Weekend Sale Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70special

Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSKv5.0) Exam Practice Test

Page: 1 / 31
Total 305 questions

Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSKv5.0) Questions and Answers

Testing Engine

  • Product Type: Testing Engine
$37.5  $124.99

PDF Study Guide

  • Product Type: PDF Study Guide
$33  $109.99
Question 1

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is updating forensics tools for virtual machines (VMs) and containers critical?

Options:

A.

To comply with cloud service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

To streamline communication with cloud service providers and customers

C.

To ensure compatibility with cloud environments for effective incident analysis

D.

To increase the speed of incident response team deployments

Question 2

Which opportunity helps reduce common application security issues?

Options:

A.

Elastic infrastructure

B.

Default deny

C.

Decreased use of micro-services

D.

Segregation by default

E.

Fewer serverless configurations

Question 3

Which of the following best describes a primary risk associated with the use of cloud storage services?

Options:

A.

Increased cost due to redundant data storage practices

B.

Unauthorized access due to misconfigured security settings

C.

Inherent encryption failures within all cloud storage solutions

D.

Complete data loss due to storage media degradation

Question 4

In a cloud environment, what does the Shared Security Responsibility Model primarily aim to define?

Options:

A.

The division of security responsibilities between cloud providers and customers

B.

The relationships between IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS providers

C.

The compliance with geographical data residency and sovereignty

D.

The guidance for the cloud compliance framework

Question 5

Which areas should be initially prioritized for hybrid cloud security?

Options:

A.

Cloud storage management and governance

B.

Data center infrastructure and architecture

C.

IAM and networking

D.

Application development and deployment

Question 6

What is true of a workload?

Options:

A.

It is a unit of processing that consumes memory

B.

It does not require a hardware stack

C.

It is always a virtual machine

D.

It is configured for specific, established tasks

E.

It must be containerized

Question 7

ENISA: Which is a potential security benefit of cloud computing?

Options:

A.

More efficient and timely system updates

B.

ISO 27001 certification

C.

Provider can obfuscate system O/S and versions

D.

Greater compatibility with customer IT infrastructure

E.

Lock-In

Question 8

How does artificial intelligence pose both opportunities and risks in cloud security?

Options:

A.

AI enhances security without any adverse implications

B.

AI mainly reduces manual work with no significant security impacts

C.

AI enhances detection mechanisms but could be exploited for sophisticated attacks

D.

AI is only beneficial in data management, not security

Question 9

Which Cloud Service Provider (CSP) security measure is primarily used to filter and monitor HTTP requests to protect against SQL injection and XSS attacks?

Options:

A.

CSP firewall

B.

Virtual Appliance

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

Question 10

In the context of cloud security, which approach prioritizes incoming data logsfor threat detection by applying multiple sequential filters?

Options:

A.

Cascade-and-filter approach

B.

Parallel processing approach

C.

Streamlined single-filter method

D.

Unfiltered bulk analysis

Question 11

Which cloud storage technology is basically a virtual hard drive for instanced or VMs?

Options:

A.

Volume storage

B.

Platform

C.

Database

D.

Application

E.

Object storage

Question 12

Which governance domain focuses on proper and adequate incident detection, response, notification, and remediation?

Options:

A.

Data Security and Encryption

B.

Information Governance

C.

Incident Response, Notification and Remediation

D.

Compliance and Audit Management

E.

Infrastructure Security

Question 13

When mapping functions to lifecycle phases, which functions are required to successfully process data?

Options:

A.

Create, Store, Use, and Share

B.

Create and Store

C.

Create and Use

D.

Create, Store, and Use

E.

Create, Use, Store, and Delete

Question 14

In a cloud environment spanning multiple jurisdictions, what is the most important factor to consider for compliance?

Options:

A.

Relying on the cloud service provider's compliance certifications for all jurisdictions

B.

Focusing on the compliance requirements defined by the laws, regulations, and standards enforced in the jurisdiction where the company is based

C.

Relying only on established industry standards since they adequately address all compliance needs

D.

Understanding the legal and regulatory requirements of each jurisdiction where data originates, is stored, or processed

Question 15

Who is responsible for the security of the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform?

Options:

A.

The cloud consumer

B.

The majority is covered by the consumer

C.

It depends on the agreement

D.

The responsibility is split equally

E.

The cloud provider

Question 16

How can key management be leveraged to prevent cloud providers from inappropriately accessing customer data?

Options:

A.

Use strong multi-factor authentication

B.

Secure backup processes for key management systems

C.

Segregate keys from the provider hosting data

D.

Stipulate encryption in contract language

E.

Select cloud providers within the same country as customer

Question 17

Which of the following encryption methods would be utilized when object storage is used as the back-end for an application?

Options:

A.

Database encryption

B.

Media encryption

C.

Asymmetric encryption

D.

Object encryption

E.

Client/application encryption

Question 18

Which of the following is a perceived advantage or disadvantage of managing enterprise risk for cloud deployments?

Options:

A.

More physical control over assets and processes.

B.

Greater reliance on contracts, audits, and assessments due to lack of visibility or management.

C.

Decreased requirement for proactive management of relationship and adherence to contracts.

D.

Increased need, but reduction in costs, for managing risks accepted by the cloud provider.

E.

None of the above.

Question 19

What is the primary reason dynamic and expansive cloud environments require agile security approaches?

Options:

A.

To reduce costs associated with physical hardware

B.

To simplify the deployment of virtual machines

C.

To quickly respond to evolving threats and changing infrastructure

D.

To ensure high availability and load balancing

Question 20

What primary purpose does object storage encryption serve in cloud services?

Options:

A.

It compresses data to save space

B.

It speeds up data retrieval times

C.

It monitors unauthorized access attempts

D.

It secures data stored as objects

Question 21

How can virtual machine communications bypass network security controls?

Options:

A.

VM communications may use a virtual network on the same hardware host

B.

The guest OS can invoke stealth mode

C.

Hypervisors depend upon multiple network interfaces

D.

VM images can contain rootkits programmed to bypass firewalls

E.

Most network security systems do not recognize encrypted VM traffic

Question 22

Which aspect of cybersecurity can AI enhance by reducing false positive alerts?

Options:

A.

Anomaly detection

B.

Assisting analysts

C.

Threat intelligence

D.

Automated responses

Question 23

What method can be utilized along with data fragmentation to enhance security?

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Organization

C.

Knowledge management

D.

IDS

E.

Insulation

Question 24

Which of the following best describes the multi-tenant nature of cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Cloud customers operate independently without sharing resources

B.

Cloud customers share a common pool of resources but are segregated and isolated from each other

C.

Multiple cloud customers are allocated a set of dedicated resources via a common web interface

D.

Cloud customers share resources without any segregation or isolation

Question 25

What type of logs record interactions with specific services in a system?

Options:

A.

(Service and Application Logs

B.

Security Logs

C.

Network Logs

D.

Debug Logs

Question 26

When deploying Security as a Service in a highly regulated industry or environment, what should both parties agree on in advance and include in the SLA?

Options:

A.

The metrics defining the service level required to achieve regulatory objectives.

B.

The duration of time that a security violation can occur before the client begins assessing regulatory fines.

C.

The cost per incident for security breaches of regulated information.

D.

The regulations that are pertinent to the contract and how to circumvent them.

E.

The type of security software which meets regulations and the number of licenses that will be needed.

Question 27

Cloud applications can use virtual networks and other structures, for hyper-segregated environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 28

Which statement best describes the impact of Cloud Computing on business continuity management?

Options:

A.

A general lack of interoperability standards means that extra focus must be placed on the security aspects of migration between Cloud providers.

B.

The size of data sets hosted at a Cloud provider can present challenges if migration to another provider becomes necessary.

C.

Customers of SaaS providers in particular need to mitigate the risks of application lock-in.

D.

Clients need to do business continuity planning due diligence in case they suddenly need to switch providers.

E.

Geographic redundancy ensures that Cloud Providers provide highly available services.

Question 29

Which best practice is recommended when securing object repositories in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Using access controls as the sole security measure

B.

Encrypting all objects in the repository

C.

Encrypting the access paths only

D.

Encrypting only sensitive objects

Question 30

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in cybersecurity contexts?

Options:

A.

Reduces the need for security auditing

B.

Enables consistent security configurations through automation

C.

Increases manual control over security settings

D.

Increases scalability of cloud resources

Question 31

Which attack surfaces, if any, does virtualization technology introduce?

Options:

A.

The hypervisor

B.

Virtualization management components apart from the hypervisor

C.

Configuration and VM sprawl issues

D.

All of the above

Question 32

Why is it important to control traffic flows between networks in a cybersecurity context?

Options:

A.

To increase the speed of data transmission

B.

To reduce the blast radius of attacks

C.

To simplify network architecture

D.

To reduce the amount of data stored

Question 33

ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:

Options:

A.

Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company

B.

Resource isolation may fail

C.

Provider may change physical location

D.

Mass layoffs may occur

E.

Non-binding agreements put at risk

Question 34

What is known as a code execution environment running within an operating system that shares and uses the resources of the operating system?

Options:

A.

Platform-based Workload

B.

Pod

C.

Abstraction

D.

Container

E.

Virtual machine

Question 35

Which cloud-based service model enables companies to provide client-based access for partners to databases or applications?

Options:

A.

Platform-as-a-service (PaaS)

B.

Desktop-as-a-service (DaaS)

C.

Infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS)

D.

Identity-as-a-service (IDaaS)

E.

Software-as-a-service (SaaS)

Question 36

Which of the following cloud computing models primarily provides storage and computing resources to the users?

Options:

A.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

B.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (laa

Question 37

In the cloud provider and consumer relationship, which entity

manages the virtual or abstracted infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Only the cloud consumer

B.

Only the cloud provider

C.

Both the cloud provider and consumer

D.

It is determined in the agreement between the entities

E.

It is outsourced as per the entity agreement

Question 38

In volume storage, what method is often used to support resiliency and security?

Options:

A.

proxy encryption

B.

data rights management

C.

hypervisor agents

D.

data dispersion

E.

random placement

Question 39

Which of the following from the governance hierarchy provides specific goals to minimize risk and maintain a secure environment?

Options:

A.

Implementation guidance

B.

Control objectives

C.

Policies

D.

Control specifications

Question 40

CCM: A company wants to use the IaaS offering of some CSP. Which of the following options for using CCM is NOT suitable for the company as a cloud customer?

Options:

A.

Submit the CCM on behalf of the CSP to CSA Security, Trust & Assurance Registry (STAR), a free, publicly accessible registry that documents the security controls provided by CSPs

B.

Use CCM to build a detailed list of requirements and controls that they want their CSP to implement

C.

Use CCM to help assess the risk associated with the CSP

D.

None of the above

Question 41

What is the most significant security difference between traditional infrastructure and cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Management plane

B.

Intrusion detection options

C.

Secondary authentication factors

D.

Network access points

E.

Mobile security configuration options

Question 42

What factors should you understand about the data specifically due to legal, regulatory, and jurisdictional factors?

Options:

A.

The physical location of the data and how it is accessed

B.

The fragmentation and encryption algorithms employed

C.

The language of the data and how it affects the user

D.

The implications of storing complex information on simple storage systems

E.

The actual size of the data and the storage format

Question 43

What of the following is NOT an essential characteristic of cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Broad Network Access

B.

Measured Service

C.

Third Party Service

D.

Rapid Elasticity

E.

Resource Pooling

Question 44

Which type of cloud workload would be most appropriate for running isolated applications with minimum resource overhead?

Options:

A.

Containers

B.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

C.

AI Workloads

D.

Virtual Machines (VMs)

Question 45

Which aspect of cloud architecture ensures that a system can handle growing amounts of work efficiently?

Options:

A.

Reliability

B.

Security

C.

Performance

D.

Scalability

Question 46

Why is governance crucial in balancing the speed of adoption with risk control in cybersecurity initiatives?

Options:

A.

Only involves senior management in decision-making

B.

Speeds up project execution irrespective of and focuses on systemic risk

C.

Ensures adequate risk management while allowing innovation

D.

Ensures alignment between global compliance standards

Question 47

ENISA: “VM hopping” is:

Options:

A.

Improper management of VM instances, causing customer VMs to be commingled with other customer systems.

B.

Looping within virtualized routing systems.

C.

Lack of vulnerability management standards.

D.

Using a compromised VM to exploit a hypervisor, used to take control of other VMs.

E.

Instability in VM patch management causing VM routing errors.

Question 48

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) might be limited or require pre-testing permission from the provider.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 49

Why is consulting with stakeholders important for ensuring cloud security strategy alignment?

Options:

A.

IT simplifies the cloud platform selection process

B.

It reduces the overall cost of cloud services.

C.

It ensures that the strategy meets diverse business requirements.

D.

It ensures compliance with technical standards only.

Question 50

Which of the following events should be monitored according to CIS AWS benchmarks?

Options:

A.

Regular file backups

B.

Data encryption at rest

C.

Successful login attempts

D.

Unauthorized API calls

Question 51

Which AI workload mitigation strategy best addresses model inversion attacks that threaten data confidentiality?

Options:

A.

Secure multi-party computation

B.

Differential privacy

C.

Encryption

D.

Model hardening

Question 52

Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

Options:

A.

Notifying affected parties

B.

Isolating affected systems

C.

Restoring services to normal operations

D.

Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

Question 53

Audits should be robustly designed to reflect best practice, appropriate resources, and tested protocols and standards. They should also use what type of auditors?

Options:

A.

Auditors working in the interest of the cloud customer

B.

Independent auditors

C.

Certified by CSA

D.

Auditors working in the interest of the cloud provider

E.

None of the above

Question 54

In a cloud context, what does entitlement refer to in relation to a user's permissions?

Options:

A.

The authentication methods a user is required to use when accessing the cloud environment.

B.

The level of technical support a user is entitled to from the cloud service provider.

C.

The resources or services a user is granted permission to access in the cloud environment.

D.

The ability for a user to grant access permissions to other users in the cloud environment.

Question 55

CCM: A hypothetical start-up company called "ABC" provides a cloud based IT management solution. They are growing rapidly and therefore need to put controls in place in order to manage any changes in

their production environment. Which of the following Change Control & Configuration Management production environment specific control should they implement in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Policies and procedures shall be established for managing the risks associated with applying changes to business-critical or customer (tenant)-impacting (physical and virtual) applications and system-system interface (API) designs and configurations, infrastructure network and systems components.

B.

Policies and procedures shall be established, and supporting business processes and technical measures implemented, to restrict the installation of unauthorized software on organizationally-owned ormanaged user end-point devices (e.g. issued workstations, laptops, and mobile devices) and IT infrastructure network and systems components.

C.

All cloud-based services used by the company's mobile devices or BYOD shall be pre-approved for usage and the storage of company business data.

D.

None of the above

Question 56

What is a key benefit of using customer-managed encryption keys with cloud key management service (KMS)?

Options:

A.

Customers can bypass the need for encryption

B.

Customers retain control over their encryption keys

C.

Customers can share their encryption keys more easily

D.

It reduces the computational load on the cloud service provider

Question 57

Which of the following best explains how Multifactor Authentication (MFA) helps prevent identity-based attacks?

Options:

A.

MFA relies on physical tokens and biometrics to secure accounts.

B.

MFA requires multiple forms of validation that would have to compromise.

C.

MFA requires and uses more complex passwords to secure accounts.

D.

MFA eliminates the need for passwords through single sign-on.

Question 58

What is true of searching data across cloud environments?

Options:

A.

You might not have the ability or administrative rights to search or access all hosted data.

B.

The cloud provider must conduct the search with the full administrative controls.

C.

All cloud-hosted email accounts are easily searchable.

D.

Search and discovery time is always factored into a contract between the consumer and provider.

E.

You can easily search across your environment using any E-Discovery tool.

Question 59

In the Software-as-a-service relationship, who is responsible for the majority of the security?

Options:

A.

Application Consumer

B.

Database Manager

C.

Application Developer

D.

Cloud Provider

E.

Web Application CISO

Question 60

When implementing a Zero Trust (ZT) strategy, which approach is considered fundamental for ensuring enterprise security and connectivity?

Options:

A.

Allowing unrestricted access to resources within local networks but restricting cloud access

B.

Implementing perimeter-based security as the primary defense mechanism

C.

Enforcing strict access control and verification for all users and devices

D.

Only allowing trusted devices to connect to local/office networks

Question 61

Use elastic servers when possible and move workloads to new instances.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 62

How does cloud sprawl complicate security monitoring in an enterprise environment?

Options:

A.

Cloud sprawl disperses assets, making it harder to monitor assets.

B.

Cloud sprawl centralizes assets, simplifying security monitoring.

C.

Cloud sprawl reduces the number of assets, easing security efforts.

D.

Cloud sprawl has no impact on security monitoring.

Question 63

CCM: The Architectural Relevance column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

Options:

A.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

B.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

C.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

Question 64

What is a key component of governance in the context of cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Defining roles and responsibilities

B.

Standardizing technical specifications for security control

C.

Defining tools and technologies

D.

Enforcement of the Penetration Testing procedure

Question 65

Which aspect is most important for effective cloud governance?

Options:

A.

Formalizing cloud security policies

B.

Implementing best-practice cloud security control objectives

C.

Negotiating SLAs with cloud providers

D.

Establishing a governance hierarchy

Question 66

What key activities are part of the preparation phase in incident response planning?

Options:

A.

Implementing encryption and access controls

B.

Establishing a response process, training, communication plans, and infrastructure evaluations

C.

Creating incident reports and post-incident reviews

D.

Developing malware analysis procedures and penetration testing

Question 67

Which concept focuses on maintaining the same configuration for all infrastructure components, ensuring they do not change once deployed?

Options:

A.

Component credentials

B.

Immutable infrastructure

C.

Infrastructure as code

D.

Application integration

Question 68

How can the use of third-party libraries introduce supply chain risks in software development?

Options:

A.

They are usually open source and do not require vetting

B.

They might contain vulnerabilities that can be exploited

C.

They fail to integrate properly with existing continuous integration pipelines

D.

They might increase the overall complexity of the codebase

Question 69

What can be implemented to help with account granularity and limit

blast radius with laaS an PaaS?

Options:

A.

Configuring secondary authentication

B.

Establishing multiple accounts

C.

Maintaining tight control of the primary account holder credentials

D.

Implementing least privilege accounts

E.

Configuring role-based authentication

Question 70

Which approach is essential in identifying compromised identities in cloud environments where attackers utilize automated methods?

Options:

A.

Focusing exclusively on signature-based detection for known malware

B.

Deploying behavioral detectors for IAM and management plane activities

C.

Implementing full packet capture and monitoring

D.

Relying on IP address and connection header monitoring

Question 71

In the context of Software-Defined Networking (SDN), what does decoupling the network control plane from the data plane primarily achieve?

Options:

A.

Enables programmatic configuration

B.

Decreases network security

C.

Increases hardware dependency

D.

Increases network complexity

Question 72

ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:

Options:

A.

Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use

B.

Lack of information on jurisdictions

C.

No source escrow agreement

D.

Unclear asset ownership

E.

Audit or certification not available to customers

Question 73

Which aspect of a Cloud Service Provider's (CSPs) infrastructure security involves protecting the interfaces used to manage configurations and resources?

Options:

A.

Management plane

B.

Virtualization layers

C.

Physical components

D.

PaaS/SaaS services

Question 74

According to NIST, what is cloud computing defined as?

Options:

A.

A shared set of resources delivered over the Internet

B.

A model for more-efficient use of network-based resources

C.

A model for on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable resources

D.

Services that are delivered over the Internet to customers

Question 75

What are the key outcomes of implementing robust cloud risk management practices?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the security and resilience of cloud environments

B.

Negotiating shared responsibilities

C.

Transferring compliance to the cloud service provider via inheritance

D.

Reducing the need for compliance with regulatory requirements

Question 76

What is the primary function of Data Encryption Keys (DEK) in cloud security?

Options:

A.

To increase the speed of cloud services

B.

To encrypt application data

C.

To directly manage user access control

D.

To serve as the primary key for all cloud resources

Question 77

Which practice ensures container security by preventing post-deployment modifications?

Options:

A.

Implementing dynamic network segmentation policies

B.

Employing Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) for container access

C.

Regular vulnerability scanning of deployed containers

D.

Use of immutable containers

Question 78

A defining set of rules composed of claims and attributes of the entities in a transaction, which is used to determine their level of access to cloud-based resources is called what?

Options:

A.

An entitlement matrix

B.

A support table

C.

An entry log

D.

A validation process

E.

An access log

Question 79

Which communication methods within a cloud environment must be exposed for partners or consumers to access database information using a web application?

Options:

A.

Software Development Kits (SDKs)

B.

Resource Description Framework (RDF)

C.

Extensible Markup Language (XML)

D.

Application Binary Interface (ABI)

E.

Application Programming Interface (API)

Question 80

Which practice minimizes human error in long-running cloud workloads’ security management?

Options:

A.

Increasing manual security audits frequency

B.

Converting all workloads to ephemeral

C.

Restricting access to workload configurations

D.

Implementing automated security and compliance checks

Question 81

Which concept is a mapping of an identity, including roles, personas, and attributes, to an authorization?

Options:

A.

Access control

B.

Federated Identity Management

C.

Authoritative source

D.

Entitlement

E.

Authentication

Question 82

What is the primary purpose of the CSA Security, Trust, Assurance, and Risk (STAR) Registry?

Options:

A.

To provide cloud service rate comparisons

B.

To certify cloud services for regulatory compliance

C.

To document security and privacy controls of cloud offerings

D.

To manage data residency and localization requirements

Question 83

In the context of FaaS, what is primarily defined in addition to functions?

Options:

A.

Data storage

B.

Network configurations

C.

User permissions

D.

Trigger events

Question 84

Which of the following best describes an aspect of PaaS services in relation to network security controls within a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

They override the VNet/VPC's network security controls by default

B.

They do not interact with the VNet/VPC’s network security controls

C.

They require manual configuration of network security controls, separate from the VNet/VPC

D.

They often inherit the network security controls of the underlying VNet/VPC

Question 85

What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in compute virtualizations?

Options:

A.

Enforce isolation and maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure

B.

Monitor and log workloads and configure the security settings

C.

Enforce isolation and configure the security settings

D.

Maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure and configure the security settings

E.

Enforce isolation and monitor and log workloads

Question 86

Which of the following is a common exploitation factor associated with serverless and container workloads?

Options:

A.

Poor Documentation

B.

Misconfiguration

C.

Insufficient Redundancy

D.

Low Availability

Question 87

Which of the following best describes the advantage of custom application level encryption?

Options:

A.

It simplifies the encryption process by centralizing it at the network level

B.

It enables ownership and more granular control of encryption keys

C.

It reduces the need for encryption by enhancing network security

D.

It delegates the control of keys to third-party providers

Question 88

CCM: A hypothetical company called: “Health4Sure” is located in the United States and provides cloud based services for tracking patient health. The company is compliant with HIPAA/HITECH Act among other industry standards. Health4Sure decides to assess the overall security of their cloud service against the CCM toolkit so that they will be able to present this document to potential clients.

Which of the following approach would be most suitable to assess the overall security posture of Health4Sure’s cloud service?

Options:

A.

The CCM columns are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered ad a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls. This approach will save time.

B.

The CCM domain controls are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered as a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls thoroughly. This approach saves time while being able to assess the company’s overall security posture in an efficient manner.

C.

The CCM domains are not mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act. Therefore Health4Sure should assess the security posture of their cloud service against each and every control in the CCM. This approach will allow a thorough assessment of the security posture.

Question 89

What key characteristic differentiates cloud networks from traditional networks?

Options:

A.

Cloud networks are software-defined networks (SDNs)

B.

Cloud networks rely on dedicated hardware appliances

C.

Cloud networks are less scalable than traditional networks

D.

Cloud networks have the same architecture as traditional networks

Question 90

CCM: The following list of controls belong to which domain of the CCM?

GRM 06 – Policy GRM 07 – Policy Enforcement GRM 08 – Policy Impact on Risk Assessments GRM 09 – Policy Reviews GRM 10 – Risk Assessments GRM 11 – Risk Management Framework

Options:

A.

Governance and Retention Management

B.

Governance and Risk Management

C.

Governing and Risk Metrics

Question 91

Which of the following is a primary benefit of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in a security context?

Options:

A.

Manual patch management

B.

Ad hoc security policies

C.

Static resource allocation

D.

Automated compliance checks

Page: 1 / 31
Total 305 questions