

Segregation of Duties

D.

Principle of Least Privilege

Question 51

How can key management be leveraged to prevent cloud providers from inappropriately accessing customer data?

Options:

A.

Use strong multi-factor authentication

B.

Secure backup processes for key management systems

C.

Segregate keys from the provider hosting data

D.

Stipulate encryption in contract language

E.

Select cloud providers within the same country as customer

Question 52

Which communication methods within a cloud environment must be exposed for partners or consumers to access database information using a web application?

Options:

A.

Software Development Kits (SDKs)

B.

Resource Description Framework (RDF)

C.

Extensible Markup Language (XML)

D.

Application Binary Interface (ABI)

E.

Application Programming Interface (API)

Question 53

The containment phase of the incident response lifecycle requires taking systems offline.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 54

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of image factories in the context of virtual machine (VM) management?

Options:

A.

Automating the VM image creation processes

B.

Managing network configurations for VMs

C.

Providing backup solutions for VM images

D.

Enhancing security of VM images

Question 55

In Identity and Access Management (IAM) containment, why is it crucial to understand if an attacker escalated their identity?

Options:

A.

It aids in determining the source IP of the attacker.

B.

Because it simplifies the recovery process and increases the response time.

C.

To prevent further unauthorized access and limit the management plane blast radius.

D.

To facilitate the eradication of malware.

Question 56

What is the primary advantage of implementing Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery/Deployment (CI/CD) pipelines in the context of cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Replacing the need for security teams.

B.

Slowing down the development process for testing.

C.

Automating security checks and deployments.

D.

Enhancing code quality.

Question 57

To understand their compliance alignments and gaps with a cloud provider, what must cloud customers rely on?

Options:

A.

Provider documentation

B.

Provider run audits and reports

C.

Third-party attestations

D.

Provider and consumer contracts

E.

EDiscovery tools

Question 58

Which Cloud Service Provider (CSP) security measure is primarily used to filter and monitor HTTP requests to protect against SQL injection and XSS attacks?

Options:

A.

CSP firewall

B.

Virtual Appliance

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

Question 59

If in certain litigations and investigations, the actual cloud application or environment itself is relevant to resolving the dispute in the litigation or investigation, how is the information likely to be obtained?

Options:

A.

It may require a subpoena of the provider directly

B.

It would require a previous access agreement

C.

It would require an act of war

D.

It would require a previous contractual agreement to obtain the application or access to the environment

E.

It would never be obtained in this situation

Question 60

What is the best way to ensure that all data has been removed from a public cloud environment including all media such as back-up tapes?

Options:

A.

Allowing the cloud provider to manage your keys so that they have the ability to access and delete the data from the main and back-up storage.

B.

Maintaining customer managed key management and revoking or deleting keys from the key management system to prevent the data from being accessed again.

C.

Practice Integration of Duties (IOD) so that everyone is able to delete the encrypted data.

D.

Keep the keys stored on the client side so that they are secure and so that the users have the ability to delete their own data.

E.

Both B and D.

Question 61

ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:

Options:

A.

Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use

B.

Lack of information on jurisdictions

C.

No source escrow agreement

D.

Unclear asset ownership

E.

Audit or certification not available to customers

Question 62

Which layer is the most important for securing because it is considered to be the foundation for secure cloud operations?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure

B.

Datastructure

C.

Infostructure

D.

Applistructure

E.

Metastructure

Question 63

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

Options:

A.

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements.

B.

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology.

C.

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload.

D.

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit.

Question 64

Use elastic servers when possible and move workloads to new instances.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 65

Which of the following best describes the primary benefit of utilizing cloud telemetry sources in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

They reduce the cost of cloud services.

B.

They provide visibility into cloud environments.

C.

They enhance physical security.

D.

They encrypt cloud data at rest.

Question 66

What is a key consideration when handling cloud security incidents?

Options:

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Focusing on technical fixes

C.

Cloud service provider service level agreements

D.

Hiring additional staff

Question 67

What is the primary function of landing zones or account factories in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Provide cost-saving recommendations for cloud resources

B.

Consistent configurations and policies for new deployments

C.

Enhance the performance of cloud applications

D.

Automate the deployment of microservices in the cloud

Question 68

What is a primary benefit of implementing Zero Trust (ZT) architecture in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Reduced attack surface and simplified user experience.

B.

Eliminating the need for multi-factor authentication.

C.

Increased attack surface and complexity.

D.

Enhanced privileged access for all users.

Question 69

Which aspect of cybersecurity can AI enhance by reducing false positive alerts?

Options:

A.

Anomaly detection

B.

Assisting analysts

C.

Threat intelligence

D.

Automated responses

Question 70

Which of the following strategies best enhances infrastructure resilience against Cloud Service Provider (CSP) technical failures?

Options:

A.

Local backup

B.

Multi-region resiliency

C.

Single-region resiliency

D.

High Availability within one data center

Question 71

In the Software-as-a-service relationship, who is responsible for the majority of the security?

Options:

A.

Application Consumer

B.

Database Manager

C.

Application Developer

D.

Cloud Provider

E.

Web Application CISO

Question 72

When implementing a Zero Trust (ZT) strategy, which approach is considered fundamental for ensuring enterprise security and connectivity?

Options:

A.

Allowing unrestricted access to resources within local networks but restricting cloud access

B.

Implementing perimeter-based security as the primary defense mechanism

C.

Enforcing strict access control and verification for all users and devices

D.

Only allowing trusted devices to connect to local/office networks

Question 73

Which of the following best explains how Multifactor Authentication (MFA) helps prevent identity-based attacks?

Options:

A.

MFA relies on physical tokens and biometrics to secure accounts.

B.

MFA requires multiple forms of validation that would have to compromise.

C.

MFA requires and uses more complex passwords to secure accounts.

D.

MFA eliminates the need for passwords through single sign-on.

Question 74

Which component is primarily responsible for filtering and monitoring HTTP/S traffic to and from a web application?

Options:

A.

Anti-virus Software

B.

Load Balancer

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

Question 75

What does orchestration automate within a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Monitoring application performance

B.

Manual configuration of security policies

C.

Installation of operating systems

D.

Provisioning of VMs, networking and other resources

Question 76

In the context of Software-Defined Networking (SDN), what does decoupling the network control plane from the data plane primarily achieve?

Options:

A.

Enables programmatic configuration

B.

Decreases network security

C.

Increases hardware dependency

D.

Increases network complexity

Question 77

What is a primary objective during the Detection and Analysis phase of incident response?

Options:

A.

Developing and updating incident response policies

B.

Validating alerts and estimating the scope of incidents

C.

Performing detailed forensic investigations

D.

Implementing network segmentation and isolation

Question 78

What is a key advantage of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in application development?

Options:

A.

It removes the need for manual testing.

B.

It eliminates the need for cybersecurity measures.

C.

It enables version control and rapid deployment.

D.

It ensures zero configuration drift by default.

Question 79

Which benefit of automated deployment pipelines most directly addresses continuous security and reliability?

Options:

A.

They enable consistent and repeatable deployment processes

B.

They enhance collaboration through shared tools

C.

They provide detailed reports on team performance

D.

They ensure code quality through regular reviews

Question 80

ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:

Options:

A.

Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company

B.

Resource isolation may fail

C.

Provider may change physical location

D.

Mass layoffs may occur

E.

Non-binding agreements put at risk

Question 81

Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

Options:

A.

Notifying affected parties

B.

Isolating affected systems

C.

Restoring services to normal operations

D.

Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

Question 82

What is the newer application development methodology and philosophy focused on automation of application development and deployment?

Options:

A.

Agile

B.

BusOps

C.

DevOps

D.

SecDevOps

E.

Scrum

Question 83

In the context of FaaS, what is primarily defined in addition to functions?

Options:

A.

Data storage

B.

Network configurations

C.

User permissions

D.

Trigger events

Question 84

Which of the following best describes the purpose of cloud security control objectives?

Options:

A.

They are standards that cannot be modified to suit the unique needs of different cloud environments.

B.

They focus on the technical aspects of cloud security with less consideration on the broader organizational goals.

C.

They dictate specific implementation methods for securing cloud environments, tailored to individual cloud providers.

D.

They provide outcome-focused guidelines for desired controls, ensuring measurable and adaptable security measures

Question 85

Which of the following encryption methods would be utilized when object storage is used as the back-end for an application?

Options:

A.

Database encryption

B.

Media encryption

C.

Asymmetric encryption

D.

Object encryption

E.

Client/application encryption

Question 86

Which of the following best describes the role of program frameworks in defining security components and technical controls?

Options:

A.

Program frameworks evaluate the performance of individual security tools

B.

Program frameworks focus on implementing specific security technologies

C.

Program frameworks help organize overarching security policies and objectives

D.

Program frameworks primarily define compliance requirements for regulations

Question 87

How can virtual machine communications bypass network security controls?

Options:

A.

VM communications may use a virtual network on the same hardware host

B.

The guest OS can invoke stealth mode

C.

Hypervisors depend upon multiple network interfaces

D.

VM images can contain rootkits programmed to bypass firewalls

E.

Most network security systems do not recognize encrypted VM traffic

Question 88

How does running applications on distinct virtual networks and only connecting networks as needed help?

Options:

A.

It reduces hardware costs

B.

It provides dynamic and granular policies with less management overhead

C.

It locks down access and provides stronger data security

D.

It reduces the blast radius of a compromised system

E.

It enables you to configure applications around business groups

Question 89

Which of the following statements are NOT requirements of governance and enterprise risk management in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Inspect and account for risks inherited from other members of the cloud supply chain and take active measures to mitigate and contain risks through operational resiliency.

B.

Respect the interdependency of the risks inherent in the cloud supply chain and communicate the corporate risk posture and readiness to consumers and dependent parties.

C.

Negotiate long-term contracts with companies who use well-vetted software application to avoid the transient nature of the cloud environment.

D.

Provide transparency to stakeholders and shareholders demonstrating fiscal solvency and organizational transparency.

E.

Both B and C.

Question 90

Which of the following from the governance hierarchy provides specific goals to minimize risk and maintain a secure environment?

Options:

A.

Implementation guidance

B.

Control objectives

C.

Policies

D.

Control specifications

Question 91

Which type of AI workload typically requires large data sets and substantial computing resources?

Options:

A.

Evaluation

B.

Data Preparation

C.

Training

D.

Inference

Question 92

Why is it important to control traffic flows between networks in a cybersecurity context?

Options:

A.

To increase the speed of data transmission

B.

To reduce the blast radius of attacks

C.

To simplify network architecture

D.

To reduce the amount of data stored

Question 93

CCM: The Architectural Relevance column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

Options:

A.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

B.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

C.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

Question 94

What primary purpose does object storage encryption serve in cloud services?

Options:

A.

It compresses data to save space

B.

It speeds up data retrieval times

C.

It monitors unauthorized access attempts

D.

It secures data stored as objects

Question 95

What is true of companies considering a cloud computing business relationship?

Options:

A.

The laws protecting customer data are based on the cloud provider and customer location only.

B.

The confidentiality agreements between companies using cloud computing services is limited legally to the company, not the provider.

C.

The companies using the cloud providers are the custodians of the data entrusted to them.

D.

The cloud computing companies are absolved of all data security and associated risks through contracts and data laws.

E.

The cloud computing companies own all customer data.

Question 96

Vulnerability assessments cannot be easily integrated into CI/CD pipelines because of provider restrictions.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 97

Which type of cloud workload would be most appropriate for running isolated applications with minimum resource overhead?

Options:

A.

Containers

B.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

C.

AI Workloads

D.

Virtual Machines (VMs)

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Total 326 questions