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Cisco 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) Exam Practice Test

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Total 726 questions

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Which role is a default guest type in Cisco ISE?

Options:

A.

Monthly

B.

Yearly

C.

Contractor

D.

Full-Time

Question 2

Which characteristic is unique to a Cisco WSAv as compared to a physical appliance?

Options:

A.

supports VMware vMotion on VMware ESXi

B.

requires an additional license

C.

performs transparent redirection

D.

supports SSL decryption

Question 3

Which two application layer preprocessors are used by Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention

System? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

packet decoder

B.

SIP

C.

modbus

D.

inline normalization

E.

SSL

Question 4

What does the Cloudlock Apps Firewall do to mitigate security concerns from an application perspective?

Options:

A.

It allows the administrator to quarantine malicious files so that the application can function, just notmaliciously.

B.

It discovers and controls cloud apps that are connected to a company’s corporate environment.

C.

It deletes any application that does not belong in the network.

D.

It sends the application information to an administrator to act on.

Question 5

How does Cisco Umbrella archive logs to an enterprise owned storage?

Options:

A.

by using the Application Programming Interface to fetch the logs

B.

by sending logs via syslog to an on-premises or cloud-based syslog server

C.

by the system administrator downloading the logs from the Cisco Umbrella web portal

D.

by being configured to send logs to a self-managed AWS S3 bucket

Question 6

Which algorithm is an NGE hash function?

Options:

A.

HMAC

B.

SHA-1

C.

MD5

D.

SISHA-2

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit. When configuring this access control rule in Cisco FMC, what happens with the traffic destined to the DMZ_inside zone once the configuration is deployed?

Options:

A.

All traffic from any zone will be allowed to the DMZ_inside zone only after inspection.

B.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone regardless of if it's trusted or not.

C.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone unless it's already trusted.

D.

All traffic from any zone to the DMZ_inside zone will be permitted with no further inspection.

Question 8

Which method must be used to connect Cisco Secure Workload to external orchestrators at a client site when the client does not allow incoming connections?

Options:

A.

source NAT

B.

reverse tunnel

C.

GRE tunnel

D.

destination NAT

Question 9

How does DNS Tunneling exfiltrate data?

Options:

A.

An attacker registers a domain that a client connects to based on DNS records and sends malware throughthat connection.

B.

An attacker opens a reverse DNS shell to get into the client’s system and install malware on it.

C.

An attacker uses a non-standard DNS port to gain access to the organization’s DNS servers in order topoison the resolutions.

D.

An attacker sends an email to the target with hidden DNS resolvers in it to redirect them to a maliciousdomain.

Question 10

Which action controls the amount of URI text that is stored in Cisco WSA logs files?

Options:

A.

Configure the datasecurityconfig command

B.

Configure the advancedproxyconfig command with the HTTPS subcommand

C.

Configure a small log-entry size.

D.

Configure a maximum packet size.

Question 11

What is the purpose of the Decrypt for Application Detection feature within the WSA Decryption options?

Options:

A.

It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for unauthenticated users.

B.

It alerts users when the WSA decrypts their traffic.

C.

It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for authenticated users.

D.

It provides enhanced HTTPS application detection for AsyncOS.

Question 12

Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?

Options:

A.

cross-site scripting

B.

water holing

C.

DDoS

D.

buffer overflow

Question 13

What is provided by the Secure Hash Algorithm in a VPN?

Options:

A.

integrity

B.

key exchange

C.

encryption

D.

authentication

Question 14

In which two customer environments is the Cisco Secure Web Appliance Virtual connector traffic direction method selected? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Customer needs to support roaming users.

B.

Customer does not own Cisco hardware and needs Transparent Redirection (WCCP).

C.

Customer owns ASA Appliance and Virtual Form Factor is required.

D.

Customer does not own Cisco hardware and needs Explicit Proxy.

E.

Customer owns ASA Appliance and SSL Tunneling is required.

Question 15

Drag and drop the common security threats from the left onto the definitions on the right.

Options:

Question 16

Which Cisco Secure Client module is integrated with Splunk Enterprise to provide monitoring capabilities to administrators to allow them to view endpoint application usage?

Options:

A.

Umbrella Roaming Security

B.

Network Visibility

C.

AMP Enabler

D.

ISE Posture

Question 17

Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to enable administrators to recognize

applications, collect and send network metrics to Cisco Prime and other third-party management tools, and prioritize application traffic?

Options:

A.

Cisco Security Intelligence

B.

Cisco Application Visibility and Control

C.

Cisco Model Driven Telemetry

D.

Cisco DNA Center

Question 18

How does Cisco Umbrella protect clients when they operate outside of the corporate network?

Options:

A.

by modifying the registry for DNS lookups

B.

by using Active Directory group policies to enforce Cisco Umbrella DNS servers

C.

by using the Cisco Umbrella roaming client

D.

by forcing DNS queries to the corporate name servers

Question 19

An engineer is deploying a Cisco Secure Email Gateway and must ensure it reaches the Cisco update servers to retrieve new rules. The engineer must now manually configure the Outbreak Filter rules on an AsyncOS for Cisco Secure Email Gateway. Only outdated rules must be replaced. Up-to-date rules must be retained. Which action must the engineer take next to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Select Outbreak Filters

B.

Perform a backup/restore of the database

C.

Use the outbreakconfig command in CLI

D.

Click Update Rules Now

Question 20

Drag and drop the VPN functions from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 21

An engineer is deploying a Cisco Secure Email Gateway and must configure a sender group that decides which mail policy will process the mail. The configuration must accept incoming mails and relay the outgoing mails from the internal server. Which component must be configured to accept the connection to the listener and meet these requirements on a Cisco Secure Email Gateway?

Options:

A.

RAT

B.

HAT

C.

Sender list

D.

Access list

Question 22

Which two configurations must be made on Cisco ISE and on Cisco TrustSec devices to force a session to be adjusted after a policy change is made? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

posture assessment

B.

aaa authorization exec default local

C.

tacacs-server host 10.1.1.250 key password

D.

aaa server radius dynamic-author

E.

CoA

Question 23

What is the difference between a vulnerability and an exploit?

Options:

A.

A vulnerability is a hypothetical event for an attacker to exploit

B.

A vulnerability is a weakness that can be exploited by an attacker

C.

An exploit is a weakness that can cause a vulnerability in the network

D.

An exploit is a hypothetical event that causes a vulnerability in the network

Question 24

A small organization needs to reduce the VPN bandwidth load on their headend Cisco ASA in order to

ensure that bandwidth is available for VPN users needing access to corporate resources on the10.0.0.0/24 local HQ network. How is this accomplished without adding additional devices to the

network?

Options:

A.

Use split tunneling to tunnel traffic for the 10.0.0.0/24 network only.

B.

Configure VPN load balancing to distribute traffic for the 10.0.0.0/24 network,

C.

Configure VPN load balancing to send non-corporate traffic straight to the internet.

D.

Use split tunneling to tunnel all traffic except for the 10.0.0.0/24 network.

Question 25

Refer to the exhibit. Which task is the Python script performing by using the Cisco Umbrella API?

Options:

A.

Creating a list of the latest security events

B.

Copying a list of the latest security activity

C.

Retrieving a list of the latest security events

D.

Sending a list of the latest security activity

Question 26

What is a benefit of using GET VPN over FlexVPN within a VPN deployment?

Options:

A.

GET VPN supports Remote Access VPNs

B.

GET VPN natively supports MPLS and private IP networks

C.

GET VPN uses multiple security associations for connections

D.

GET VPN interoperates with non-Cisco devices

Question 27

What is a characteristic of Firepower NGIPS inline deployment mode?

Options:

A.

ASA with Firepower module cannot be deployed.

B.

It cannot take actions such as blocking traffic.

C.

It is out-of-band from traffic.

D.

It must have inline interface pairs configured.

Question 28

A network engineer is configuring DMVPN and entered the crypto isakmp key cisc0380739941 address 0.0.0.0 command on hostA. The tunnel is not being established to hostB. What action is needed to authenticate the VPN?

Options:

A.

Change isakmp to ikev2 in the command on hostA.

B.

Enter the command with a different password on hostB.

C.

Enter the same command on hostB.

D.

Change the password on hostA to the default password.

Question 29

Due to a traffic storm on the network, two interfaces were error-disabled, and both interfaces sent SNMP traps.

Which two actions must be taken to ensure that interfaces are put back into service? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Have Cisco Prime Infrastructure issue an SNMP set command to re-enable the ports after the preconfigured interval.

B.

Use EEM to have the ports return to service automatically in less than 300 seconds.

C.

Enter the shutdown and no shutdown commands on the interfaces.

D.

Enable the snmp-server enable traps command and wait 300 seconds

E.

Ensure that interfaces are configured with the error-disable detection and recovery feature

Question 30

Which two authentication protocols are supported by the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

WCCP

B.

NTLM

C.

TLS

D.

SSL

E.

LDAP

Question 31

Which system performs compliance checks and remote wiping?

Options:

A.

MDM

B.

ISE

C.

AMP

D.

OTP

Question 32

An organization has a requirement to collect full metadata information about the traffic going through their AWS cloud services They want to use this information for behavior analytics and statistics Which two actions must be taken to implement this requirement? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure Cisco ACI to ingest AWS information.

B.

Configure Cisco Thousand Eyes to ingest AWS information.

C.

Send syslog from AWS to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud.

D.

Send VPC Flow Logs to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud.

E.

Configure Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud to ingest AWS information

Question 33

What is the recommendation in a zero-trust model before granting access to corporate applications and

resources?

Options:

A.

to use multifactor authentication

B.

to use strong passwords

C.

to use a wired network, not wireless

D.

to disconnect from the network when inactive

Question 34

Which statement about the configuration of Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 Secure Event Logging is true?

Options:

A.

To view bandwidth usage for NetFlow records, the QoS feature must be enabled.

B.

A sysopt command can be used to enable NSEL on a specific interface.

C.

NSEL can be used without a collector configured.

D.

A flow-export event type must be defined under a policy

Question 35

Which Cisco Advanced Malware protection for Endpoints deployment architecture is designed to keep data

within a network perimeter?

Options:

A.

cloud web services

B.

network AMP

C.

private cloud

D.

public cloud

Question 36

What are two benefits of using Cisco Duo as an MFA solution? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

grants administrators a way to remotely wipe a lost or stolen device

B.

provides simple and streamlined login experience for multiple applications and users

C.

native integration that helps secure applications across multiple cloud platforms or on-premises environments

D.

encrypts data that is stored on endpoints

E.

allows for centralized management of endpoint device applications and configurations

Question 37

Drag and drop the Cisco CWS redirection options from the left onto the capabilities on the right.

Options:

Question 38

Which Cisco command enables authentication, authorization, and accounting globally so that CoA is supported on the device?

Options:

A.

aaa server radius dynamic-author

B.

aaa new-model

C.

auth-type all

D.

ip device-tracking

Question 39

A network security engineer must export packet captures from the Cisco FMC web browser while troubleshooting an issue. When navigating to the address /capure/CAPI/pcap/test.pcap, an error 403: Forbidden is given instead of the PCAP file. Which action must the engineer take to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Disable the proxy setting on the browser

B.

Disable the HTTPS server and use HTTP instead

C.

Use the Cisco FTD IP address as the proxy server setting on the browser

D.

Enable the HTTPS server for the device platform policy

Question 40

What are the components of endpoint protection against social engineering attacks?

Options:

A.

IPsec

B.

IDS

C.

Firewall

D.

Cisco Secure Email Gateway

Question 41

Which technology must De used to Implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches over a private IP cloud with any-to-any scalable connectivity?

Options:

A.

GET VPN

B.

IPsec DVTI

C.

DMVPN

D.

FlexVPN

Question 42

A customer has various external HTTP resources available including Intranet. Extranet, and Internet, with a proxy configuration running in explicit mode Which method allows the client desktop browsers to be configured to select when to connect direct or when to use the proxy?

Options:

A.

Transparent mode

B.

Forward file

C.

PAC file

D.

Bridge mode

Question 43

Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention

System?

Options:

A.

Correlation

B.

Intrusion

C.

Access Control

D.

Network Discovery

Question 44

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a new Cisco ISE backend server as a RADIUS server to provide AAA for all access requests from the client to the ISE-Frontend server.

Which Cisco ISE configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

Set 10.11.1.2 as a network device in ISE-Frontend. Set port 1700/2083 for RADIUS authentication.

B.

Set 10.11.1.1 as the external RADIUS server in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1812/1813 for authentication and accounting.

C.

Set 10.11.1.2 as the external RADIUS server in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1812/1813 for authentication and accounting.

D.

Set 10.11.1.1 as a network device in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1700/2083 for RADIUS authentication.

Question 45

When using Cisco AMP for Networks which feature copies a file to the Cisco AMP cloud for analysis?

Options:

A.

Spero analysis

B.

dynamic analysis

C.

sandbox analysis

D.

malware analysis

Question 46

Which CLI command is used to register a Cisco FirePower sensor to Firepower Management Center?

Options:

A.

configure system add

B.

configure manager add host

C.

configure manager delete

D.

configure manager add

Question 47

Which security solution uses NetFlow to provide visibility across the network, data center, branch

offices, and cloud?

Options:

A.

Cisco CTA

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch

C.

Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics

D.

Cisco Umbrella

Question 48

Which CLI command is used to enable URL filtering support for shortened URLs on the Cisco ESA?

Options:

A.

webadvancedconfig

B.

websecurity advancedconfig

C.

outbreakconfig

D.

websecurity config

Question 49

What is an advantage of using a next-generation firewall compared to a traditional firewall?

Options:

A.

Next-generation firewalls have stateless inspection capabilities, and traditional firewalls use stateful inspection.

B.

Next-generation firewalls use dynamic packet filtering, and traditional firewalls use static packet filtering.

C.

Next-generation firewalls have threat intelligence feeds, and traditional firewalls use signature detection.

D.

Next-generation firewalls use intrusion prevention policies, and traditional firewalls use intrusion detection policies.

Question 50

What are two benefits of workload security? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Tracked application security

B.

Automated patching

C.

Reduced attack surface

D.

Scalable security policies

E.

Workload modeling

Question 51

When MAB is configured for use within the 802.1X environment, an administrator must create a policy that allows the devices onto the network. Which information is used for the username and password?

Options:

A.

The MAB uses the IP address as username and password.

B.

The MAB uses the call-station-ID as username and password.

C.

Each device must be set manually by the administrator.

D.

The MAB uses the MAC address as username and password.

Question 52

Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?

Options:

A.

dot1x system-auth-control

B.

dot1x pae authenticator

C.

authentication port-control aut

D.

aaa new-model

Question 53

On which part of the IT environment does DevSecOps focus?

Options:

A.

application development

B.

wireless network

C.

data center

D.

perimeter network

Question 54

On Cisco Firepower Management Center, which policy is used to collect health modules alerts from managed

devices?

Options:

A.

health policy

B.

system policy

C.

correlation policy

D.

access control policy

E.

health awareness policy

Question 55

An administrator is configuring N I P on Cisco ASA via ASDM and needs to ensure that rogue NTP servers cannot insert themselves as the authoritative time source Which two steps must be taken to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Specify the NTP version

B.

Configure the NTP stratum

C.

Set the authentication key

D.

Choose the interface for syncing to the NTP server

E.

Set the NTP DNS hostname

Question 56

Which two features of Cisco DNA Center are used in a Software Defined Network solution? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

accounting

B.

assurance

C.

automation

D.

authentication

E.

encryption

Question 57

Which API method and required attribute are used to add a device into Cisco DNA Center with the native API?

Options:

A.

GET and serialNumber

B.

userSudiSerlalNos and deviceInfo

C.

POST and name

D.

lastSyncTime and pid

Question 58

Which endpoint solution protects a user from a phishing attack?

Options:

A.

Cisco Identity Services Engine

B.

Cisco AnyConnect with ISE Posture module

C.

Cisco AnyConnect with Network Access Manager module

D.

Cisco AnyConnect with Umbrella Roaming Security module

Question 59

Which two deployment modes does the Cisco ASA FirePower module support? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

transparent mode

B.

routed mode

C.

inline mode

D.

active mode

E.

passive monitor-only mode

Question 60

How is data sent out to the attacker during a DNS tunneling attack?

Options:

A.

as part of the UDP/53 packet payload

B.

as part of the domain name

C.

as part of the TCP/53 packet header

D.

as part of the DNS response packet

Question 61

A network engineer has entered the snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256

cisc0380739941 command and needs to send SNMP information to a host at 10.255.254.1. Which command achieves this goal?

Options:

A.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

B.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 myv3

C.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 andy

D.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 myv3

Question 62

With Cisco AMP for Endpoints, which option shows a list of all files that have been executed in your

environment?

Options:

A.

Prevalence

B.

File analysis

C.

Detections

D.

Vulnerable software

E.

Threat root cause

Question 63

A switch with Dynamic ARP Inspection enabled has received a spoofed ARP response on a trusted interface.

How does the switch behave in this situation?

Options:

A.

It forwards the packet after validation by using the MAC Binding Table.

B.

It drops the packet after validation by using the IP & MAC Binding Table.

C.

It forwards the packet without validation.

D.

It drops the packet without validation.

Question 64

Which two activities are performed using Cisco Catalyst Center? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

DHCP

B.

Design

C.

Provision

D.

DNS

E.

Accounting

Question 65

Which component of Cisco umbrella architecture increases reliability of the service?

Options:

A.

Anycast IP

B.

AMP Threat grid

C.

Cisco Talos

D.

BGP route reflector

Question 66

What is a difference between a zone-based firewall and a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewall?

Options:

A.

Zone-based firewalls provide static routing based on interfaces, and Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewalls provide dynamic routing.

B.

Zone-based firewalls support virtual tunnel interfaces across different locations, and Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewalls support DMVPN.

C.

Zone-based firewalls have a default allow-all policy between interfaces in the same zone, and Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewalls have a deny-all policy.

D.

Zone-based firewalls are used in large deployments with multiple areas, and Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewalls are used in small deployments.

Question 67

Which public cloud provider supports the Cisco Next Generation Firewall Virtual?

Options:

A.

Google Cloud Platform

B.

Red Hat Enterprise Visualization

C.

VMware ESXi

D.

Amazon Web Services

Question 68

Which algorithm provides asymmetric encryption?

Options:

A.

RC4

B.

AES

C.

RSA

D.

3DES

Question 69

An engineer is configuring Cisco Secure Endpoint to enhance security by preventing the execution of certain files by users. The engineer needs to ensure that the specific executable file name Cisco_Software_0505446151.exe is blocked from running while never being quarantined. What must the engineer configure to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Create advanced custom detection list.

B.

Configure application control blocked applications list.

C.

Implement simple custom detection list.

D.

Enable scheduled scans to detect and block the executable files.

Question 70

An organization plans to upgrade its current email security solutions, and an engineer must deploy Cisco Secure Email. The requirements for the upgrade are:

    Implement Data Loss Prevention

    Implement mail encryption

    Integrate with an existing Cisco IronPort Secure Email Gateway solution

Which Cisco Secure Email license is needed to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

Cisco Secure Email Outbound Essentials

B.

Cisco Secure Email Phishing Defense

C.

Cisco Secure Email Domain Protection

D.

Cisco Secure Email Inbound Essentials

Question 71

An engineer must implement a file transfer solution between a company's data center and branches. The company has numerous servers hosted in a hybrid cloud implementation. The file transfer protocol must support authentication, protect the data against unauthorized access, and ensure that users cannot list directories or remove files remotely. Which protocol must be used?

Options:

A.

SCP

B.

SSH

C.

FTPS

D.

SFTP

Question 72

Which Cisco security solution stops exfiltration using HTTPS?

Options:

A.

Cisco FTD

B.

Cisco AnyConnect

C.

Cisco CTA

D.

Cisco ASA

Question 73

Which type of data exfiltration technique encodes data in outbound DNS requests to specific servers

and can be stopped by Cisco Umbrella?

Options:

A.

DNS tunneling

B.

DNS flood attack

C.

cache poisoning

D.

DNS hijacking

Question 74

A user has a device in the network that is receiving too many connection requests from multiple machines.

Which type of attack is the device undergoing?

Options:

A.

phishing

B.

slowloris

C.

pharming

D.

SYN flood

Question 75

An engineer is implementing Cisco CES in an existing Microsoft Office 365 environment and must route inbound email to Cisco CE.. record must be modified to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

CNAME

B.

MX

C.

SPF

D.

DKIM

Question 76

Which technology should be used to help prevent an attacker from stealing usernames and passwords of users within an organization?

Options:

A.

RADIUS-based REAP

B.

fingerprinting

C.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

D.

multifactor authentication

Question 77

Which factor must be considered when choosing the on-premise solution over the cloud-based one?

Options:

A.

With an on-premise solution, the provider is responsible for the installation and maintenance of the product, whereas with a cloud-based solution, the customer is responsible for it

B.

With a cloud-based solution, the provider is responsible for the installation, but the customer is responsible for the maintenance of the product.

C.

With an on-premise solution, the provider is responsible for the installation, but the customer is responsible for the maintenance of the product.

D.

With an on-premise solution, the customer is responsible for the installation and maintenance of theproduct, whereas with a cloud-based solution, the provider is responsible for it.

Question 78

What limits communication between applications or containers on the same node?

Options:

A.

microsegmentation

B.

container orchestration

C.

microservicing

D.

Software-Defined Access

Question 79

Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

AES is less secure than 3DES.

B.

AES is more secure than 3DES.

C.

AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.

D.

AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.

E.

AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.

Question 80

The Cisco ASA must support TLS proxy for encrypted Cisco Unified Communications traffic. Where must the

ASA be added on the Cisco UC Manager platform?

Options:

A.

Certificate Trust List

B.

Endpoint Trust List

C.

Enterprise Proxy Service

D.

Secured Collaboration Proxy

Question 81

What is a benefit of an endpoint patch management strategy?

Options:

A.

Patches are deployed without a testing phase.

B.

Fewer staff is needed to manage the endpoints.

C.

Endpoints are resistant to vulnerabilities.

D.

Ensures adherence to regulatory and compliance standards.

Question 82

Which technology limits communication between nodes on the same network segment to individual applications?

Options:

A.

serverless infrastructure

B.

microsegmentation

C.

SaaS deployment

D.

machine-to-machine firewalling

Question 83

What is the primary benefit of deploying an ESA in hybrid mode?

Options:

A.

You can fine-tune its settings to provide the optimum balance between security and performance for your environment

B.

It provides the lowest total cost of ownership by reducing the need for physical appliances

C.

It provides maximum protection and control of outbound messages

D.

It provides email security while supporting the transition to the cloud

Question 84

An engineer must modify a policy to block specific addresses using Cisco Umbrella. The policy is created already and is actively u: of the default policy elements. What else must be done to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

Add the specified addresses to the identities list and create a block action.

B.

Create a destination list for addresses to be allowed or blocked.

C.

Use content categories to block or allow specific addresses.

D.

Modify the application settings to allow only applications to connect to required addresses.

Question 85

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the authentication protocol used in the configuration is true?

Options:

A.

The authentication request contains only a password

B.

The authentication request contains only a username

C.

The authentication and authorization requests are grouped in a single packet

D.

There are separate authentication and authorization request packets

Question 86

In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?

Options:

A.

Smurf

B.

distributed denial of service

C.

cross-site scripting

D.

rootkit exploit

Question 87

What are two security benefits of an MDM deployment? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

robust security policy enforcement

B.

privacy control checks

C.

on-device content management

D.

distributed software upgrade

E.

distributed dashboard

Question 88

What is an attribute of the DevSecOps process?

Options:

A.

mandated security controls and check lists

B.

security scanning and theoretical vulnerabilities

C.

development security

D.

isolated security team

Question 89

Which two statements about a Cisco WSA configured in Transparent mode are true? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It can handle explicit HTTP requests.

B.

It requires a PAC file for the client web browser.

C.

It requires a proxy for the client web browser.

D.

WCCP v2-enabled devices can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.

E.

Layer 4 switches can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.

Question 90

Which two products are used to forecast capacity needs accurately in real time? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Cisco Secure Workload

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco Workload Optimization Manager

D.

Cisco AppDynamics

E.

Cisco Cloudlock

Question 91

How does Cisco AMP for Endpoints provide next-generation protection?

Options:

A.

It encrypts data on user endpoints to protect against ransomware.

B.

It leverages an endpoint protection platform and endpoint detection and response.

C.

It utilizes Cisco pxGrid, which allows Cisco AMP to pull threat feeds from threat intelligence centers.

D.

It integrates with Cisco FTD devices.

Question 92

An engineer adds a custom detection policy to a Cisco AMP deployment and encounters issues with the

configuration. The simple detection mechanism is configured, but the dashboard indicates that the hash is not 64 characters and is non-zero. What is the issue?

Options:

A.

The engineer is attempting to upload a hash created using MD5 instead of SHA-256

B.

The file being uploaded is incompatible with simple detections and must use advanced detections

C.

The hash being uploaded is part of a set in an incorrect format

D.

The engineer is attempting to upload a file instead of a hash

Question 93

Which two mechanisms are used to control phishing attacks? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable browser alerts for fraudulent websites.

B.

Define security group memberships.

C.

Revoke expired CRL of the websites.

D.

Use antispyware software.

E.

Implement email filtering techniques.

Question 94

What is the benefit of integrating Cisco ISE with a MDM solution?

Options:

A.

It provides compliance checks for access to the network

B.

It provides the ability to update other applications on the mobile device

C.

It provides the ability to add applications to the mobile device through Cisco ISE

D.

It provides network device administration access

Question 95

Which exfiltration method does an attacker use to hide and encode data inside DNS requests and queries?

Options:

A.

DNS tunneling

B.

DNSCrypt

C.

DNS security

D.

DNSSEC

Question 96

II

An engineer musí set up 200 new laptops on a network and wants to prevent the users from moving their laptops around to simplify administration Which switch port MAC address security setting must be used?

Options:

A.

sticky

B.

static

C.

aging

D.

maximum

Question 97

Drag and drop the features of Cisco ASA with Firepower from the left onto the benefits on the right.

Options:

Question 98

Which type of algorithm provides the highest level of protection against brute-force attacks?

Options:

A.

PFS

B.

HMAC

C.

MD5

D.

SHA

Question 99

Email security has become a high-priority task for a security engineer at a large multi-national organization due to ongoing phishing campaigns. To help control this, the engineer has deployed an Incoming Content Filter with a URL reputation of (-10.00 to -6.00) on the Cisco Secure Email Gateway. Which action will the system perform to disable any links in messages that match the filter?

Options:

A.

FilterAction

B.

ScreenAction

C.

Quarantine

D.

Defang

Question 100

An engineer is configuring web filtering for a network using Cisco Umbrella Secure Internet Gateway.

The requirement is that all traffic needs to be filtered. Using the SSL decryption feature, which type of

certificate should be presented to the end-user to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

third-party

B.

self-signed

C.

organization owned root

D.

SubCA

Question 101

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configured a site-to-site VPN tunnel between two Cisco IOS routers, and hosts are unable to communicate between two sites of VPN. The network administrator runs the debug crypto isakmp sa command to track VPN status. What is the problem according to this command output?

Options:

A.

hashing algorithm mismatch

B.

encryption algorithm mismatch

C.

authentication key mismatch

D.

interesting traffic was not applied

Question 102

Which feature is leveraged by advanced antimalware capabilities to be an effective endpomt protection platform?

Options:

A.

big data

B.

storm centers

C.

sandboxing

D.

blocklisting

Question 103

When planning a VPN deployment, for which reason does an engineer opt for an active/active FlexVPN

configuration as opposed to DMVPN?

Options:

A.

Multiple routers or VRFs are required.

B.

Traffic is distributed statically by default.

C.

Floating static routes are required.

D.

HSRP is used for faliover.

Question 104

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the encryption algorithms on the right.

Options:

Question 105

What are two functionalities of SDN Northbound APIs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Northbound APIs provide a programmable interface for applications to dynamically configure the network.

B.

Northbound APIs form the interface between the SDN controller and business applications.

C.

OpenFlow is a standardized northbound API protocol.

D.

Northbound APIs use the NETCONF protocol to communicate with applications.

E.

Northbound APIs form the interface between the SDN controller and the network switches or routers.

Question 106

Which form of attack is launched using botnets?

Options:

A.

EIDDOS

B.

virus

C.

DDOS

D.

TCP flood

Question 107

What is a feature of an endpoint detection and response solution?

Options:

A.

Preventing attacks by identifying harmful events with machine learning and conduct-based defense

B.

Rapidly and consistently observing and examining data to mitigate threats

C.

Capturing and clarifying data on email, endpoints, and servers to mitigate threats

D.

Ensuring the security of network devices by choosing which devices are allowed to reach the network

Question 108

What is the purpose of the Trusted Automated exchange cyber threat intelligence industry standard?

Options:

A.

public collection of threat intelligence feeds

B.

threat intelligence sharing organization

C.

language used to represent security information

D.

service used to exchange security information

Question 109

Which two methods are available in Cisco Secure Web Appliance to process client requests when configured in Transparent mode? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

WCCP

B.

Browser settings

C.

WPAD

D.

PAC files

E.

PBR

Question 110

What is a benefit of using Cisco Tetration?

Options:

A.

It collects telemetry data from servers and then uses software sensors to analyze flowinformation.

B.

It collects policy compliance data and process details.

C.

It collects enforcement data from servers and collects interpacket variation.

D.

It collects near-real time data from servers and inventories the software packages that exist onservers.

Question 111

An engineer is configuring Dropbox integration with Cisco Cloudlock. Which action must be taken before granting API access in the Dropbox admin console?

Options:

A.

Authorize Dropbox within the Platform settings in the Cisco Cloudlock portal.

B.

Add Dropbox to the Cisco Cloudlock Authentication and API section in the Cisco Cloudlock portal.

C.

Send an API request to Cisco Cloudlock from Dropbox admin portal.

D.

Add Cisco Cloudlock to the Dropbox admin portal.

Question 112

Which two components do southbound APIs use to communicate with downstream devices? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

services running over the network

B.

OpenFlow

C.

external application APIs

D.

applications running over the network

E.

OpFlex

Question 113

An administrator has been tasked with configuring the Cisco Secure Email Gateway to ensure there are no viruses before quarantined emails are delivered. In addition, delivery of mail from known bad mail servers must be prevented. Which two actions must be taken in order to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Deploy the Secure Email Gateway in the DMZ.

B.

Use outbreak filters from Cisco Talos.

C.

Configure a recipient access table.

D.

Enable a message tracking service.

E.

Scan quarantined emails using AntiVirus signatures.

Question 114

An MDM provides which two advantages to an organization with regards to device management? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

asset inventory management

B.

allowed application management

C.

Active Directory group policy management

D.

network device management

E.

critical device management

Question 115

A network engineer is deciding whether to use stateful or stateless failover when configuring two Cisco ASAs for high availability. What is the connection status in both cases?

Options:

A.

Need to be reestablished with both stateful and stateless failover

B.

Need to be reestablished with stateful failover and preserved with stateless failover

C.

Preserved with both stateful and stateless failover

D.

Preserved with stateful failover and need to be reestablished with stateless failover

Question 116

An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upon further investigation, it is learned that broadcast

packets have been flooding the network. What must be configured, based on a predefined threshold, to

address this issue?

Options:

A.

Bridge Protocol Data Unit guard

B.

embedded event monitoring

C.

storm control

D.

access control lists

Question 117

Which function is included when Cisco AMP is added to web security?

Options:

A.

multifactor, authentication-based user identity

B.

detailed analytics of the unknown file's behavior

C.

phishing detection on emails

D.

threat prevention on an infected endpoint

Question 118

Which command is used to log all events to a destination colector 209.165.201.107?

Options:

A.

CiscoASA(config-pmap-c)#flow-export event-type flow-update destination 209.165.201.10

B.

CiscoASA(config-cmap)# flow-export event-type all destination 209.165.201.

C.

CiscoASA(config-pmap-c)#flow-export event-type all destination 209.165.201.10

D.

CiscoASA(config-cmap)#flow-export event-type flow-update destination 209.165.201.10

Question 119

What are two characteristics of the RESTful architecture used within Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

REST uses methods such as GET, PUT, POST, and DELETE.

B.

REST codes can be compiled with any programming language.

C.

REST is a Linux platform-based architecture.

D.

The POST action replaces existing data at the URL path.

E.

REST uses HTTP to send a request to a web service.

Question 120

An organization must add new firewalls to its infrastructure and wants to use Cisco ASA or Cisco FTD.

The chosen firewalls must provide methods of blocking traffic that include offering the user the option to bypass the block for certain sites after displaying a warning page and to reset the connection. Which solution should the organization choose?

Options:

A.

Cisco FTD because it supports system rate level traffic blocking, whereas Cisco ASA does not

B.

Cisco ASA because it allows for interactive blocking and blocking with reset to be configured via the GUI, whereas Cisco FTD does not.

C.

Cisco FTD because it enables interactive blocking and blocking with reset natively, whereas Cisco ASA does not

D.

Cisco ASA because it has an additional module that can be installed to provide multiple blocking capabilities, whereas Cisco FTD does not.

Question 121

An organization has DHCP servers set up to allocate IP addresses to clients on the LAN. What must be done to ensure the LAN switches prevent malicious DHCP traffic while also distributing IP addresses to the correct endpoints?

Options:

A.

Configure Dynamic ARP inspection and add entries in the DHCP snooping database.

B.

Configure DHCP snooping and set trusted interfaces for all client connections.

C.

Configure Dynamic ARP inspection and antispoofing ACLs in the DHCP snooping database.

D.

Configure DHCP snooping and set a trusted interface for the DHCP server.

Question 122

An administrator configures a new destination list in Cisco Umbrella so that the organization can block specific domains for its devices. What should be done to ensure that all subdomains of domain.com are blocked?

Options:

A.

Configure the *.com address in the block list.

B.

Configure the *.domain.com address in the block list

C.

Configure the *.domain.com address in the block list

D.

Configure the domain.com address in the block list

Question 123

Which functions of an SDN architecture require southbound APIs to enable communication?

Options:

A.

SDN controller and the network elements

B.

management console and the SDN controller

C.

management console and the cloud

D.

SDN controller and the cloud

Question 124

Which process is used to obtain a certificate from a CA?

Options:

A.

Registration

B.

Enrollment

C.

Signing

D.

Approval

Question 125

Which two global commands must the network administrator implement to limit the attack surface of an internet-facing Cisco router? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

no service password-recovery

B.

no cdp run

C.

service tcp-keepalives-in

D.

no ip http server

E.

ip ssh version 2

Question 126

What is a language format designed to exchange threat intelligence that can be transported over the TAXII

protocol?

Options:

A.

STIX

B.

XMPP

C.

pxGrid

D.

SMTP

Question 127

What are the two types of managed Intercloud Fabric deployment models? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Public managed

B.

Service Provider managed

C.

Enterprise managed

D.

User managed

E.

Hybrid managed

Question 128

What does Cisco ISE use to collect endpoint attributes that are used in profiling?

Options:

A.

probes

B.

posture assessment

C.

Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client

D.

Cisco pxGrid

Question 129

Client workstations are experiencing extremely poor response time. An engineer suspects that an attacker is eavesdropping and making independent connections while relaying messages between victims to make them think they are talking to each other over a private connection. Which feature must be enabled and configured to provide relief from this type of attack?

Options:

A.

Link Aggregation

B.

Reverse ARP

C.

private VLANs

D.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

Question 130

What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

data exfiltration

B.

command and control communication

C.

intelligent proxy

D.

snort

E.

URL categorization

Question 131

What does Cisco AMP for Endpoints use to help an organization detect different families of malware?

Options:

A.

Ethos Engine to perform fuzzy fingerprinting

B.

Tetra Engine to detect malware when me endpoint is connected to the cloud

C.

Clam AV Engine to perform email scanning

D.

Spero Engine with machine learning to perform dynamic analysis

Question 132

What is the purpose of a denial-of-service attack?

Options:

A.

to disrupt the normal operation of a targeted system by overwhelming It

B.

to exploit a security vulnerability on a computer system to steal sensitive information

C.

to prevent or limit access to data on a computer system by encrypting It

D.

to spread throughout a computer system by self-replicating to additional hosts

Question 133

Which encryption algorithm provides highly secure VPN communications?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

AES 256

C.

AES 128

D.

DES

Question 134

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP snooping database resides on router R1, and dynamic ARP inspection is configured only on switch SW2. Which ports must be configured as untrusted so that dynamic ARP inspection operates normally?

Options:

A.

P2 and P3 only

B.

P5, P6, and P7 only

C.

P1, P2, P3, and P4 only

D.

P2, P3, and P6 only

Question 135

A company identified a phishing vulnerability during a pentest What are two ways the company can protect employees from the attack? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

using Cisco Umbrella

B.

using Cisco ESA

C.

using Cisco FTD

D.

using an inline IPS/IDS in the network

E.

using Cisco ISE

Question 136

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure a Cisco router to send traps using SNMPv3. The engineer configures a remote user to receive traps and sets the security level to use authentication without privacy. Which command completes the configuration?

Options:

A.

snmp-server host 10.12.8.4 informs version 3 noauthno remoteuser config

B.

snmp-server host 10.12.8.4 informs version 3 noauthnoPriv remoteuser config

C.

snmp-server user TrapUser group2 remote 10.12.8.4 v3 auth md5 password1

D.

snmp-server user TrapUser group2 remote 10.12.8.4 v3 auth md5 password1 priv access des56

Question 137

Which VMware platform does Cisco ACI integrate with to provide enhanced visibility, provide policy integration and deployment, and implement security policies with access lists?

Options:

A.

VMware APIC

B.

VMwarevRealize

C.

VMware fusion

D.

VMware horizons

Question 138

Which two characteristics of messenger protocols make data exfiltration difficult to detect and prevent?

(Choose two)

Options:

A.

Outgoing traffic is allowed so users can communicate with outside organizations.

B.

Malware infects the messenger application on the user endpoint to send company data.

C.

Traffic is encrypted, which prevents visibility on firewalls and IPS systems.

D.

An exposed API for the messaging platform is used to send large amounts of data.

E.

Messenger applications cannot be segmented with standard network controls

Question 139

An organization wants to improve its cybersecurity processes and to add intelligence to its data The organization wants to utilize the most current intelligence data for URL filtering, reputations, and vulnerability information that can be integrated with the Cisco FTD and Cisco WSA What must be done to accomplish these objectives?

Options:

A.

Create a Cisco pxGrid connection to NIST to import this information into the security products for policy use

B.

Create an automated download of the Internet Storm Center intelligence feed into the Cisco FTD and Cisco WSA databases to tie to the dynamic access control policies.

C.

Download the threat intelligence feed from the IETF and import it into the Cisco FTD and Cisco WSA databases

D.

Configure the integrations with Talos Intelligence to take advantage of the threat intelligence that it provides.

Question 140

Email security has become a high priority task for a security engineer at a large multi-national organization due to ongoing phishing campaigns. To help control this, the engineer has deployed an Incoming Content Filter with a URL reputation of (-10 00 to -6 00) on the Cisco ESA Which action will the system perform to disable any links in messages that match the filter?

Options:

A.

Defang

B.

Quarantine

C.

FilterAction

D.

ScreenAction

Question 141

Which Cisco security solution determines if an endpoint has the latest OS updates and patches installed on the system?

Options:

A.

Cisco Endpoint Security Analytics

B.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

C.

Endpoint Compliance Scanner

D.

Security Posture Assessment Service

Question 142

An engineer is configuring IPsec VPN and needs an authentication protocol that is reliable and supports ACK

and sequence. Which protocol accomplishes this goal?

Options:

A.

AES-192

B.

IKEv1

C.

AES-256

D.

ESP

Question 143

An engineer is configuring Cisco Umbrella and has an identity that references two different policies. Which action ensures that the policy that the identity must use takes precedence over the second one?

Options:

A.

Configure the default policy to redirect the requests to the correct policy

B.

Place the policy with the most-specific configuration last in the policy order

C.

Configure only the policy with the most recently changed timestamp

D.

Make the correct policy first in the policy order

Question 144

Which Cisco AMP file disposition valid?

Options:

A.

pristine

B.

malware

C.

dirty

D.

non malicious

Question 145

Which Cisco ISE feature helps to detect missing patches and helps with remediation?

Options:

A.

posture assessment

B.

profiling policy

C.

authentication policy

D.

enabling probes

Question 146

What is the result of the ACME-Router(config)#login block-for 100 attempts 4 within 60 command on a Cisco IOS router?

Options:

A.

lf four log in attempts fail in 100 seconds, wait for 60 seconds to next log in prompt.

B.

After four unsuccessful log in attempts, the line is blocked for 100 seconds and only permit IP addresses are permitted in ACL

C.

After four unsuccessful log in attempts, the line is blocked for 60 seconds and only permit IP addresses are permitted in ACL1

D.

If four failures occur in 60 seconds, the router goes to quiet mode for 100 seconds.

Question 147

Which interface mode does a Cisco Secure IPS device use to block suspicious traffic?

Options:

A.

Passive

B.

Inline

C.

Promiscuous

D.

Active

Question 148

A network engineer is tasked with configuring a Cisco ISE server to implement external authentication against Active Directory. What must be considered about the authentication requirements? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

RADIUS communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

B.

The ISE account must be a domain administrator in Active Directory to perform JOIN operations.

C.

Active Directory only supports user authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

D.

LDAP communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

E.

Active Directory supports user and machine authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

Question 149

A network administrator needs a solution to match traffic and allow or deny the traffic based on the type of application, not just the source or destination address and port used. Which kind of security product must the network administrator implement to meet this requirement?

Options:

A.

Next-generation Intrusion Prevention System

B.

Next-generation Firewall

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

Question 150

What are two ways a network administrator transparently identifies users using Active Directory on the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.) The eDirectory client must be installed on each client workstation.

Options:

A.

Create NTLM or Kerberos authentication realm and enable transparent user identification

B.

Deploy a separate Active Directory agent such as Cisco Context Directory Agent.

C.

Create an LDAP authentication realm and disable transparent user identification.

D.

Deploy a separate eDirectory server: the client IP address is recorded in this server

Question 151

Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against phishing attacks when they are not connected to

the VPN?

Options:

A.

Cisco Stealthwatch

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco Firepower

D.

NGIPS

Question 152

Which Talos reputation center allows you to track the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?

Options:

A.

IP Blacklist Center

B.

File Reputation Center

C.

AMP Reputation Center

D.

IP and Domain Reputation Center

Question 153

Which two features of Cisco Email Security can protect your organization against email threats? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Time-based one-time passwords

B.

Data loss prevention

C.

Heuristic-based filtering

D.

Geolocation-based filtering

E.

NetFlow

Question 154

Which problem Is solved by deploying a multicontext firewall?

Options:

A.

overlapping IP addressing plan

B.

more secure policy

C.

resilient high availability design

D.

faster inspection

Question 155

What Cisco command shows you the status of an 802.1X connection on interface gi0/1?

Options:

A.

show authorization status

B.

show authen sess int gi0/1

C.

show connection status gi0/1

D.

show ver gi0/1

Question 156

Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable client-side scripts on a per-domain basis.

B.

Incorporate contextual output encoding/escaping.

C.

Disable cookie inspection in the HTML inspection engine.

D.

Run untrusted HTML input through an HTML sanitization engine.

E.

Same Site cookie attribute should not be used.

Question 157

Which Cisco Umbrella package supports selective proxy for Inspection of traffic from risky domains?

Options:

A.

SIG Advantage

B.

DNS Security Essentials

C.

SIG Essentials

D.

DNS Security Advantage

Question 158

What is the function of SDN southbound API protocols?

Options:

A.

to allow for the dynamic configuration of control plane applications

B.

to enable the controller to make changes

C.

to enable the controller to use REST

D.

to allow for the static configuration of control plane applications

Question 159

Which solution stops unauthorized access to the system if a user's password is compromised?

Options:

A.

VPN

B.

MFA

C.

AMP

D.

SSL

Question 160

An engineer must configure AsyncOS for Cisco Secure Web Appliance to push log files to a syslog server using the SCP retrieval method. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to complete the configuration.

Options:

Question 161

A networking team must harden an organization's network from VLAN hopping attacks. The team disables Dynamic Trunking Protocol and puts any unused ports in an unused VLAN. A trunk port is used as a trunk link. What must the team configure next to harden the network against VLAN hopping attacks?

Options:

A.

disable STP on the network devices

B.

dedicated VLAN ID for all trunk ports

C.

DHCP snooping on all the switches

D.

enable port-based network access control

Question 162

What are two benefits of using an MDM solution? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

grants administrators a way to remotely wipe a lost or stolen device

B.

provides simple and streamlined login experience for multiple applications and users

C.

native integration that helps secure applications across multiple cloud platforms or on-premises environments

D.

encrypts data that is stored on endpoints

E.

allows for centralized management of endpoint device applications and configurations

Question 163

Drag and drop the NetFlow export formats from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 164

For Cisco IOS PKI, which two types of Servers are used as a distribution point for CRLs? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

SDP

B.

LDAP

C.

subordinate CA

D.

SCP

E.

HTTP

Question 165

A company recently discovered an attack propagating throughout their Windows network via a file named abc428565580xyz exe The malicious file was uploaded to a Simple Custom Detection list in the AMP for Endpoints Portal and the currently applied policy for the Windows clients was updated to reference the detection list Verification testing scans on known infected systems shows that AMP for Endpoints is not detecting the presence of this file as an indicator of compromise What must be performed to ensure detection of the malicious file?

Options:

A.

Upload the malicious file to the Blocked Application Control List

B.

Use an Advanced Custom Detection List instead of a Simple Custom Detection List

C.

Check the box in the policy configuration to send the file to Cisco Threat Grid for dynamic analysis

D.

Upload the SHA-256 hash for the file to the Simple Custom Detection List

Question 166

Which type of API is being used when a security application notifies a controller within a software-defined network architecture about a specific security threat?

Options:

A.

westbound AP

B.

southbound API

C.

northbound API

D.

eastbound API

Question 167

An engineer is implementing NTP authentication within their network and has configured both the client and server devices with the command ntp authentication-key 1 md5 Cisc392368270. The server at 1.1.1.1 is attempting to authenticate to the client at 1.1.1.2, however it is unable to do so. Which command is required to enable the client to accept the server’s authentication key?

Options:

A.

ntp peer 1.1.1.1 key 1

B.

ntp server 1.1.1.1 key 1

C.

ntp server 1.1.1.2 key 1

D.

ntp peer 1.1.1.2 key 1

Question 168

A customer has various external HTTP resources available including Intranet Extranet and Internet, with a

proxy configuration running in explicit mode. Which method allows the client desktop browsers to be configured

to select when to connect direct or when to use the proxy?

Options:

A.

Transport mode

B.

Forward file

C.

PAC file

D.

Bridge mode

Question 169

Which type of attack is MFA an effective deterrent for?

Options:

A.

ping of death

B.

phishing

C.

teardrop

D.

syn flood

Question 170

An organization is implementing AAA for their users. They need to ensure that authorization is verified for every command that is being entered by the network administrator. Which protocol must be configured in order to provide this capability?

Options:

A.

EAPOL

B.

SSH

C.

RADIUS

D.

TACACS+

Question 171

For which type of attack is multifactor authentication an effective deterrent?

Options:

A.

Ping of death

B.

Teardrop

C.

SYN flood

D.

Phishing

Question 172

Which two actions does the Cisco ISE posture module provide that ensures endpoint security? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A centralized management solution is deployed.

B.

Patch management remediation is performed.

C.

The latest antivirus updates are applied before access is allowed.

D.

Assignments to endpoint groups are made dynamically, based on endpoint attributes.

E.

Endpoint supplicant configuration is deployed.

Question 173

Drag and drop the Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System detectors from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.

Options:

Question 174

Which Cisco security solution integrates with cloud applications like Dropbox and Office 365 while protecting data from being exfiltrated?

Options:

A.

Cisco Tajos

B.

Cisco Steaithwatch Cloud

C.

Cisco Cloudlock

D.

Cisco Umbrella Investigate

Question 175

Refer to the exhibit.

Consider that any feature of DNS requests, such as the length off the domain name

and the number of subdomains, can be used to construct models of expected behavior to which

observed values can be compared. Which type of malicious attack are these values associated with?

Options:

A.

Spectre Worm

B.

Eternal Blue Windows

C.

Heartbleed SSL Bug

D.

W32/AutoRun worm

Question 176

For which two conditions can an endpoint be checked using ISE posture assessment? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Windows service

B.

computer identity

C.

user identity

D.

Windows firewall

E.

default browser

Question 177

Refer to the exhibit,

which command results in these messages when attempting to troubleshoot an iPsec VPN connection?

Options:

A.

debug crypto isakmp

B.

debug crypto ipsec endpoint

C.

debug crypto Ipsec

D.

debug crypto isakmp connection

Question 178

Which cloud model is a collaborative effort where infrastructure is shared and jointly accessed by several organizations from a specific group?

Options:

A.

Hybrid

B.

Community

C.

Private

D.

Public

Question 179

A network administrator is setting up Cisco FMC to send logs to Cisco Security Analytics and Logging (SaaS). The network administrator is anticipating a high volume of logging events from the firewalls and wants lo limit the strain on firewall resources. Which method must the administrator use to send these logs to Cisco Security Analytics and Logging?

Options:

A.

SFTP using the FMCCLI

B.

syslog using the Secure Event Connector

C.

direct connection using SNMP traps

D.

HTTP POST using the Security Analytics FMC plugin

Question 180

Which risk is created when using an Internet browser to access cloud-based service?

Options:

A.

misconfiguration of infrastructure, which allows unauthorized access

B.

intermittent connection to the cloud connectors

C.

vulnerabilities within protocol

D.

insecure implementation of API

Question 181

A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface. What is causing this problem?

Options:

A.

DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.

B.

The ip arp inspection limit command is applied on all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.

C.

Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs

D.

The no ip arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces

Question 182

Which two commands are required when configuring a flow-export action on a Cisco ASA? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

flow-export event-type

B.

policy-map

C.

access-list

D.

flow-export template timeout-rate 15

E.

access-group

Question 183

How does a Cisco Secure Firewall help to lower the risk of exfiltration techniques that steal customer data?

Options:

A.

Blocking UDP port 53

B.

Blocking TCP port 53

C.

Encrypting the DNS communication

D.

Inspecting the DNS traffic

Question 184

Which Secure Email Gateway implementation method segregates inbound and outbound email?

Options:

A.

Pair of logical listeners on a single physical interface with two unique logical IPv4 addresses and one IPv6 address

B.

One listener on one logical IPv4 address on a single logical interface

C.

Pair of logical IPv4 listeners and a pair of IPv6 listeners on two physically separate interfaces

D.

One listener on a single physical interface

Question 185

Which security solution uses NetFlow to provide visibility across the network, data center, branch offices, and cloud?

Options:

A.

Cisco CTA

B.

Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco Secure Network Analytics

Question 186

A Cisco AMP for Endpoints administrator configures a custom detection policy to add specific MD5 signatures The configuration is created in the simple detection policy section, but it does not work What is the reason for this failure?

Options:

A.

The administrator must upload the file instead of the hash for Cisco AMP to use.

B.

The MD5 hash uploaded to the simple detection policy is in the incorrect format

C.

The APK must be uploaded for the application that the detection is intended

D.

Detections for MD5 signatures must be configured in the advanced custom detection policies

Question 187

A network administrator is using the Cisco ESA with AMP to upload files to the cloud for analysis. The network

is congested and is affecting communication. How will the Cisco ESA handle any files which need analysis?

Options:

A.

AMP calculates the SHA-256 fingerprint, caches it, and periodically attempts the upload.

B.

The file is queued for upload when connectivity is restored.

C.

The file upload is abandoned.

D.

The ESA immediately makes another attempt to upload the file.

Question 188

Why is it important for the organization to have an endpoint patching strategy?

Options:

A.

so the organization can identify endpoint vulnerabilities

B.

so the internal PSIRT organization is aware of the latest bugs

C.

so the network administrator is notified when an existing bug is encountered

D.

so the latest security fixes are installed on the endpoints

Question 189

An organization is using Cisco Firepower and Cisco Meraki MX for network security and needs to centrally

manage cloud policies across these platforms. Which software should be used to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Cisco Defense Orchestrator

B.

Cisco Secureworks

C.

Cisco DNA Center

D.

Cisco Configuration Professional

Question 190

Which statement describes a serverless application?

Options:

A.

The application delivery controller in front of the server farm designates on which server the application runs each time.

B.

The application runs from an ephemeral, event-triggered, and stateless container that is fully managed by a cloud provider.

C.

The application is installed on network equipment and not on physical servers.

D.

The application runs from a containerized environment that is managed by Kubernetes or Docker Swarm.

Question 191

An organization is implementing URL blocking using Cisco Umbrella. The users are able to go to some sites

but other sites are not accessible due to an error. Why is the error occurring?

Options:

A.

Client computers do not have the Cisco Umbrella Root CA certificate installed.

B.

IP-Layer Enforcement is not configured.

C.

Client computers do not have an SSL certificate deployed from an internal CA server.

D.

Intelligent proxy and SSL decryption is disabled in the policy

Question 192

Which threat involves software being used to gain unauthorized access to a computer system?

Options:

A.

virus

B.

NTP amplification

C.

ping of death

D.

HTTP flood

Question 193

Which feature is used in a push model to allow for session identification, host reauthentication, and session termination?

Options:

A.

AAA attributes

B.

CoA request

C.

AV pair

D.

carrier-grade NAT

Question 194

When a Cisco Secure Web Appliance checks a web request, what occurs if it is unable to match a user-defined policy?

Options:

A.

It applies the next identification profile policy.

B.

It applies the advanced policy.

C.

It applies the global policy.

D.

It blocks the request.

Question 195

Which two are valid suppression types on a Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Port

B.

Rule

C.

Source

D.

Application

E.

Protocol

Question 196

Refer to the exhibit.

When configuring a remote access VPN solution terminating on the Cisco ASA, an administrator would like to utilize an external token authentication mechanism in conjunction with AAA authentication using machine

certificates. Which configuration item must be modified to allow this?

Options:

A.

Group Policy

B.

Method

C.

SAML Server

D.

DHCP Servers

Question 197

Which feature enables a Cisco ISR to use the default bypass list automatically for web filtering?

Options:

A.

filters

B.

group key

C.

company key

D.

connector

Question 198

Which two risks is a company vulnerable to if it does not have a well-established patching solution for

endpoints? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

exploits

B.

ARP spoofing

C.

denial-of-service attacks

D.

malware

E.

eavesdropping

Question 199

An administrator is trying to determine which applications are being used in the network but does not want the

network devices to send metadata to Cisco Firepower. Which feature should be used to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

Packet Tracer

C.

Network Discovery

D.

Access Control

Question 200

An administrator configures a Cisco WSA to receive redirected traffic over ports 80 and 443. The organization requires that a network device with specific WSA integration capabilities be configured to send the traffic to the WSA to proxy the requests and increase visibility, while making this invisible to the users. What must be done on the Cisco WSA to support these requirements?

Options:

A.

Configure transparent traffic redirection using WCCP in the Cisco WSA and on the network device

B.

Configure active traffic redirection using WPAD in the Cisco WSA and on the network device

C.

Use the Layer 4 setting in the Cisco WSA to receive explicit forward requests from the network device

D.

Use PAC keys to allow only the required network devices to send the traffic to the Cisco WSA

Question 201

What is an attribute of Cisco Talos?

Options:

A.

Introduction of attributes that use objects and narrative relations

B.

Fast and intelligent responses based on threat data

C.

Cyber threat intelligence interchange and maintenance

D.

Cyber threats posing as authorized users and devices

Question 202

An engineer is configuring 802.1X authentication on Cisco switches in the network and is using CoA as a mechanism. Which port on the firewall must be opened to allow the CoA traffic to traverse the network?

Options:

A.

TCP 6514

B.

UDP 1700

C.

TCP 49

D.

UDP 1812

Question 203

Which feature requires that network telemetry be enabled?

Options:

A.

per-interface stats

B.

SNMP trap notification

C.

Layer 2 device discovery

D.

central syslog system

Question 204

A Cisco Secure Email Gateway network administrator has been tasked to use a newly installed service to help create policy based on the reputation verdict. During testing, it is discovered that the Secure Email Gateway is not dropping files that have an undetermined verdict. What is causing this issue?

Options:

A.

The file has a reputation score that is below the threshold.

B.

The file has a reputation score that is above the threshold.

C.

The policy was created to disable file analysis.

D.

The policy was created to send a message to quarantine instead of drop.

Question 205

In which type of attack does the attacker insert their machine between two hosts that are communicating with each other?

Options:

A.

LDAP injection

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

cross-site scripting

D.

insecure API

Question 206

Which feature requires a network discovery policy on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention

System?

Options:

A.

Security Intelligence

B.

Impact Flags

C.

Health Monitoring

D.

URL Filtering

Question 207

What is a benefit of using Cisco AVC (Application Visibility and Control) for application control?

Options:

A.

management of application sessions

B.

retrospective application analysis

C.

zero-trust approach

D.

dynamic application scanning

Question 208

A company is experiencing exfiltration of credit card numbers that are not being stored on-premise. The

company needs to be able to protect sensitive data throughout the full environment. Which tool should be used

to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Security Manager

B.

Cloudlock

C.

Web Security Appliance

D.

Cisco ISE

Question 209

Which Cisco WSA feature supports access control using URL categories?

Options:

A.

transparent user identification

B.

SOCKS proxy services

C.

web usage controls

D.

user session restrictions

Question 210

What is a prerequisite when integrating a Cisco ISE server and an AD domain?

Options:

A.

Place the Cisco ISE server and the AD server in the same subnet

B.

Configure a common administrator account

C.

Configure a common DNS server

D.

Synchronize the clocks of the Cisco ISE server and the AD server

Question 211

Refer to the exhibit. What function does the API key perform while working with

Options:

A.

imports requests

B.

HTTP authorization

C.

HTTP authentication

D.

plays dent ID

Question 212

An engineer is trying to decide whether to use Cisco Umbrella, Cisco CloudLock, Cisco Stealthwatch, or Cisco AppDynamics Cloud Monitoring for visibility into data transfers as well as protection against data exfiltration Which solution best meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco CloudLock

B.

Cisco AppDynamics Cloud Monitoring

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch

Question 213

Which API technology with SDN architecture is used to communicate with a controller and network devices such as routers and switches?

Options:

A.

REST APIs

B.

Northbound APIs

C.

Unprotected APIs

D.

Southbound APIs

Question 214

An engineer must modify an existing remote access VPN using a Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility client solution and a Cisco Secure Firewall. Currently, all the traffic generate by the user Is sent to the VPN tunnel and the engineer must now exclude some servers and access them directly instead. Which element must be modified to achieve this goat?

Options:

A.

NAT exemption

B.

encryption domain

C.

routing table

D.

group policy

Question 215

What is a description of microsegmentation?

Options:

A.

Environments apply a zero-trust model and specify how applications on different servers or containers can communicate

B.

Environments deploy a container orchestration platform, such as Kubernetes, to manage the application delivery

C.

Environments implement private VLAN segmentation to group servers with similar applications.

D.

Environments deploy centrally managed host-based firewall rules on each server or container

Question 216

What is a description of microsegmentation?

Options:

A.

Environments deploy a container orchestration platform, such as Kubernetes, to manage the application delivery.

B.

Environments apply a zero-trust model and specify how applications on different servers or containers can communicate.

C.

Environments deploy centrally managed host-based firewall rules on each server or container.

D.

Environments implement private VLAN segmentation to group servers with similar applications.

Question 217

With regard to RFC 5176 compliance, how many IETF attributes are supported by the RADIUS CoA feature?

Options:

A.

3

B.

5

C.

10

D.

12

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Total 726 questions