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Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK v5.0) Exam Practice Test

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Total 288 questions

Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK v5.0) Questions and Answers

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Question 1

What is the primary reason dynamic and expansive cloud environments require agile security approaches?

Options:

A.

To reduce costs associated with physical hardware

B.

To simplify the deployment of virtual machines

C.

To quickly respond to evolving threats and changing infrastructure

D.

To ensure high availability and load balancing

Question 2

In a hybrid cloud environment, why would an organization choose cascading log architecture for security purposes?

Options:

A.

To reduce the number of network hops for log collection

B.

To facilitate efficient central log collection

C.

To use CSP's analysis tools for log analysis

D.

To convert cloud logs into on-premise formats

Question 3

Which feature in cloud enhances security by isolating deployments similar to deploying in distinct data centers?

Options:

A.

A single deployment for all applications

B.

Shared deployments for similar applications

C.

Randomized deployment configurations

D.

Multiple independent deployments for applications

Question 4

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of cloud security frameworks?

Options:

A.

To implement detailed procedural instructions for security measures

B.

To organize control objectives for achieving desired security outcomes

C.

To ensure compliance with all regulatory requirements

D.

To provide tools for automated security management

Question 5

In the Incident Response Lifecycle, which phase involves identifying potential security events and examining them for validity?

Options:

A.

Post-Incident Activity

B.

Detection and Analysis

C.

Preparation

D.

Containment, Eradication, and Recovery

Question 6

What is the primary focus during the Preparation phase of the Cloud Incident Response framework?

Options:

A.

Developing a cloud service provider evaluation criterion

B.

Deploying automated security monitoring tools across cloud services

C.

Establishing a Cloud Incident Response Team and response plans

D.

Conducting regular vulnerability assessments on cloud infrastructure

Question 7

What primary purpose does object storage encryption serve in cloud services?

Options:

A.

It compresses data to save space

B.

It speeds up data retrieval times

C.

It monitors unauthorized access attempts

D.

It secures data stored as objects

Question 8

Which aspect is crucial for crafting and enforcing CSP (Cloud Service Provider) policies?

Options:

A.

Integration with network infrastructure

B.

Adherence to software development practices

C.

Optimization for cost reduction

D.

Alignment with security objectives and regulatory requirements

Question 9

What's the difference between DNS Logs and Flow Logs?

Options:

A.

They represent the logging of different networking solutions, and DNS Logs are more suitable for a ZTA implementation

B.

DNS Logs record domain name resolution requests and responses, while Flow Logs record info on source, destination, protocol

C.

They play identical functions and can be used interchangeably

D.

DNS Logs record all the information about the network behavior, including source, destination, and protocol, while Flow Logs record users' applications behavior

Question 10

What is the primary goal of implementing DevOps in a software development lifecycle?

Options:

A.

To create a separation between development and operations

B.

To eliminate the need for IT operations by automating all tasks

C.

To enhance collaboration between development and IT operations for efficient delivery

D.

To reduce the development team size by merging roles

Question 11

Which principle reduces security risk by granting users only the permissions essential for their role?

Options:

A.

Role-Based Access Control

B.

Unlimited Access

C.

Mandatory Access Control

D.

Least-Privileged Access

Question 12

Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Defining and maintaining the governance plan

B.

Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices

C.

Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented

D.

Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations

Question 13

Which cloud service model allows users to access applications hosted and managed by the provider, with the user only needing to configure the application?

Options:

A.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

B.

Database as a Service (DBaaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Question 14

What is the primary purpose of cloud governance in an organization?

Options:

A.

To increase data transfer speeds within the cloud environment

B.

To reduce the cost of cloud services

C.

To ensure compliance, security, and efficient management aligned with the organization's goals

D.

To eliminate the need for on-premises data centers

Question 15

How does serverless computing impact infrastructure management responsibility?

Options:

A.

Requires extensive on-premises infrastructure

B.

Shifts more responsibility to cloud service providers

C.

Increases workload for developers

D.

Eliminates need for cloud service providers

Question 16

Which of the following best describes the primary benefit of utilizing cloud telemetry sources in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

They reduce the cost of cloud services.

B.

They provide visibility into cloud environments.

C.

They enhance physical security.

D.

They encrypt cloud data at rest.

Question 17

Which phase of the CSA secure software development life cycle (SSDLC) focuses on ensuring that an application or product is deployed onto a secure infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Continuous Build, Integration, and Testing

B.

Continuous Delivery and Deployment

C.

Secure Design and Architecture

D.

Secure Coding

Question 18

What process involves an independent examination of records, operations, processes, and controls within an organization to ensure compliance with cybersecurity policies, standards, and regulations?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Audit

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Incident response

Question 19

How can Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies on keys ensure adherence to the principle of least privilege?

Options:

A.

By rotating keys on a regular basis

B.

By using default policies for all keys

C.

By specifying fine-grained permissions

D.

By granting root access to administrators

Question 20

Which areas should be initially prioritized for hybrid cloud security?

Options:

A.

Cloud storage management and governance

B.

Data center infrastructure and architecture

C.

IAM and networking

D.

Application development and deployment

Question 21

How does SASE enhance traffic management when compared to traditional network models?

Options:

A.

It solely focuses on user authentication improvements

B.

It replaces existing network protocols with new proprietary ones

C.

It filters traffic near user devices, reducing the need for backhauling

D.

It requires all traffic to be sent through central data centers

Question 22

Why is snapshot management crucial for the virtual machine (VM) lifecycle?

Options:

A.

It allows for quick restoration points during updates or changes

B.

It is used for load balancing VMs

C.

It enhances VM performance significantly

D.

It provides real-time analytics on VM applications

Question 23

In a containerized environment, what is fundamental to ensuring runtime protection for deployed containers?

Options:

A.

Implementing real-time visibility

B.

Deploying container-specific antivirus scanning

C.

Using static code analysis tools in the pipeline

D.

Full packet network monitoring

Question 24

In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?

Options:

A.

Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.

B.

Based on the per-service SLAs for security.

C.

Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.

D.

Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.

Question 25

Which concept focuses on maintaining the same configuration for all infrastructure components, ensuring they do not change once deployed?

Options:

A.

Component credentials

B.

Immutable infrastructure

C.

Infrastructure as code

D.

Application integration

Question 26

Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

Options:

A.

Notifying affected parties

B.

Isolating affected systems

C.

Restoring services to normal operations

D.

Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

Question 27

Which of the following best describes how cloud computing manages shared resources?

Options:

A.

Through virtualization, with administrators allocating resources based on SLAs

B.

Through abstraction and automation to distribute resources to customers

C.

By allocating physical systems to a single customer at a time

D.

Through manual configuration of resources for each user need

Question 28

What is the primary purpose of secrets management in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Optimizing cloud infrastructure performance

B.

Managing user authentication for human access

C.

Securely handling stored authentication credentials

D.

Monitoring network traffic for security threats

Question 29

What is a key advantage of using Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC) for cloud-based access management?

Options:

A.

PBAC eliminates the need for defining and managing user roles and permissions.

B.

PBAC is easier to implement and manage compared to Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).

C.

PBAC allows enforcement of granular, context-aware security policies using multiple attributes.

D.

PBAC ensures that access policies are consistent across all cloud providers and platforms.

Question 30

CCM: The Architectural Relevance column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

Options:

A.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

B.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

C.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

Question 31

When designing an encryption system, you should start with a threat model.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 32

When mapping functions to lifecycle phases, which functions are required to successfully process data?

Options:

A.

Create, Store, Use, and Share

B.

Create and Store

C.

Create and Use

D.

Create, Store, and Use

E.

Create, Use, Store, and Delete

Question 33

The Software Defined Perimeter (SDP) includes which components?

Options:

A.

Client, Controller, and Gateway

B.

Client, Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

C.

Client, Firewall, and Gateway

D.

Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

E.

Client, Controller, and Firewall

Question 34

How can virtual machine communications bypass network security controls?

Options:

A.

VM communications may use a virtual network on the same hardware host

B.

The guest OS can invoke stealth mode

C.

Hypervisors depend upon multiple network interfaces

D.

VM images can contain rootkits programmed to bypass firewalls

E.

Most network security systems do not recognize encrypted VM traffic

Question 35

ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:

Options:

A.

Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company

B.

Resource isolation may fail

C.

Provider may change physical location

D.

Mass layoffs may occur

E.

Non-binding agreements put at risk

Question 36

Without virtualization, there is no cloud.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 37

How does virtualized storage help avoid data loss if a drive fails?

Options:

A.

Multiple copies in different locations

B.

Drives are backed up, swapped, and archived constantly

C.

Full back ups weekly

D.

Data loss is unavoidable with drive failures

E.

Incremental backups daily

Question 38

To understand their compliance alignments and gaps with a cloud provider, what must cloud customers rely on?

Options:

A.

Provider documentation

B.

Provider run audits and reports

C.

Third-party attestations

D.

Provider and consumer contracts

E.

EDiscovery tools

Question 39

What method can be utilized along with data fragmentation to enhance security?

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Organization

C.

Knowledge management

D.

IDS

E.

Insulation

Question 40

Why is a service type of network typically isolated on different hardware?

Options:

A.

It requires distinct access controls

B.

It manages resource pools for cloud consumers

C.

It has distinct functions from other networks

D.

It manages the traffic between other networks

E.

It requires unique security

Question 41

Sending data to a provider’s storage over an API is likely as much more reliable and secure than setting up your own SFTP server on a VM in the same provider

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 42

Which concept is a mapping of an identity, including roles, personas, and attributes, to an authorization?

Options:

A.

Access control

B.

Federated Identity Management

C.

Authoritative source

D.

Entitlement

E.

Authentication

Question 43

What is true of companies considering a cloud computing business relationship?

Options:

A.

The laws protecting customer data are based on the cloud provider and customer location only.

B.

The confidentiality agreements between companies using cloud computing services is limited legally to the company, not the provider.

C.

The companies using the cloud providers are the custodians of the data entrusted to them.

D.

The cloud computing companies are absolved of all data security and associated risks through contracts and data laws.

E.

The cloud computing companies own all customer data.

Question 44

Big data includes high volume, high variety, and high velocity.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 45

What factors should you understand about the data specifically due to legal, regulatory, and jurisdictional factors?

Options:

A.

The physical location of the data and how it is accessed

B.

The fragmentation and encryption algorithms employed

C.

The language of the data and how it affects the user

D.

The implications of storing complex information on simple storage systems

E.

The actual size of the data and the storage format

Question 46

What should every cloud customer set up with its cloud service provider (CSP) that can be utilized in the event of an incident?

Options:

A.

A data destruction plan

B.

A communication plan

C.

A back-up website

D.

A spill remediation kit

E.

A rainy day fund

Question 47

Containers are highly portable code execution environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 48

If in certain litigations and investigations, the actual cloud application or environment itself is relevant to resolving the dispute in the litigation or investigation, how is the information likely to be obtained?

Options:

A.

It may require a subpoena of the provider directly

B.

It would require a previous access agreement

C.

It would require an act of war

D.

It would require a previous contractual agreement to obtain the application or access to the environment

E.

It would never be obtained in this situation

Question 49

ENISA: An example high risk role for malicious insiders within a Cloud Provider includes

Options:

A.

Sales

B.

Marketing

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Auditors

E.

Accounting

Question 50

Which governance domain focuses on proper and adequate incident detection, response, notification, and remediation?

Options:

A.

Data Security and Encryption

B.

Information Governance

C.

Incident Response, Notification and Remediation

D.

Compliance and Audit Management

E.

Infrastructure Security

Question 51

Network logs from cloud providers are typically flow records, not full packet captures.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 52

When deploying Security as a Service in a highly regulated industry or environment, what should both parties agree on in advance and include in the SLA?

Options:

A.

The metrics defining the service level required to achieve regulatory objectives.

B.

The duration of time that a security violation can occur before the client begins assessing regulatory fines.

C.

The cost per incident for security breaches of regulated information.

D.

The regulations that are pertinent to the contract and how to circumvent them.

E.

The type of security software which meets regulations and the number of licenses that will be needed.

Question 53

Which term is used to describe the use of tools to selectively degrade portions of the cloud to continuously test business continuity?

Options:

A.

Planned Outages

B.

Resiliency Planning

C.

Expected Engineering

D.

Chaos Engineering

E.

Organized Downtime

Question 54

Audits should be robustly designed to reflect best practice, appropriate resources, and tested protocols and standards. They should also use what type of auditors?

Options:

A.

Auditors working in the interest of the cloud customer

B.

Independent auditors

C.

Certified by CSA

D.

Auditors working in the interest of the cloud provider

E.

None of the above

Question 55

Which layer is the most important for securing because it is considered to be the foundation for secure cloud operations?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure

B.

Datastructure

C.

Infostructure

D.

Applistructure

E.

Metastructure

Question 56

CCM: In the CCM tool, ais a measure that modifies risk and includes any process, policy, device, practice or any other actions which modify risk.

Options:

A.

Risk Impact

B.

Domain

C.

Control Specification

Question 57

Cloud applications can use virtual networks and other structures, for hyper-segregated environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 58

CCM: A company wants to use the IaaS offering of some CSP. Which of the following options for using CCM is NOT suitable for the company as a cloud customer?

Options:

A.

Submit the CCM on behalf of the CSP to CSA Security, Trust & Assurance Registry (STAR), a free, publicly accessible registry that documents the security controls provided by CSPs

B.

Use CCM to build a detailed list of requirements and controls that they want their CSP to implement

C.

Use CCM to help assess the risk associated with the CSP

D.

None of the above

Question 59

In Identity and Access Management (IAM) containment, why is it crucial to understand if an attacker escalated their identity?

Options:

A.

It aids in determining the source IP of the attacker.

B.

Because it simplifies the recovery process and increases the response time.

C.

To prevent further unauthorized access and limit the management plane blast radius.

D.

To facilitate the eradication of malware.

Question 60

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

Options:

A.

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements.

B.

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology.

C.

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload.

D.

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit.

Question 61

Which practice best helps mitigate security risks by minimizing root/core access and restricting deployment creation?

Options:

A.

Enforcing the principle of trust and eventually verily on demand'

B.

Disabling multi-factor authentication for staff and focusing on decision makers' accounts

C.

Deploying applications with full access and applying restrictions based on the need to object

D.

Enforcing the principle of least privilege

Question 62

Which technique involves assessing potential threats through analyzing attacker capabilities, motivations, and potential targets?

Options:

A.

Threat modeling

B.

Vulnerability assessment

C.

Incident response

D.

Risk assessment

Question 63

What is the primary objective of posture management in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Automating incident response procedures

B.

Optimizing cloud cost efficiency

C.

Continuous monitoring of configurations

D.

Managing user access permissions

Question 64

Which plane in a network architecture is responsible for controlling all administrative actions?

Options:

A.

Forwarding plane

B.

Management plane

C.

Data plane

D.

Application plane

Question 65

Which of the following is used for governing and configuring cloud resources and is a top priority in cloud security programs?

Options:

A.

Management Console

B.

Management plane

C.

Orchestrators

D.

Abstraction layer

Question 66

What is a primary objective during the Detection and Analysis phase of incident response?

Options:

A.

Developing and updating incident response policies

B.

Validating alerts and estimating the scope of incidents

C.

Performing detailed forensic investigations

D.

Implementing network segmentation and isolation

Question 67

Which cloud service model typically places the most security responsibilities on the cloud customer?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

The responsibilities are evenly split between cloud provider and customer in all models.

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Question 68

What is the primary purpose of Cloud Infrastructure Entitlement Management (CIEM) in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Deploying cloud services

C.

Governing access to cloud resources

D.

Managing software licensing

Question 69

What is a key benefit of using customer-managed encryption keys with cloud key management service (KMS)?

Options:

A.

Customers can bypass the need for encryption

B.

Customers retain control over their encryption keys

C.

Customers can share their encryption keys more easily

D.

It reduces the computational load on the cloud service provider

Question 70

Which tool is most effective for ensuring compliance and identifying misconfigurations in cloud management planes?

Options:

A.

Data Security Posture Management (DSPM)

B.

SaaS Security Posture Management (SSPM)

C.

Cloud Detection and Response (CDR)

D.

Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)

Question 71

What is a primary benefit of consolidating traffic through a central bastion/transit network in a hybrid cloud environment?

Options:

A.

It minimizes hybrid cloud sprawl and consolidates security.

B.

It reduces the need for physical network hardware.

C.

It increases network redundancy and fault tolerance.

D.

It decreases the latency of data transfers across the cloud network.

Question 72

Which of the following enhances Platform as a Service (PaaS) security by regulating traffic into PaaS components?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Detection Systems

B.

Hardware Security Modules

C.

Network Access Control Lists

D.

API Gateways

Question 73

What is a primary benefit of using Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles/identities provided by cloud providers instead of static secrets?

Options:

A.

They lower storage costs

B.

They reduce the risk of credential leakage

C.

They facilitate data encryption

D.

They improve system performance

Question 74

Which aspect of a Cloud Service Provider's (CSPs) infrastructure security involves protecting the interfaces used to manage configurations and resources?

Options:

A.

Management plane

B.

Virtualization layers

C.

Physical components

D.

PaaS/SaaS services

Question 75

Which of the following is a primary purpose of establishing cloud risk registries?

Options:

A.

In order to establish cloud service level agreements

B.

To monitor real-lime cloud performance

C.

To manage and update cloud account credentials

D.

Identify and manage risks associated with cloud services

Question 76

Which of the following best describes a benefit of using VPNs for cloud connectivity?

Options:

A.

VPNs are more cost-effective than any other connectivity option.

B.

VPNs provide secure, encrypted connections between data centers and cloud deployments.

C.

VPNs eliminate the need for third-party authentication services.

D.

VPNs provide higher bandwidth than direct connections.

Question 77

Which cloud service model requires the customer to manage the operating system and applications?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Network as a Service (NaaS)

C.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Question 78

Which of the following best describes a key aspect of cloud risk management?

Options:

A.

A structured approach for performance optimization of cloud services

B.

A structured approach to identifying, assessing, and addressing risks

C.

A structured approach to establishing the different what/if scenarios for cloud vs on-premise decisions

D.

A structured approach to SWOT analysis

Question 79

Which of the following events should be monitored according to CIS AWS benchmarks?

Options:

A.

Regular file backups

B.

Data encryption at rest

C.

Successful login attempts

D.

Unauthorized API calls

Question 80

What is a cloud workload in terms of infrastructure and platform deployment?

Options:

A.

A network of servers connected to execute processes

B.

A collection of physical hardware used to run applications

C.

A single software application hosted on the cloud

D.

Application software deployable on infrastructure/platform

Question 81

In the context of cloud workload security, which feature directly contributes to enhanced performance and resource utilization without incurring excess costs?

Options:

A.

Fixed resource allocations

B.

Unlimited data storage capacity

C.

Increased on-premise hardware

D.

Elasticity of cloud resources

Question 82

Which of the following best describes the Identity Provider (IdP) and its role in managing access to deployments?

Options:

A.

The IdP is used for authentication purposes and does not play a role in managing access to deployments.

B.

The IdP manages user, group, and role mappings for access to deployments across cloud providers.

C.

The IdP solely manages access within a deployment and resides within the deployment infrastructure.

D.

The IdP is responsible for creating deployments and setting up access policies within a single cloud provider.

Question 83

In the context of Software-Defined Networking (SDN), what does decoupling the network control plane from the data plane primarily achieve?

Options:

A.

Enables programmatic configuration

B.

Decreases network security

C.

Increases hardware dependency

D.

Increases network complexity

Question 84

What is a primary objective of cloud governance in an organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing multi-tenancy and resource pooling.

B.

To align cloud usage with corporate objectives

C.

Simplifying scalability and automating resource management

D.

Enhancing user experience and reducing latency

Question 85

What primary aspects should effective cloud governance address to ensure security and compliance?

Options:

A.

Service availability, disaster recovery, load balancing, and latency

B.

Decision making, prioritization, monitoring, and transparency

C.

Encryption, redundancy, data integrity, and scalability

D.

Authentication, authorization, accounting, and auditing

Question 86

Which Cloud Service Provider (CSP) security measure is primarily used to filter and monitor HTTP requests to protect against SQL injection and XSS attacks?

Options:

A.

CSP firewall

B.

Virtual Appliance

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

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Total 288 questions