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Cisco 350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) Exam Practice Test

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Total 843 questions

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Where in Cisco DNA Center is documentation of each API call, organized by its functional area?

Options:

A.

Developer Toolkit

B.

platform management

C.

platform bundles

D.

Runtime Dashboard

Question 2

Which of the following attacks becomes more effective because of global leakages of users' passwords?

Options:

A.

Dictionary

B.

Brute-force

C.

Phishing

D.

Deauthentication

Question 3

Simulation 04

Configure OSPF on both routers according to the topology to achieve these goals:

Options:

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit.

A company has an internal wireless network with a hidden SSID and RADIUS-based client authentication for increased security. An employee attempts to manually add the company network to a laptop, but the laptop does not attempt to connect to the network. The regulatory domains of the access points and the laptop are identical. Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Ensure that the "Connect even if this network is not broadcasting" option is selected.

B.

Limit the enabled wireless channels on the laptop to the maximum channel range that is supported by the access points.

C.

Change the security type to WPA2-Personal AES.

D.

Use the empty string as the hidden SSID network name.

Question 5

Which Cisco DNA Center application is responsible for group-based access control permissions?

Options:

A.

Provision

B.

Design

C.

Policy

D.

Assurance

Question 6

Which two features are available only in next-generation firewalls? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

virtual private network

B.

deep packet inspection

C.

stateful inspection

D.

application awareness

E.

packet filtering

Question 7

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the orchestration tool classifications on the right.

Options:

Question 8

An engineer must configure router R1 to validate user logins via RADIUS and fall back to the local user database if the RADIUS server is not available. Which configuration must be applied?

Options:

A.

aaa authorization exec default radius local

B.

aaa authorization exec default radius

C.

aaa authentication exec default radius local

D.

aaa authentication exec default radius

Question 9

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the orchestration tools that they describe on the right.

Options:

Question 10

Which tool is used in Cisco DNA Center to build generic configurations that are able to be applied on device with similar network settings?

Options:

A.

Command Runner

B.

Template Editor

C.

Application Policies

D.

Authentication Template

Question 11

Which technology enables a redundant supervisor engine to take over when the primary supervisor engine fails?

Options:

A.

NSF

B.

graceful restart

C.

SSO

D.

FHRP

Question 12

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer builds an EEM script to apply an access list. Which statement must be added to complete the script?

Options:

A.

event none

B.

action 2.1 cli command "ip action 3.1 ell command 101''

C.

action 6.0 ell command ''ip access-list extended 101''

D.

action 6.0 cli command ''ip access-list extended 101"

Question 13

When is GLBP preferred over HSRP?

Options:

A.

When encrypted helm are required between gateways h a single group.

B.

When the traffic load needs to be shared between multiple gateways using a single virtual IP.

C.

When the gateway routers are a mix of Cisco and non-Cisco routers

D.

When clients need the gateway MAC address lo Be the same between multiple gateways

Question 14

Where is the wireless LAN controller located in a mobility express deployment?

Options:

A.

There is no wireless LAN controller in the network.

B.

The wireless LAN controller is embedded into the access point.

C.

The wireless LAN controller exists in the cloud.

D.

The wireless LAN controller exists in a server that is dedicated for this purpose.

Question 15

When does a Cisco StackWise primary switch lose its role?

Options:

A.

when a stack member fails

B.

when the stack primary is reset

C.

when a switch with a higher priority is added to the stack

D.

when the priority value of a stack member is changed to a higher value

Question 16

Which function does a Cisco SD-Access extended node perform?

Options:

A.

provides fabric extension to nonfabric devices through remote registration and configuration

B.

performs tunneling between fabric and nonfabric devices to route traffic over unknown networks

C.

used to extend the fabric connecting to downstream nonfabric enabled Layer 2 switches

D.

in charge of establishing Layer 3 adjacencies with nonfabric unmanaged node

Question 17

What is difference between TCAM and the MAC address table?

Options:

A.

TCAM is used to make Lalyer 2 forwarding decisions CAM is used to build routing tables.

B.

The MAC address table supports partial matches .TCAM requires an exact match.

C.

The MAC address table is contained in CAM.ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM.

D.

Router prefix lookups happens in CAM.MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM.

Question 18

Refer to the exhibit.

An LACP port channel is configured between Switch-1 and Switch-2, but It falls to come up. Which action will resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure Switch-1 with channel-group mode active

B.

Configure Switch-2 with channel-group mode desirable.

C.

Configure Switch-1 with channel-group mode on.

D.

Configure SwKch-2 with channel-group mode auto

Question 19

How do the RIB and the FIB differ?

Options:

A.

FIB contains routes learned through a dynamic routing protocol, and the RIB contains routes that are static or directly connected.

B.

RIB contains the interface for a destination, and the FIB contains the next hop information.

C.

FIB is derived from the control plane, and the RIB is derived from the data plane.

D.

RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB.

Question 20

Which TLV value must be added to Option 43 when DHCP is used to ensure that APs join the WLC?

Options:

A.

0x77

B.

AAA

C.

0xf1

D.

642

Question 21

Refer to the exhibit.

What happens to access interfaces where VLAN 222 is assigned?

Options:

A.

STP BPDU guard is enabled

B.

A description "RSPAN" is added.

C.

They are placed into an inactive state.

D.

They cannot provide PoE.

Question 22

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures a trunk between SW1 and SW2 but tagged packets are not passing. Which action fixes the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure SW1 with dynamic auto mode on interface FastEthernet0/1.

B.

Configure the native VLAN to be the same VLAN on both switches on interface FastEthernet0/1.

C.

Configure SW2 with encapsulation dot1q on interface FastEthernet0/1.

D.

Configure FastEthernet0/1 on both switches for static trunking.

Question 23

Simulation 02

Configure HSRP between DISTRO-SW1 and DISTRO-SW2 on VLAN 100 for hosts connected to ACCESS-SW1 to achieve these goals:

1. Configure group number 1 using the virtual IP address of 192.168.1.1/24.

2. Configure DlSTRO-SW1 as the active router using a priority value of 110 and DISTRO-SW2 as the standby router.

3. Ensure that DISTRO-SW2 will take over the active role when DISTRO-SW1 goes down, and when DISTRO-SW1 recovers, it automatically resumes the active role.

DISTRO-SW2

Options:

Question 24

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 12 use?

Options:

A.

00 5e0c:07:ac:12

B.

05:44:33:83:68:6c

C.

00:00:0c:07:ac:0c

D.

00:05:5e:00:0c:12

Question 25

Which function is performed by vSmart in the Cisco SD-WAN architecture?

Options:

A.

distribution of IPsec keys

B.

Redistribution between OMP and other routing protocols

C.

facilitation of NAT detection and traversal

D.

execution of localized policies

Question 26

In Cisco DNA Center, what is the integration API?

Options:

A.

southbound consumer-facing RESTful API. which enables network discovery and configuration management

B.

westbound interface, which allows the exchange of data to be used by ITSM. IPAM and reporting

C.

an interface between the controller and the network devices, which enables network discovery and configuration management

D.

northbound consumer-facing RESTful API, which enables network discovery and configuration management

Question 27

Which access control feature does MAB provide?

Options:

A.

user access based on IP address

B.

allows devices to bypass authenticate*

C.

network access based on the physical address of a device

D.

simultaneous user and device authentication

Question 28

Based on the router's API output in JSON format below, which Python code will display the value of the “hostname" key?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 29

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 30 use?

Options:

A.

00:05:0c:07:ac:30

B.

00:00:0c:07:ac:1e

C.

05:0c:5e:ac:07:30

D.

00:42:18:14:05:1e

Question 30

A company recently decided to use RESTCONF instead of NETCONF and many of their NETCONF scripts contain the operation

(operation=”create”).Which RESTCONF operation must be used to replace these statements?

Options:

A.

POST

B.

GET

C.

PUT

D.

CREATE

Question 31

What is the function of vBond in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

Options:

A.

initiating connections with SD-WAN routers automatically

B.

pushing of configuration toward SD-WAN routers

C.

onboarding of SD-WAN routers into the SD-WAN overlay

D.

gathering telemetry data from SD-WAN routers

Question 32

Users have reported an issue connecting to a server over the network. A workstation was recently added to the network and configured with a shared USB printer. Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?

Options:

A.

The switch is oversubscribed and cannot handle the additional throughput.

B.

The printer is tying up the server with DHCP discover messages.

C.

The web server's back end was designed for only single-threaded applications.

D.

The workstation was configured with a static IP that is the same as the server.

Question 33

Refer to the exhibit Users cannot reach the web server at 192.168 100 1. What is the root cause for the failure?

Options:

A.

The server is attempting to load balance between links 10.100 100.1 and 10 100.200.1.

B.

The server is out of service.

C.

There is a loop in the path to the server.

D.

The gateway cannot translate the server domain name.

Question 34

How do stratum levels relate to the distance from a time source?

Options:

A.

Stratum 1 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source.

B.

Stratum 15 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source

C.

Stratum 0 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source.

D.

Stratum 15 devices are an authoritative time source.

Question 35

Which two results occur if Cisco DNA Center loses connectivity to devices in the SD-Access fabric? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance.

B.

All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center.

C.

Already connected users are unaffected, but new users cannot connect

D.

Users lose connectivity.

E.

User connectivity is unaffected.

Question 36

Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the Python script to print the device model to the screen and write JSON data to a file Not all options are used

Options:

Question 37

What is a benefit of Cisco TrustSec in a multilayered LAN network design?

Options:

A.

Policy or ACLS are nor required.

B.

There is no requirements to run IEEE 802.1X when TrustSec is enabled on a switch port.

C.

Applications flows between hosts on the LAN to remote destinations can be encrypted.

D.

Policy can be applied on a hop-by-hop basis.

Question 38

What is the recommended minimum SNR for Voice applications for networks?

Options:

A.

15

B.

20

C.

25

D.

10

Question 39

What is a characteristic of the Cisco DMA Center Template Editor feature?

Options:

A.

It facilitates software upgrades lo network devices from a central point.

B.

It facilitates a vulnerability assessment of the network devices.

C.

It provides a high-level overview of the health of every network device.

D.

It uses a predefined configuration through parameterized elements or variables.

Question 40

Which configuration filters out DOT1X messages in the format shown below from being sent toward Syslog server 10.15.20.33?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 41

Which NTP mode must be activated when using a Cisco router as an NTP authoritative server?

Options:

A.

primary

B.

server

C.

broadcast client

D.

peer

Question 42

In a campus network design, what ate two benefits of using BFD tor failure detection? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

BFD provides path failure detection in less than a second.

B.

BFD is an efficient way to reduce memory and CPU usage.

C.

BFD provides fault tolerance by enabling multiple routers to appear as a single virtual router.

D.

BFD speeds up routing convergence time.

E.

BFD enables network peers to continue forwarding packets in the event of a restart.

Question 43

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures HSRP and enters the show standby command. Which two facts about the network environment are derived from the output? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The local device has a higher priority selling than the active router

B.

The virtual IP address of the HSRP group is 10.1.1.1.

C.

If the local device fails to receive a hello from the active router for more than 5 seconds, it becomes the active router.

D.

The hello and hold timers are set to custom values.

E.

If a router with a higher IP address and same HSRP priority as the active router becomes available, that router becomes the new active router 5 seconds later.

Question 44

What is a characteristic of a traditional WAN?

Options:

A.

low complexity and high overall solution scale

B.

centralized reachability, security, and application policies

C.

operates over DTLS and TLS authenticated and secured tunnels

D.

united data plane and control plane

Question 45

An engineer must create a script to append and modify device entries in a JSON-formatted file. The script must work as follows:

  • Until interrupted from the keyboard, the script reads in the hostname of a device, its management IP address, operating system type, and CLI remote access protocol.
  • After being interrupted, the script displays the entered entries and adds them to the JSON-formatted file, replacing existing entries whose hostname matches.

The contents of the JSON-formatted file are as follows:

Drag and drop the statements onto the blanks within the code to complete the script. Not all options are used.

Options:

Question 46

What is a characteristics of Cisco SD-WAN?

Options:

A.

operates over DTLS/TLS authenticated and secured tunnels

B.

requires manual secure tunnel configuration

C.

uses unique per-device feature templates

D.

uses control connections between routers

Question 47

Which router is elected the IGMP Querier when more than one router is in the same LAN segment?

Options:

A.

The router with the shortest uptime

B.

The router with the lowest IP address

C.

The router with the highest IP address

D.

The router with the longest uptime

Question 48

Relet lo Ibe exhibit.

An ertgineer must modify the existing configuration so that R2 can take over as the primary router when serial interface 0/0.1 on R1 goes down. Whtch command must the engineer apply''

Options:

A.

R2W standby 100 track 26 decrement 10

B.

R2# standby 100 preempt

C.

R2# track 26 interface SerialWO.1 line-protocol

D.

R2# standby 100 priority 100

Question 49

Which Python library is used to work with YANG data models via NETCONF?

Options:

A.

Postman

B.

requests

C.

nccllent

D.

cURL

Question 50

In a Cisco SD-Access wireless environment, which device is responsible for hosting the anycast gateway?

Options:

A.

fusion router

B.

control plane node

C.

fabric border node

D.

fabric edge node

Question 51

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the switching mechanisms they describe on the right.

Options:

Question 52

What is one role of the VTEP in a VXLAN environment?

Options:

A.

to forward packets to non-LISP sites

B.

to encapsulate the tunnel

C.

to maintain VLAN configuration consistency

D.

to provide EID-to-RLOC mapping

Question 53

What are two characteristics of vManage APIs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Southbound API is based on OMP and DTLS.

B.

Northbound API is RESTful, using JSON.

C.

Northbound API is based on RESTCONF and JSON.

D.

Southbound API is based on NETCONF and XML.

E.

Southbound API is based on RESTCONF and JSON.

Question 54

Which of the following security methods uses physical characteristics of a person to authorize access to a location?

Options:

A.

Access control vestibule

B.

Palm scanner

C.

PIN pad

D.

Digital card reader

E.

Photo ID

Question 55

Refer to the exhibit.

Both controllers are in the same mobility group. Which result occurs when client 1 roams between APs that are registered to different controllers in the same WLAN?

Options:

A.

Client 1 contact controller B by using an EoIP tunnel.

B.

CAPWAP tunnel is created between controller A and controller B.

C.

Client 1 users an EoIP tunnel to contact controller A.

D.

The client database entry moves from controller A to controller B.

Question 56

Which technology reduces the implementation of STP and leverages both unicast and multicast?

Options:

A.

VSS

B.

VXLAN

C.

VPC

D.

VLAN

Question 57

Which mobility role is assigned to a client in the client table of the new controller after a Layer 3 roam?

Options:

A.

anchor

B.

foreign

C.

mobility

D.

transparent

Question 58

How is traffic classified when using Cisco TrustSec technology?

Options:

A.

with the VLAN

B.

with the MAC address

C.

with the IP address

D.

with the security group tag

Question 59

What is the purpose of the weight attribute in an EID-lo-RLOC mapping?

Options:

A.

it indicates the preference for using LISP over native IP connectivity.

B.

it determines the administrative distance of LISP generated routes in the RIB

C.

It identifies the preferred RLOC address family.

D.

it indicates the load-balancing ratio between CTRs of 9m earns priority.

Question 60

Refer to the exhibit. Clients report that they cannot connect to this SSID using the provided PSK. Which action will resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Apply the correct interface to this WLAN.

B.

Apply the changes this SSID.

C.

Select the PSK under authentication key management.

D.

Define the correct Radio Policy.

Question 61

How do cloud deployments compare to on-premises deployments?

Options:

A.

Cloud deployments provide a better user experience across world regions, whereas on-premises deployments depend upon region-specific conditions

B.

Cloud deployments are inherently unsecure. whereas a secure architecture is mandatory for on-premises deployments.

C.

Cloud deployments mandate a secure architecture, whereas on-premises deployments are inherently unsecure.

D.

Cloud deployments must include automation infrastructure, whereas on-premises deployments often lack the ability for automation.

Question 62

Company policy restricts VLAN 10 to be allowed only on SW1 and SW2. All other VLANs can be on all three switches. An administrator has noticed that VLAN 10 has propagated to SW3. Which configuration corrects the issue?

Options:

A.

SW1(config)#intgi1/1

SW1(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094

B.

SW2(config)#intgi1/2

SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

C.

SW2(config)#int gi1/2

SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094

D.

SWl(config)#intgi1/1

SW1(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

Question 63

What is stateful switchover?

Options:

A.

mechanism used to prevent routing protocol loops during an RP switchover

B.

mechanism to take control from a failed RP while maintaining connectivity

C.

First Hop Redundancy Protocol for host gateway connectivity

D.

cluster protocol used to facilitate switch faitover

Question 64

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the orchestration tools they describe on the right.

Options:

Question 65

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the appropriate infrastructure deployment types on the right.

Options:

Question 66

What are two characteristics of VXLAN? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It uses VTEPs to encapsulate and decapsulate frames.

B.

It has a 12-bit network identifier

C.

It allows for up to 16 million VXLAN segments

D.

It lacks support for host mobility

E.

It extends Layer 2 and Layer 3 overlay networks over a Layer 2 underlay.

Question 67

A network engineer configures BGP between R1 and R2. Both routers use BGP peer group CORP and are set up to use MD5 authentication. This message is logged to the console of router R1:

Which two configuration allow peering session to from between R1 and R2? Choose two.)

Options:

A.

R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R1(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

B.

R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.120.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

C.

R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor PEER password Cisco

D.

R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.120.10.1 peer-group CORP R1(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

E.

R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

Question 68

Refer to the exhibit.

Router 1 is currently operating as the HSRP primary with a priority of 110 router1 fails and router2 take over the forwarding role. Which command on router1 causes it to take over the forwarding role when it return to service?

Options:

A.

standby 2 priority

B.

standby 2 preempt

C.

standby 2 track

D.

standby 2 timers

Question 69

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer troubleshoots an issue with the port channel between SW1 and SW2. which command resolves the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 70

Which outbound access list, applied to the WAN interface of a router, permits all traffic except for http traffic sourced from the workstation with IP address 10.10.10.1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 71

which entity is a Type 1 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

Oracle VM VirtualBox

B.

VMware server

C.

Citrix XenServer

D.

Microsoft Virtual PC

Question 72

Which command set configures RSPAN to capture outgoing traffic from VLAN 3 on interface GigabitEthernet 0/3 while ignoring other VLAN traffic on the same interface?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 73

An engineer is concerned with the deployment of new application that is sensitive to inter-packet delay variance. Which command configures the router to be the destination of jitter measurements?

Options:

A.

Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

B.

Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

C.

Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

D.

Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

Question 74

Which configuration restricts the amount of SSH that a router accepts 100 kbps?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 75

Refer to the exhibit How was spanning-tree configured on this interface?

Options:

A.

By entering the command spanning-tree portfast trunk in the interface configuration mode.

B.

By entering the command spanning-tree portfast in the interface configuration mode

C.

By entering the command spanning-tree mst1 vlan 10,20,30,40 in the global configuration mode

D.

By entering the command spanning-tree vlan 10,20,30,40 root primary in the interface configuration mode

Question 76

Which two components are supported by LISP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Proxy ETR

B.

egress tunnel router

C.

route reflector

D.

HMAC algorithm

E.

spoke

Question 77

What is one benefit of implementing a VSS architecture?

Options:

A.

It provides multiple points of management for redundancy and improved support

B.

It uses GLBP to balance traffic between gateways.

C.

It provides a single point of management for improved efficiency.

D.

It uses a single database to manage configuration for multiple switches

Question 78

A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC-5520 at a site directly next to a large commercial airport. Users report that they intermittently lose WI-FI connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to frequent channel changes. Which two actions fix this issue? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Remove UNII-2 and Extended UNII-2 channels from the 5 Ghz channel list

B.

Restore the DCA default settings because this automatically avoids channel interference.

C.

Configure channels on the UNIk2 and the Extended UNII-2 sub-bands of the 5 Ghz band only

D.

Enable DFS channels because they are immune to radar interference.

E.

Disable DFS channels to prevent interference with Doppler radar

Question 79

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures monitoring on SW1 and enters the show command to verify operation. What does the output confirm?

Options:

A.

SPAN session 1 monitors activity on VLAN 50 of a remote switch

B.

SPAN session 2 only monitors egress traffic exiting port FastEthernet 0/14.

C.

SPAN session 2 monitors all traffic entering and exiting port FastEthernet 0/15.

D.

RSPAN session 1 is incompletely configured for monitoring

Question 80

Which three elements determine Air Time efficiency? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

evert-driven RRM

B.

data rate (modulation density) or QAM

C.

channel bandwidth

D.

number of spatial streams and spatial reuse

E.

RF group leader

F.

dynamic channel assignment

Question 81

Which two threats does AMP4E have the ability to block? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

DDoS

B.

ransomware

C.

Microsoft Word macro attack

D.

SQL injection

E.

email phishing

Question 82

Drag and drop the Qos mechanisms from the left to the correct descriptions on the right

Options:

Question 83

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must modify the access control list EGRESS to allow all IP traffic from subnet 10.1.10.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24. The access control list is applied in the outbound direction on router interface GigabitEthemet 0/1. Which configuration commands can the engineer use to allow this traffic without disrupting existing traffic flows?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 84

Refer to the exhibit. Rapid PVST+ is enabled on all switches. Which command set must be configured on switch1 to achieve the following results on port fa0/1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 85

Refer to the exhibit Drag and drop the snippets into the RESTCONF request to form the request that returns this response Not all options are used

Options:

Question 86

What are two differences between the RIB and the FIB? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The FIB is derived from the data plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB.

B.

The RIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the FIB is the Information used to choose the egress interface for each packet.

C.

FIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the RIB is the information used to choose the egress interface for each packet.

D.

The FIB is derived from the control plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB.

E.

The RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB.

Question 87

Which DHCP option helps lightweight APs find the IP address of a wireless LAN controller?

Options:

A.

Option 43

B.

Option 60

C.

Option 67

D.

Option 150

Question 88

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must deny HTTP traffic from host A to host B while allowing all other communication between the hosts, drag and drop the commands into the configuration to achieve these results. Some commands may be used more than once. Not all commands are used.

Options:

Question 89

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to R to enable R to reach the server at 172.16.0.1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 90

Which protocol does REST API rely on to secure the communication channel?

Options:

A.

TCP

B.

HTTPS

C.

SSH

D.

HTTP

Question 91

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must create a configuration that executes the show run command and then terminates the session when user CCNP legs in. Which configuration change is required?

Options:

A.

Add the access-class keyword to the username command

B.

Add the access-class keyword to the aaa authentication command

C.

Add the autocommand keyword to the username command

D.

Add the autocommand keyword to the aaa authentication command

Question 92

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands are needed to allow for full reachability between AS 1000 and AS 2000? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

R1#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0

B.

R2#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

C.

R2#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0

D.

R2#network 209.165.201.0 mask 255.255.192.0

E.

R1#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

Question 93

An engineer must configure HSRP group 300 on a Cisco IOS router. When the router is functional, it must be the must be the active HSRP router. The peer router has been configured using the default priority value. Which command set is required?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 94

A server running Linux is providing support for virtual machines along with DNS and DHCP services for a small business. Which technology does this represent?

Options:

A.

container

B.

Type 1 hypervisor

C.

hardware pass-thru

D.

Type 2 hypervisor

Question 95

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer configures OSPF and reviews the router configuration. Which interface or interface or interface are able to establish OSPF adjacency?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthemet0/1 and GigabitEthernet0/1.40

B.

only GigabitEthernet0/1

C.

only GigabttEthernet0/0

D.

Gigabit Ethernet0/0 and GigabitEthemet0/1

Question 96

How does an on-premises infrastructure compare to a cloud infrastructure?

Options:

A.

On-premises can increase compute power faster than cloud

B.

On-premises requires less power and cooling resources than cloud

C.

On-premises offers faster deployment than cloud

D.

On-premises offers lower latency for physically adjacent systems than cloud.

Question 97

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel between Switch1 and Switch2 and notices the console message on switch2. Based on the output, which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure less member ports on Switch2.

B.

Configure the same port channel interface number on both switches

C.

Configure the same EtherChannel protocol on both switches

D.

Configure more member ports on Switch1.

Question 98

Running the script causes the output in the exhibit. Which change to the first line of the script resolves the error?

Options:

A.

from ncclient import

B.

import manager

C.

from ncclient import*

D.

import ncclient manager

Question 99

Which statement about TLS is accurate when using RESTCONF to write configurations on network devices?

Options:

A.

It requires certificates for authentication

B.

It is provided using NGINX acting as a proxy web server

C.

It is used for HTTP and HTTPS requests

D.

It is not supported on Cisco devices

Question 100

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as an entry point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers, which configuration accomplish task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 101

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure a password expiry mechanism on the gateway router for all local passwords to expire after 60 days. What is required to complete this task?

Options:

A.

The password expiry mechanism is on the AAA server and must be configured there.

B.

Add the aaa authentication enable default Administrators command.

C.

Add the username admin privilege 15 common-criteria*policy Administrators password 0 Cisco13579! command.

D.

No further action Is required. The configuration is complete.

Question 102

Which measurement is used from a post wireless survey to depict the cell edge of the access points?

Options:

A.

SNR

B.

Noise

C.

RSSI

D.

CCI

Question 103

Refer to the exhibit.

SwitchC connects HR and Sales to the Core switch However, business needs require that no traffic from the Finance VLAN traverse this switch Which command meets this requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 104

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is troubleshooting a connectivity issue and executes a traceoute. What does the result confirm?

Options:

A.

The destination server reported it is too busy

B.

The protocol is unreachable

C.

The destination port is unreachable

D.

The probe timed out

Question 105

A company has an existing Cisco 5520 HA cluster using SSO. An engineer deploys a new single Cisco Catalyst 9800 WLC to test new features. The engineer successfully configures a mobility tunnel between the 5520 cluster and 9800 WLC. Client connected to the corporate WLAN roam seamlessly between access points on the 5520 and 9800 WLC. After a failure on the primary 5520 WLC, all WLAN services remain functional; however, Client roam between the 5520 and 9800 controllers without dropping their connection. Which feature must be configured to remedy the issue?

Options:

A.

mobility MAC on the 5520 cluster

B.

mobility MAC on the 9800 WLC

C.

new mobility on the 5520 cluster

D.

new mobility on the 9800 WLC

Question 106

Refer to the exhibit. External users require HTTP connectivity to an internal company web server that is listening on TCP port 8080. Which command set accomplishes this requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Question 107

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must block all traffic from a router to its directly connected subnet 209.165.200.0/24. The engineer applies access control list EGRESS in the outbound direction on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the router However, the router can still ping hosts on the 209.165.200.0/24 subnet. Which explanation of this behavior is true?

Options:

A.

Access control lists that are applied outbound to a router interface do not affect traffic that is sourced from the router.

B.

Only standard access control lists can block traffic from a source IP address.

C.

After an access control list is applied to an interface, that interface must be shut and no shut for the access control list to take effect.

D.

The access control list must contain an explicit deny to block traffic from the router.

Question 108

Refer the exhibit.

Which router is the designated router on the segment 192.168.0.0/24?

Options:

A.

This segment has no designated router because it is a nonbroadcast network type.

B.

This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type.

C.

Router Chicago because it has a lower router ID

D.

Router NewYork because it has a higher router ID

Question 109

Which design principle slates that a user has no access by default to any resource, and unless a resource is explicitly granted, it should be denied?

Options:

A.

least privilege

B.

fail-safe defaults

C.

economy of mechanism

D.

complete mediation

Question 110

What is a consideration when designing a Cisco SD-Access underlay network?

Options:

A.

End user subnets and endpoints are part of the underlay network.

B.

The underlay switches provide endpoint physical connectivity for users.

C.

Static routing is a requirement,

D.

It must support IPv4 and IPv6 underlay networks

Question 111

Under which network conditions is an outbound QoS policy that is applied on a router WAN interface most beneficial?

Options:

A.

under interface saturation condition

B.

under network convergence condition

C.

under all network condition

D.

under traffic classification and marking conditions.

Question 112

Drag and drop the DHCP messages that are exchanged between a client and an AP into the order they are exchanged on the right.

Options:

Question 113

A customer has several small branches and wants to deploy a WI-FI solution with local management using CAPWAP. Which deployment model meets this requirement?

Options:

A.

Autonomous

B.

Mobility Express

C.

SD-Access wireless

D.

Local mode

Question 114

Drag and drop the virtual components from the left onto their deceptions on the right.

Options:

Question 115

Which two mechanisms are available to secure NTP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

IP prefix list-based

B.

IPsec

C.

TACACS-based authentication

D.

IP access list-based

E.

Encrypted authentication

Question 116

Refer to the exhibit.

Which HTTP JSON response does the python code output give?

Options:

A.

NameError: name 'json' is not defined

B.

KeyError 'kickstart_ver_str'

C.

7.61

D.

7.0(3)I7(4)

Question 117

In a wireless Cisco SD-Access deployment, which roaming method is used when a user moves from one access point to another on a different access switch using a single WLC?

Options:

A.

Layer 3

B.

inter-xTR

C.

auto anchor

D.

fast roam

Question 118

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action resolves the EtherChannel issue between SW2 and SW3?

Options:

A.

Configure switchport mode trunk on SW2.

B.

Configure switchport nonegotiate on SW3

C.

Configure channel-group 1 mode desirable on both interfaces.

D.

Configure channel-group 1 mode active on both interfaces.

Question 119

An engineer is troubleshooting the Ap join process using DNS. Which FQDN must be resolvable on the network for the access points to successfully register to the WLC?

Options:

A.

wlcbostname.domain.com

B.

cisco-capwap-controller.domain.com

C.

ap-manager.domain.com

D.

primary-wlc.domain.com

Question 120

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration establishes EBGP neighborship between these two directly connected neighbors and exchanges the loopback network of the two routers through BGP?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 121

What are two benefits of YANG? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It enforces the use of a specific encoding format for NETCONF.

B.

It collects statistical constraint analysis information.

C.

It enables multiple leaf statements to exist within a leaf list.

D.

It enforces configuration semantics.

E.

It enforces configuration constraints.

Question 122

Refer to the exhibit.

Security policy requires all idle-exec sessions to be terminated in 600 seconds. Which configuration achieves this goal?

Options:

A.

line vty 0 15

absolute-timeout 600

B.

line vty 0 15

exec-timeout

C.

line vty 01 5

exec-timeout 10 0

D.

line vty 0 4

exec-timeout 600

Question 123

Which method should an engineer use to deal with a long-standing contention issue between any two VMs on the same host?

Options:

A.

Adjust the resource reservation limits

B.

Live migrate the VM to another host

C.

Reset the VM

D.

Reset the host

Question 124

When using TLS for syslog, which configuration allows for secure and reliable transportation of messages to its default port?

Options:

A.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 6514

B.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 6514

C.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 514

D.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 514

Question 125

Refer to the exhibit. After configurating an IPsec VPN, an engineer enters the show command to verify the ISAKMP SA status. What does the status show?

Options:

A.

ISAKMP SA is authenticated and can be used for Quick Mode.

B.

Peers have exchanged keys, but ISAKMP SA remains unauthenticated.

C.

VPN peers agreed on parameters for the ISAKMP SA

D.

ISAKMP SA has been created, but it has not continued to form.

Question 126

Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

Options:

A.

sniffer

B.

monitor

C.

bridge

D.

local

Question 127

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that advertises the network prefix 192.168.5.0/24 into a BGP session. Not all options are used

Options:

Question 128

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer attempts to establish BGP peering between router CORP and two ISP routers. What is the root cause for the failure between CORP and ISP#2?

Options:

A.

Router ISP#2 is configured to use SHA-1 authentication.

B.

There is a password mismatch between router CORP and router ISP#2.

C.

Router CORP is configured with an extended access control list.

D.

MD5 authorization is configured incorrectly on router ISP#2.

Question 129

Which deployment option of Cisco NGFW provides scalability?

Options:

A.

tap

B.

clustering

C.

inline tap

D.

high availability

Question 130

How must network management traffic be treated when defining QoS policies?

Options:

A.

as delay-sensitive traffic in a low latency queue

B.

using minimal bandwidth guarantee

C.

using the same marking as IP routing

D.

as best effort

Question 131

Refer to the exhibit.

After an engineer configures an EtherChannel between switch SW1 and switch SW2, this error message is logged on switch SW2.

Based on the output from SW1 and the log message received on Switch SW2, what action should the engineer take to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the same protocol on the EtherChannel on switch SW1 and SW2.

B.

Connect the configuration error on interface Gi0/1 on switch SW1.

C.

Define the correct port members on the EtherChannel on switch SW1.

D.

Correct the configuration error on interface Gi0/0 switch SW1.

Question 132

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Options:

Question 133

Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

Question 134

Which method does Cisco DNA Center use to allow management of non-Cisco devices through southbound protocols?

Options:

A.

It creates device packs through the use of an SDK

B.

It uses an API call to interrogate the devices and register the returned data.

C.

It obtains MIBs from each vendor that details the APIs available.

D.

It imports available APIs for the non-Cisco device in a CSV format.

Question 135

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures OSPF and wants to verify the configuration Which configuration is applied to this device?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 136

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that adds a prefix list to a route map and sets the local preference. Not all options are used

Options:

Question 137

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration change ensures that R1 is the active gateway whenever it is in a functional state for the 172.30.110.0724 network?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 138

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line, but not from show running-config. Which command completes the configuration?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 139

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures the BGP adjacency between R1 and R2, however, it fails to establish Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Change the network statement on R1 to 172.16 10.0

B.

Change the remote-as number for 192 168.100.11.

C.

Enable synchronization on R1 and R2

D.

Change the remote-as number on R1 to 6500.

Question 140

How are map-register messages sent in a LISP deployment?

Options:

A.

egress tunnel routers to map resolvers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

B.

ingress tunnel routers to map servers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

C.

egress tunnel routers to map servers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

D.

ingress tunnel routers to map resolvers to determine the appropnate egress tunnel router

Question 141

Refer to the exhibit.

A company requires that all wireless users authenticate using dynamic key generation. Which configuration must be applied?

Options:

A.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication open wep wep_methods

B.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication dynamic wep wep_methods

C.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication dynamic open wep_dynamic

D.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication open eap eap_methods

Question 142

AN engineer is implementing a route map to support redistribution within BGP. The route map must configured to permit all unmatched routes. Which action must the engineer perform to complete this task?

Options:

A.

Include a permit statement as the first entry

B.

Include at least one explicit deny statement

C.

Remove the implicit deny entry

D.

Include a permit statement as the last entry

Question 143

When are multicast RPs required?

Options:

A.

RPs are required only when using protocol independent multicast dense mode.

B.

By default, the RP is needed penodically to maintain sessions with sources and receivers.

C.

RPs are required for protocol Independent multicast sparse mode and dense mode.

D.

By default, the RP Is needed only start new sessions with sources and receivers.

Question 144

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure static NAT on R1 lo allow users HTTP access to the web server on TCP port 80. The web server must be reachable through ISP 1 and ISP 2. Which command set should be applied to R1 to fulfill these requirements?

Options:

A.

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80 extendable

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80 extendable

B.

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80

C.

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 8080 209.165.201.1 8080

D.

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80 no-alias

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80 no-alias

Question 145

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two reasons for IP SLA tracking failure? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

The destination must be 172 30 30 2 for icmp-echo

B.

A route back to the R1 LAN network is missing in R2.

C.

The source-interface is configured incorrectly.

D.

The default route has the wrong next hop IP address

E.

The threshold value is wrong

Question 146

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to R1 to enable R1 to reach the server at 172.16.0.1?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 147

In a Cisco SD-Access solution, which protocol is used by an extended node to connect to a single edge node?

Options:

A.

VXLAN

B.

IS-IS

C.

802 1Q

D.

CTS

Question 148

Which two parameters are examples of a QoS traffic descriptor? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

MPLS EXP bits

B.

bandwidth

C.

DSCP

D.

ToS

E.

packet size

Question 149

Which protocol is used to encrypt control plane traffic between SD-WAN controllers and SD-WAN endpoints?

Options:

A.

DTLS

B.

IPsec

C.

PGP

D.

HTTPS

Question 150

What is the process for moving a virtual machine from one host machine to another with no downtime?

Options:

A.

high availability

B.

disaster recovery

C.

live migration

D.

multisite replication

Question 151

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is installing a new pair of routers in a redundant configuration. Which protocol ensures that traffic is not disrupted in the event of a hardware failure?

Options:

A.

HSRPv1

B.

GLBP

C.

VRRP

D.

HSRPv2

Question 152

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right

Options:

Question 153

Refer to the exhibit.

All switches are configured with the default port priority value. Which two commands ensure that traffic from PC1 is forwarded over Gi1/3 trunk port between DWS1 and DSW2? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

DSW2(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 16

B.

DSW2(config)#interface gi1/3

C.

DSW1(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 0

D.

DSW1(config) #interface gi1/3

E.

DSW2(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 128

Question 154

A network administrator is implementing a routing configuration change and enables routing debugs to track routing behavior during the change. The logging output on the terminal is interrupting the command typing process. Which two actions can the network administrator take to minimize the possibility of typing commands incorrectly? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure the logging synchronous global configuration command

B.

Configure the logging delimiter feature

C.

Configure the logging synchronous command under the vty

D.

Press the TAB key to reprint the command in a new line

E.

increase the number of lines on the screen using the terminal length command

Question 155

What is one difference between EIGRP and OSPF?

Options:

A.

OSPF is a Cisco proprietary protocol, and EIGRP is an IETF open standard protocol.

B.

OSPF uses the DUAL distance vector algorithm, and EIGRP uses the Dijkstra link-state algorithm

C.

EIGRP uses the variance command lot unequal cost load balancing, and OSPF supports unequal cost balancing by default.

D.

EIGRP uses the DUAL distance vector algorithm, and OSPF uses the Dijkstra link-state algorithm

Question 156

Refer to the exhibit. Which command is required to verify NETCONF capability reply messages?

Options:

A.

show netconf | section rpc-reply

B.

show netconf rpc-reply

C.

show netconf xml rpc-reply

D.

show netconf schema | section rpc-reply

Question 157

Which solution do laaS service providers use to extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network?

Options:

A.

VLAN

B.

VTEP

C.

VXLAN

D.

VRF

Question 158

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IP address becomes the active next hop for 192.168.102 0/24 when 192.168.101.2 fails?

Options:

A.

192.168.101.18

B.

192.168.101.6

C.

192.168.101.10

D.

192.168.101.14

Question 159

In a three-tier hierarchical campus network design, which action is a design best-practice for the core layer?

Options:

A.

provide QoS prioritization services such as marking, queueing, and classification for critical network traffic

B.

provide redundant Layer 3 point-to-point links between the core devices for more predictable and faster convergence

C.

provide advanced network security features such as 802. IX, DHCP snooping, VACLs, and port security

D.

provide redundant aggregation for access layer devices and first-hop redundancy protocols such as VRRP

Question 160

Why would a log file contain a * next to the date?

Options:

A.

The network device was receiving NTP time when the log messages were recorded.

B.

The network device was unable to reach The NTP server when the log messages were recorded

C.

The network device is not configured to use NTP.

D.

The network device is nor configured to use NTP time stamps for logging

Question 161

Which two items are found in YANG data models? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

HTTP return codes

B.

rpc statements

C.

JSON schema

D.

container statements

E.

XML schema

Question 162

Which technology uses network traffic telemetry, contextual information, and file reputation to provide insight into cyber threats?

Options:

A.

threat defense

B.

security services

C.

security intelligence

D.

segmentation

Question 163

A network engineer must configure a router to send logging messages to a syslog server based on these requirements:

  • uses syslog IP address: 10.10.10.1
  • uses a reliable protocol
  • must not use any well-known TCP/UDP ports

Which configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

logging host 10.10.10.1 transport tcp port 1024

B.

logging origin-id 10.10.10.1

C.

logging host 10.10.10.1 transport udp port 1023

D.

logging host 10.10.10.1 transport udp port 1024

Question 164

Which action is performed by Link Management Protocol in a Cisco StackWise Virtual domain?

Options:

A.

It rejects any unidirectional link traffic forwarding

B.

It determines if the hardware is compatible to form the StackWise Virtual domain

C.

discovers the StackWise domain and brings up SVL interfaces.

D.

It determines which switch becomes active or standby

Question 165

An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN?

Options:

A.

ISE server

B.

local WLC

C.

RADIUS server

D.

anchor WLC

Question 166

Refer to the exhibit.

What is required to configure a second export destination for IP address 192.168.10.1?

Options:

A.

Specify a VRF.

B.

Specify a different UDP port.

C.

Specify a different flow ID

D.

Configure a version 5 flow-export to the same destination.

E.

Specify a different TCP port.

Question 167

An administrator must enable Telnet access to Router X using the router username and password database for authentication. Which configuration should be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 168

An engineer must create an EEM applet that sends a syslog message in the event a change happens in the network due to trouble with an OSPF process. Which action should the engineer use?

Options:

A.

action 1 syslog msg "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

B.

action 1 syslog send "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

C.

action 1 syslog pattern "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

D.

action 1syslog write "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

Question 169

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must permit traffic from these networks and block all other traffic An informational log message should be triggered when traffic enters from these prefixes Which access list must be used?

Options:

A.

access-list acl_subnets permit ip 10.0.32.0 0 0.0.255 log

B.

access-list acl_subnets permit ip 10.0.32.0 0.0.7.255 log

C.

access-list acl_subnets permit ip 10.0.32.0 0.0.7.255 access-list acl_subnets deny ip any log

D.

access-list acl_subnets permit ip 10.0.32.0 255.255.248.0 log

Question 170

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result when a switch that is running PVST+ is added to this network?

Options:

A.

DSW2 operates in Rapid PVST+ and the new switch operates in PVST+

B.

Both switches operate in the PVST+ mode

C.

Spanning tree is disabled automatically on the network

D.

Both switches operate in the Rapid PVST+ mode.

Question 171

A network is being migrated from IPV4 to IPV6 using a dual-stack approach. Network management is already 100% IPV6 enabled. In a dual-stack network with two dual-stack NetFlow collections, how many flow exporters are needed per network device in the flexible NetFlow configuration?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

4

D.

8

Question 172

Refer to the exhibit.

Which Python code snippet prints the descriptions of disabled interfaces only?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 173

An engineer configures a WLAN with fast transition enabled Some legacy clients fail to connect to this WLAN Which feature allows the legacy clients to connect while still allowing other clients to use fast transition based on then OLTIs?

Options:

A.

over the DS

B.

adaptive R

C.

802.11V

D.

802.11k

Question 174

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the QoS components they describe on the right.

Options:

Question 175

Which HHTP status code is the correct response for a request with an incorrect password applied to a REST API session?

Options:

A.

HTTP Status Code 200

B.

HTTP Status Code 302

C.

HTTP Status Code 401

D.

HTTP Status Code: 504

Question 176

A customer transitions a wired environment to a Cisco SD-Access solution. The customer does not want to integrate the wireless network with the fabric. Which wireless deployment approach enables the two systems to coexist and meets the customer requirement?

Options:

A.

Deploy the APs in autonomous mode

B.

Deploy the wireless network over the top of the fabric

C.

Deploy a separate network for the wireless environment

D.

Implement a Cisco DNA Center to manage the two networks

Question 177

An engineer configures GigabitEthernet 0/1 for VRRP group 115. The router must assume the primary role when it has the highest priority in the group. Which command set is required to complete this task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 178

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of antenna does the radiation pattern represent?

Options:

A.

Yagi

B.

multidirectional

C.

directional patch

D.

omnidirectional

Question 179

Refer to the exhibit.

How does the router handle traffic after the CoPP policy is configured on the router?

Options:

A.

Traffic coming to R1 that does not match access list SNMP is dropped.

B.

Traffic coming to R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed.

C.

Traffic passing through R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed.

D.

Traffic generated by R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed.

Question 180

Which two actions, when applied in the LAN network segment, will facilitate Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery for lightweight AP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Utilize DHCP option 17.

B.

Configure WLC IP address on LAN switch.

C.

Utilize DHCP option 43.

D.

Configure an ip helper-address on the router interface

E.

Enable port security on the switch port

Question 181

An engineer must enable a login authentication method that allows a user to log in by using local authentication if all other defined authentication methods fail Which configuration should be applied?

Options:

A.

aaa authentication login CONSOLE group radius local-case enable aaa

B.

authentication login CONSOLE group radius local enable none

C.

aaa authentication login CONSOLE group radius local enable

D.

aaa authentication login CONSOLE group tacacs+ local enable

Question 182

Drag and drop characteristics of PIM dense mode from the left to the right.

Options:

Question 183

If a client's radio device receives a signal strength of -67 dBm and the noise floor is -85 dBm, what is the SNR value?

Options:

A.

15 dB

B.

16 dB

C.

18 dB

D.

20 dB

Question 184

What does the LAP send when multiple WLCs respond to the CISCO_CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain hostname during the CAPWAP discovery and join process?

Options:

A.

broadcast discover request

B.

join request to all the WLCs

C.

unicast discovery request to each WLC

D.

Unicast discovery request to the first WLS that resolves the domain name

Question 185

What is the responsibility of a secondary WLC?

Options:

A.

It shares the traffic load of the LAPs with the primary controller.

B.

It avoids congestion on the primary controller by sharing the registration load on the LAPs.

C.

It registers the LAPs if the primary controller fails.

D.

It enables Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming between Itself and the primary controller.

Question 186

Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall?

Options:

A.

Passive

B.

Tap

C.

Inline tap

D.

Inline

Question 187

Which protocol infers that a YANG data model is being used?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

NX-API

C.

REST

D.

RESTCONF

Question 188

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is designing a guest portal on Cisco ISE using the default configuration. During the testing phase, the engineer receives a warning when displaying the guest portal. Which issue is occurring?

Options:

A.

The server that is providing the portal has an expired certificate

B.

The server that is providing the portal has a self-signed certificate

C.

The connection is using an unsupported protocol

D.

The connection is using an unsupported browser

Question 189

How does CEF switching differ from process switching on Cisco devices?

Options:

A.

CEF switching saves memory by sorting adjacency tables in dedicate memory on the line cards, and process switching stores all tables in the main memory

B.

CEF switching uses adjacency tables built by the CDP protocol, and process switching uses the routing table

C.

CEF switching uses dedicated hardware processors, and process switching uses the main processor

D.

CEF switching uses proprietary protocol based on IS-IS for MAC address lookup, and process switching uses in MAC address table

Question 190

What is a characteristic of a Type I hypervisor?

Options:

A.

It is installed on an operating system and supports other operating systems above it.

B.

It is referred to as a hosted hypervisor.

C.

Problems in the base operating system can affect the entire system.

D.

It is completely independent of the operating system.

Question 191

An engineer is configuring Local WebAuth on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller. According to RFC 5737, WHICH VIRTUAL IP address must be used in this configuration?

Options:

A.

192.0.2.1

B.

172.20.10.1

C.

1.1.1.1

D.

192.168.0.1

Question 192

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure an ERSPAN session with the remote end of the session 10.10.0.1. Which commands must be added to complete the configuration?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 193

Drag anti drop the characteristics from the ten onto the configuration models on the right.

Options:

Question 194

A Cisco DNA Center REST API sends a PUT to the /dna/intent/api/v1/network-device endpoint A response code of 504 is received What does the code indicate?

Options:

A.

The response timed out based on a configured interval

B.

The user does not have authorization to access this endpoint.

C.

The username and password are not correct

D.

The web server is not available

Question 195

Refer to the exhibit.

Which commands are required to allow SSH connection to the router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 196

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure deployment models on the right.

Options:

Question 197

What Is the difference between the MAC address table and TCAM?

Options:

A.

The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match.

B.

The MAC address table is contained in TCAM ACL and QoS information is stored in CAM.

C.

Router prefix lookups happen in TCAM. MAC address table lookups happen In CAM.

D.

TCAM is used to make L2 forwarding decisions. CAM is used to build routing tables

Question 198

What is an emulated machine that has dedicated compute memory, and storage resources and a fully installed operating system?

Options:

A.

Container

B.

Mainframe

C.

Host

D.

virtual machine

Question 199

Which two Cisco SD-Access components provide communication between traditional network elements and controller layer? (choose two)

Options:

A.

network data platform

B.

network underlay

C.

fabric overlay

D.

network control platform

E.

partner ecosystem

Question 200

What is a TLOC in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

Options:

A.

value that identifies a specific tunnel within the Cisco SD-WAN overlay

B.

identifier that represents a specific service offered by nodes within the Cisco SD-WAN overlay

C.

attribute that acts as a next hop for network prefixes

D.

component set by the administrator to differentiate similar nodes that offer a common service

Question 201

What are the main components of Cisco TrustSec?

Options:

A.

Cisco ISE and Enterprise Directory Services

B.

Cisco ISE. network switches, firewalls, and routers

C.

Cisco ISE and TACACS+

D.

Cisco ASA and Cisco Firepower Threat Defense

Question 202

If the maximum power level assignment for global TPC 802.11a/n/ac is configured to 10 dBm, which power level effectively doubles the transmit power?

Options:

A.

13dBm

B.

14 dBm

C.

17dBm

D.

20 dBm

Question 203

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of introducing the sampler feature into the Flexible NetFlow configuration on the router?

Options:

A.

NetFlow updates to the collector are sent 50% less frequently.

B.

Every second IPv4 packet is forwarded to the collector for inspection.

C.

CPU and memory utilization are reduced when compared with what is required for full NetFlow.

D.

The resolution of sampling data increases, but it requires more performance from the router.

Question 204

Which benefit is provided by the Cisco DNA Center telemetry feature?

Options:

A.

provides improved network security

B.

inventories network devices

C.

aids In the deployment network configurations

D.

improves the user experience

Question 205

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the deployment types on the right.

Options:

Question 206

Which two Cisco SD-WAN components exchange OMP information?

Options:

A.

vAnaiytlcs

B.

vSmart

C.

WAN Edge

D.

vBond

E.

vManage

Question 207

In a Cisco Catalyst switch equipped with two supervisor modules an administrator must temporally remove the active supervisor from the chassis to perform hardware maintenance on it. Which mechanism ensure that the active supervisor removal is not disruptive to the network operation?

Options:

A.

NSF/NSR

B.

SSO

C.

HSRP

D.

VRRP

Question 208

Which two features does the Cisco SD-Access architecture add to a traditional campus network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

software-defined segmentation

B.

private VLANs

C.

SD-WAN

D.

modular QoS

E.

identity services

Question 209

How do EIGRP metrics compare to OSPF metrics?

Options:

A.

EIGRP metrics are based on a combination of bandwidth and packet loss, and OSPF metrics are based on interface bandwidth.

B.

EIGRP uses the Dijkstra algorithm, and OSPF uses The DUAL algorithm

C.

The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170. and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is undefined

D.

The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170. and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is 110

Question 210

Which protocol is implemented to establish secure control plane adjacencies between Cisco SD-WAN nodes?

Options:

A.

IKF

B.

TLS

C.

IPsec

D.

ESP

Question 211

Which two characteristics apply to the endpoint security aspect of the Cisco Threat Defense architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

detect and black ransomware in email attachments

B.

outbound URL analysis and data transfer controls

C.

user context analysis

D.

blocking of fileless malware in real time

E.

cloud-based analysis of threats

Question 212

Which two solutions are used for backing up a Cisco DNA Center Assurance database? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

NFS share

B.

non-linux server

C.

local server

D.

remote server

E.

bare metal server

Question 213

An engineer must configure an ACL that permits packets which include an ACK in the TCP header Which entry must be included in the ACL?

Options:

A.

access-list 10 permit ip any any eq 21 tcp-ack

B.

access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 21 tcp-ack

C.

access-list 10 permit tcp any any eq 21 established

D.

access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 21 established

Question 214

Drag and drop the LIPS components on the left to the correct description on the right.

Options:

Question 215

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has configured an IP SLA for UDP echo’s. Which command is needed to start the IP SLA to test every 30 seconds and continue until stopped?

Options:

A.

ip sla schedule 100 start-time now life forever

B.

ip sla schedule 30 start-time now life forever

C.

ip sla schedule 100 start-time now life 30

D.

ip sla schedule 100 life forever

Question 216

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must log in to the router via the console, but the RADIUS servers are not reachable Which credentials allow console access1?

Options:

A.

the username "cisco" and the password "Cisco"

B.

no username and only the password "test123"

C.

no username and only the password "cisco123"

D.

the username "cisco" and the password “cisco123"

Question 217

Which VXLAN component is used to encapsulate and decapsulate Ethernet frames?

Options:

A.

VNI

B.

GRE

C.

VTEP

D.

EVPN

Question 218

Refer to the exhibit. What is achieved by this code?

Options:

A.

It unshuts the loopback interface

B.

It renames the loopback interface

C.

It deletes the loopback interface

D.

It displays the loopback interface

Question 219

A system must validate access rights to all its resources and must not rely on a cached permission matrix. If the access level to a given resource is revoked but is not reflected in the permission matrix, the security is violated. Which term refers to this REST security design principle?

Options:

A.

economy of mechanism

B.

complete mediation

C.

separation of privilege

D.

least common mechanism

Question 220

Which function does a fabric AP perform in a cisco SD-access deployment?

Options:

A.

It updates wireless clients' locations in the fabric

B.

It connects wireless clients to the fabric.

C.

It manages wireless clients' membership information in the fabric

D.

It configures security policies down to wireless clients in the fabric.

Question 221

Refer to the exhibit. Which python code parses the response and prints “18:32:21.474 UTC sun Mar 10 2019?

Options:

A.

print(response['resut'][0||'simple_time']}

B.

print(response[result']['body']['simple_time']}

C.

print(response['body']['simple_time']}

D.

print(response[jresult']['body']['simple_time']}

Question 222

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must allow all users in the 10.2.2.0/24 subnet to access the Internet. To conserve address space the public Interface address of 209 165 201.1 must be used for all external communication. Which command set accomplishes these requirements?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 223

What is one characteristic of the Cisco SD-Access control plane?

Options:

A.

It is based on VXLAN technology.

B.

Each router processes every possible destination and route

C.

It allows host mobility only in the wireless network.

D.

It stores remote routes in a centralized database server

Question 224

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command set is needed to configure and verify router R3 to measure the response time from router R3 to the file server located in the data center?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 225

Refer to the exhibit.

The port channel between the switches does not work as expected. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Interface Gi0/0 on Switch2 must be configured as passive.

B.

Interface Gi0/1 on Switch1 must be configured as desirable.

C.

interface Gi0/1 on Switch2 must be configured as active.

D.

Trucking must be enabled on both Interfaces on Switch2.

Question 226

Options:

A.

S2 is configured as LACP. Change the channel group mode to passive

B.

S2 is configured with PAgP. Change the channel group mode to active.

C.

S1 is configured with LACP. Change the channel group mode to on

D.

S1 is configured as PAgP. Change the channel group mode to desirable

Question 227

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

Options:

A.

applications

B.

disk

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

Question 228

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must allow R1 to advertise the 192 168.1 0/24 network to R2 R1 must perform this action without sending OSPF packets to SW1 Which command set should be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 229

Which protocol is responsible for data plane forwarding in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

Options:

A.

VXLAN

B.

IS-IS

C.

OSPF

D.

LISP

Question 230

Refer to the exhibit. Which command set must be added to permit and log all traffic that comes from 172.20.10.1 in interface GigabitEthernet0/1 without impacting the functionality of the access list?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 231

Which Cisco FlexConnect state allows wireless users that are connected to the network to continue working after the connection to the WLC has been lost?

Options:

A.

Authentication Down/Switching Down

B.

Authentication-Central/Switch-Local

C.

Authentication- Down/Switch-Local

D.

Authentication-Central/Switch-Central

Question 232

Drag and drop the Cisco SD-Access solution areas from the left onto the protocols they use on the right.

Options:

Question 233

Refer to the exhibit. An attacker can advertise OSPF fake routes from 172.16.20.0 network to the OSPF domain and black hole traffic. Which action must be taken to avoid this attack and still be able to advertise this subnet into OSPF?

Options:

A.

Configure 172.16.20.0 as a stub network.

B.

Apply a policy to filter OSPF packets on R2.

C.

Configure a passive Interface on R2 toward 172.16.20.0.

D.

Configure graceful restart on the 172.16.20.0 interface.

Question 234

What Is a characteristic of a WLC that is in master controller mode?

Options:

A.

All wireless LAN controllers are managed by the master controller.

B.

All new APs that join the WLAN are assigned to the master controller.

C.

Configuration on the master controller is executed on all wireless LAN controllers.

D.

The master controller is responsible for load balancing all connecting clients to other controllers

Question 235

Refer to the exhibit.

How should the script be completed so that each device configuration is saved into a JSON-formatted file under the device name?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 236

Refer to the exhibit.

The administrator troubleshoots an EtherChannel that keeps moving to err-disabled. Which two actions must be taken to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Reload the switch to force EtherChannel renegotiation

B.

Ensure that interfaces Gi1/0/2 and Gi1/0/3 connect to the same neighboring switch.

C.

Ensure that the switchport parameters of Port channel1 match the parameters of the port channel on the neighbor switch

D.

Ensure that the corresponding port channel interface on the neighbor switch is named Port-channel1.

E.

Ensure that the neighbor interfaces of Gi1/0/2 and Gi/0/3 are configured as members of the same EtherChannel

Question 237

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must block Telnet traffic from hosts in the range of 10.100 2.248 to 10.100.2 255 to the network 10.100.3.0 and permit everything else. Which configuration must the engineer apply'?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 238

Which type of tunnel Is required between two WLCs to enable Intercontroller roaming?

Options:

A.

mobility

B.

LWAPP

C.

CAPWAP

D.

iPsec

Question 239

what is a benefit of using a Type 2 hypervisor instead of a Type 1 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

better application performance

B.

Improved security because the underlying OS is eliminated

C.

Improved density and scalability

D.

ability to operate on hardware that is running other OSs

Question 240

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must be notified when a user switches to configuration mode. Which script should be applied to receive an SNMP trap and a critical-level log message?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 241

Refer to the exhibit. What is generated by the script?

Options:

A.

the cdp neighbors

B.

the routing table

C.

the router processes

D.

the running configuration

Question 242

Which benefit is realized by implementing SSO?

Options:

A.

IP first-hop redundancy

B.

communication between different nodes for cluster setup

C.

physical link redundancy

D.

minimal network downtime following an RP switchover

Question 243

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure the router to use the ISE-Servers group for authentication. If both ISE servers are unavailable, the local username database must be used. If no usernames are defined in the configuration, then the enable password must be the last resort to log in. Which configuration must be applied to achieve this result?

Options:

A.

aaa authentication login default group ISE-Servers local enable

B.

aaa authentication login default group enable local ISE-Servers

C.

aaa authorization exec default group ISE-Servers local enable

D.

aaa authentication login error-enable

aaa authentication login default group enable local ISE-Servers

Question 244

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of the API request?

Options:

A.

The "params" variable sends data fields to the network appliance.

B.

The native interface information is read from the network appliance.

C.

The Information for all interfaces is read from the network appliance.

D.

The "params" variable reads data fields from the network appliance

Question 245

A large campus network has deployed two wireless LAN controllers to manage the wireless network. WLC1 and WLC2 have been configured as mobility peers. A client device roams from AP1 on WLC1 to AP2 on WLC2, but the controller's client interfaces are on different VLANs. How do the wireless LAN controllers handle the inter-subnet roaming?

Options:

A.

WLC1 marks me diem with an anchor entry In Its own database. The database entry is copied to the new controller and marked with a foreign entry on VVLC2.

B.

WLC2 marks the client with an anchor entry In Its own database. The database entry Is copied to the new controller and marked with a foreign entry on WLC1

C.

WLCl marks the client with a foreign entry in its own database. The database entry is copied to the new controller and marked with an anchor entry on WLC2.

D.

WLC2 marks the client with a foreign entry In its own database. The database entry Is copied to the new controller and marked with an anchor entry on WLC1.

Question 246

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two effect of this configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Inside source addresses are translated to the 209.165.201.0/27 subnet.

B.

It establishes a one-to-one NAT translation.

C.

The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside global address range.

D.

The 209.165.201.0/27 subnet is assigned as the outside local address range.

E.

The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside local addresses.

Question 247

A company requires a wireless solution to support its mam office and multiple branch locations. All sites have local Internet connections and a link to the main office lor corporate connectivity. The branch offices are managed centrally. Which solution should the company choose?

Options:

A.

Cisco United Wireless Network

B.

Cisco DNA Spaces

C.

Cisco Catalyst switch with embedded controller

D.

Cisco Mobility Express

Question 248

What does the number in an NTP stratum level represent?

Options:

A.

The number of hops it takes to reach the master time server.

B.

The number of hops it takes to reach the authoritative time source.

C.

The amount of offset between the device clock and true time.

D.

The amount of drift between the device clock and true time.

Question 249

An engineer must configure an EXEC authorization list that first checks a AAA server then a local username. If both methods fail, the user is denied. Which configuration should be applied?

Options:

A.

aaa authorization exec default local group tacacs+

B.

aaa authorization exec default local group radius none

C.

aaa authorization exec default group radius local none

D.

aaa authorization exec default group radius local

Question 250

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the HQ router to set up a GRE tunnel between the HQ and BR routers?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 251

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must load balance traffic that comes from the NAT Router and is destined to 10.10.110.10, to several FTP servers. Which two commands sets should be applied? (Choose two).

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Question 252

Refer to the exhibit .

Which command must be configured for RESTCONF to operate on port 8888?

Options:

A.

ip http port 8888

B.

restconf port 8888

C.

ip http restconf port 8888

D.

restconf http port 8888

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