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Cisco 300-410 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI) Exam Practice Test

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Total 603 questions

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI) Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer finds that PC1 is accessing the hotel website to do the booking but fails to make payment. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Allow stub network 10.10.202.168/30 on router R3 OSPF.

B.

Decrease the AD to 5 OSPF route 192.168.94.0 on R1.

C.

Increase the AD to 200 of static route 192.168.94.0 on R3.

D.

Configure a reverse route on R1 for PC1 172.16.1.0/24.

Question 2

Refer to the exhibit EIGRP adjacency between router A and router C is not working as expected Which two configurations resolve the issue? (Choose two )

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Question 3

Which Layer 3 VPN attribute installs customer routes in the VRF?

Options:

A.

extended-community

B.

MPLS label

C.

RD

D.

RT

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured SNMP Commîmes on UserSW2 switch, but the SNMP server cannot upload modified configurations to the switch. Which configuration resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

snmp-server community Ciscowruser RW 11

B.

snmp-server group NETADMIN v3 priv read NETVIEW write NETADMIN access 22

C.

snmp-server community CiscOUs3r RW 11

D.

snmp-server group NETVIEW v2c priv read NETVIEW access 11

Question 5

A CoPP policy is applied for receiving SSH traffic from the WAN interface on a Cisco ISR4321 router.

However, the SSH response from the router is abnormal and stuck during the high link utilization. The problem is identified as SSH traffic does not match in the ACL. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Rate-limit SSH traffic to ensure dedicated bandwidth.

B.

Apply CoPP on the control plane interface.

C.

Increase the IP precedence value of SSH traffic to 6.

D.

Apply CoPP on the WAN interface inbound direction.

Question 6

Refer to the exhibit. The users from subnet 172.16.1.16/28 are experiencing connectivity issues to subnet 172.16.2.32/48. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#route-map REDIST permit 10

R1(config-route-map) #match Ip address 15

R1 (config-route-map) #exit

R1(config)# access-list 15 permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255

R1(config-router) #router eigrp 100

R1(config-router) #redistrlbute ospf 1 route-map REDIST

B.

R1(oonfig-router) #router ospf 1

R2(config-router) #redistribute eigrp 100 subnets metric 100C.

C.

R1(config-router>#routereigrp 100

R1(config-router>#redistribute ospf 1 metric 1000000 1111

D.

R1(config)#route-map REDIST permit 10

R1(config-roule-map) #match ip address 15

R1 (config-route-map) #exlt

R1(config)# access-list 15 permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255

R1(config-router) #router ospf 1

R1(config-router) #redistrlbute elgrp 100 subnets route-map REDIST

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit. AS 111 mut not be used as a transit AS, but ISP-1 is getting ISP-2 routes from AS 111. Which configuration stops Customer AS from being used as a transit path on ISP-1?

Options:

A.

ip as-path access-list 1 permit ^$

B.

ip as-path access-list 1 permit_111_

C.

ip as-path access-list 1 permit."

D.

ip as-path access-list 1 permit ^111$

Question 8

Refer to the exhibit SW100 cannot receive routes from R1 Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option C

Question 9

What does the MP-BGP OPEN message contain?

Options:

A.

MPLS labels and the IP address of the router that receives the message

B.

the version number and the AS number to which the router belongs

C.

IP routing information and the AS number to which the router belongs

D.

NLRI, path attributes, and IP addresses of the sending and receiving routers

Question 10

Which router attaches the VPN label to incoming packets from CE routing?

Options:

A.

CE router

B.

core router

C.

P router

D.

PE router

Question 11

Refer to the exhibit.

R4 is experiencing packet drop when trying to reach 172.16.2.7 behind R2. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Insert a /16 floating static route on R2 toward R3 with metric 254

B.

Insert a /24 floating static route on R2 toward R3 with metric 254

C.

Enable auto summarization on all three routers R1, R2, and R3

D.

Disable auto summarization on R2

Question 12

How is VPN routing information distributed in an MPLS network?

Options:

A.

The top level of the customer data packet directs it to the correct CE device

B.

It is established using VPN IPsec peers.

C.

It is controlled using of VPN target communities.

D.

It is controlled through the use of RD.

Question 13

Refer to the exhibit.

A bank ATM site has difficulty connecting with the bank server. A network engineer troubleshoots the issue and finds that R4 has no active route to the bank ATM site. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Advertise 10.10.30.0/24 subnet in R1 EIGRP AS.

B.

EIGRP peering between R3 and R4 to be fixed.

C.

EIGRP peering between R1 and R2 to be fixed.

D.

Advertise 10.10.30.0/24 subnet in R3 EIGRP AS.

Question 14

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the corresponding MPLS components on the right.

Options:

Question 15

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must harden a router, but the administrator failed to test the SSH access successfully to the router. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure SSH on the remote device to log m using SSH

B.

SSH syntax must be ssh -I user ip to log in to the remote device

C.

Configure enable secret to log in to the device

D.

SSH must be allowed with the transport output ssh command

Question 16

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NetFlow on R1, but the NMS server cannot see the flow from ethernet 0/0 of R1. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

flow monitor Flowmonitor1source Ethernet0/0

B.

interface Ethernet0/1ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 inputip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 output

C.

interface Ethernet0/0ip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 inputip flow monitor Flowmonitor1 output

D.

flow exporter FlowAnalyzer1source Ethernet0/0

Question 17

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting a failed link between R2 and R3 No traffic loss is reported from router R5 to HQ Which command fixes the separated backbone?

Options:

A.

R2(config-router)#no area 21 stub

B.

R2(config_router)#area 21 virtual-link 192.168.125.5

C.

R3(config-router)#area 21 virtual-link 192.168.125.5

D.

R3(config-router)#no area 21 stub

Question 18

Refer to the exhibit.

The static route is not present in the routing table of an adjacent OSPF neighbor router. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the next hop of 10.20.20.1 in the prefix list DMZ-STATIC

B.

Configure the next-hop interface at the end of the static router for it to get redistributed

C.

Configure a permit 20 statement to the route map to redistribute the static route

D.

Configure the subnets keyword in the redistribution command

Question 19

Refer to the exhibit The engineer configured route redistribution in the network but soon received reports that R2 cannot access 192 168 7 0/24 and 192 168 15 0/24 subnets Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 20

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer examines the BGP update for the IPv6 prefix 2001:db8::1/128. which should have been summarized into a /64 prefix. Which sequence of actions achieves the summarization?

Options:

A.

R1 is a route reflector client of a RR with a router ID of 1.1.1.1. and the originator of the prefix has a router ID of 3.3.3.3. Both routers belong to different ASs. The prefix is not advertised to any peer and must be advertised using the network statement on R3.

B.

R1 is a route reflector with a router ID of 3.3.3.3. and the originator of the prefix is a route reflector client, which has a router ID of 3.3.3.3. Both routers belong to the same AS Configure an aggregate address on the router with ID 1.1.1.1 for the prefix

C.

R1 is a route reflector with a router ID of 1.111. and the originator of the prefix is a route reflector client, which has a router ID of 3.3.3.3. Both routers belong to the same AS Configure an aggregate address on the router with ID 1.1.1.1 for the prefix

D.

R1 is a route reflector client of a RR with a router ID of 1.1.1.1. and the originator of the prefix has a router ID of 3.3.3.3. Both routers belong to the same AS. Configure an aggregate address on the router with ID 3 3.3.3 for the prefix.

Question 21

Refer to the exhibit The route to 192 168 200 0 is flapping between R1 and R2 Which set of configuration changes resolves the flapping route?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 22

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables OSPF for area 0 interfaces to adjacency with a neighboring router with the same VRF?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1 vrf CCNPinterface Ethernet1ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0interface Ethernet2ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0

B.

router ospf 1interface Ethernet1ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0interface Ethernet2ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0

C.

router ospf 1 vrf CCNPnetwork 10.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0network 10.2.2.2 0.0.0.0 area 0

D.

router ospf 1 vrf CCNPnetwork 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

Question 23

:587

Which IP precedence value does BFD use to prioritize traffic within an infrastructure device?

Options:

A.

4

B.

5

C.

6

D.

7

Question 24

Refer to the exhibit The enterprise users fail to authenticate with the TACACS server when a direct fiber link fails between RB and RD The NOC team observes

Users connected on AS65201 fail to authenticate with TACACS server 192 168 1 1

Users connected on AS65101 successfully authenticate with TACACS server 192 168 1 1

All AS65101 and AS65201 users are configured to authenticate with the TACACS server

Which configuration resolves the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 25

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer notices a connectivity problem between routers R1 and R2. The frequency of this problem is high during peak business hours. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Increase the MTU on the interfaces that connect R1 and R2.

B.

Increase the available bandwidth between R1 and R2.

C.

Decrease the EIGRP keepallve and hold down timers on R1 and R2.

D.

Set static EIGRP neighborship between R1 and R2.

Question 26

Refer to the exhibit A network engineer received a call from the vendor for a failed attempt to remotely log in to their managed rooter loopback interface from 192 168.40 15 Which action must the network engineer take to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

The IP access list VENDOR must be applied to interface loopback 100

B.

The time-range configuration must be changed to use absolute instead of periodic

C.

The EIGRP configuration must be updated to include a network statement for loopback 100

D.

The source IP summarization must be updated to include the vendor source IP address

Question 27

The network administrator configured the router for Control Plane Policing to limit OSPF traffic to be

policed to 1 Mbps. Any traffic that exceeds this limit must also be allowed at this point for traffic

analysis. The router configuration is:

access-list 100 permit ospf any any

!

class-map CM-OSPF

match access-group 100

!

policy-map PM-COPP

class CM-OSPF

police 1000000 conform-action transmit

!

control-plane

service-policy output PM-COPP

The Control Plane Policing failed to monitor and police OSPF traffic. Which configuration resolves this

issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 28

Refer to the exhibit Which command must be configured to make VRF CCNP work?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 29

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer applied a filter for LSA traffic on OSPFv3 interarea routes on the area 5 ABR to protect advertising the internal routes of area 5 to the business partner network. All other areas should receive the area 5 internal routes. After the respective route filtering configuration is applied on the ABR, area 5 routes are not visible on any of the areas. How must the filter list be applied on the ABR to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

in the “in” direction for area 5 on router R1

B.

in the “out” direction for area 5 on router R1

C.

in the “in” direction for area 20 on router R2

D.

in the “out” direction for area 20 on router R2

Question 30

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer lost remote access to the router due to a network problem. The engineer used the console to access the router and noticed continuous logs on the console terminal. Which configuration limits the number of log messages on the console to critical and higher seventy level messages?

Options:

A.

term no monitor

B.

logging console 2

C.

no logging console

D.

logging console 5

Question 31

A company is expanding business by opening 35 branches over the Internet. A network engineer must configure DMVPN at the branch routers to connect with the hub router and allow NHRP to add spoke routers securely to the multicast NHRP mappings automatically Which configuration meets this requirement at the hub router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 32

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator successfully logs in to a switch using SSH from a (RADIUS server When the network administrator uses a console port to access the switch the RADIUS server returns shell:priv-lvl=15’’ and the switch asks to enter the enable command \ the command is entered, it gets rejected. Which command set is used to troubleshoot and reserve this issue?

Options:

A.

line con 0aaa authorization consoleauthorization exec!line vty 0 4transport input ssh

B.

line con 0aaa authorization console!line vty 0 4authorization exec

C.

line con 0aaa authorization console priv15!line vty 0 4authorization exec

D.

line con 0aaa authorization consoleauthorization priv15!line vty 0 4transport input ssh

Question 33

A network administrator opens a telnet connection to the router and gets the message:

R1#telnet 10.1.1.2

Trying 10 1.1 2 Open

(Connection to 10.1.1.2 closed by foreign host)

Router R2 is configured with enable secret and password commands. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the logging synchronous command on line vty.

B.

Configure the exec command on line vty.

C.

Configure the login local command on line vty

D.

Configure the enable password command on line vty.

Question 34

:576

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 have been configured where the neighbor relationship must be authenticatedusmgMD5:

The neighbor relationship is not coming up. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 35

How are CE advertised routes segmented from other CE routers on an MPLS PE router?

Options:

A.

with a combination of VRF-Lite and MP-BGP

B.

by pushing MPLS labels advertised by LDP on customer routes

C.

by enabling multiple instances of BGP. one for each CE router

D.

by assigning CE-facing interfaces to different VRFs

Question 36

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is configuring a GRE tunnel to establish an EIGRP neighbor to a remote router. The

other tunnel endpoint is already configured. After applying the configuration as shown, the tunnel

started flapping. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Modify the network command to use the Tunnel0 interface netmask

B.

Advertise the Loopback0 interface from R2 across the tunnel

C.

Stop sending a route matching the tunnel destination across the tunnel

D.

Readdress the IP network on the Tunnel0 on both routers using the /31 netmask

Question 37

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer implemented CoPP to limit Telnet traffic to protect the router CPU. It was noticed that the Telnet traffic did not pass through CoPP Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 38

A network is configured with IP connectivity, and the routing protocol between devices started having problems right after the maintenance window to implement network changes. Troubleshoot and resolve to a fully functional network to ensure that:

R4

R5

Options:

Question 39

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the IPv6 first hop security features on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

Question 40

:581

The network administrator deployed the Binding Table Recovery feature. Which two devices recover the missing binding table entries? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

DHCP client

B.

DHCP server

C.

destination host

D.

source host

E.

DHCP relay agent

Question 41

The network administrator configured CoPP so that all routing protocol traffic toward the router CPU is

limited to 1 mbps. All traffic that exceeds

this limit must be dropped. The router is running BGP and OSPF Management traffic for Telnet and SSH

must be limited to 500kbps.

access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 179

access-list 100 permit tcp any any range 22 23

access-list 100 permit ospf any any

!

class-map CM-ROUTING

match access-group 100

class-map CM-MGMT

match access-group 100

!

policy-map PM-COPP

class CM-ROUTING

police 1000000 conform-action transmit

class CM-MGMT

police 500000 conform-action transmit

!

control-plane

service-policy output PM-COPP

No traffic is filtering through CoPP,which is resulting in high CPU utilization,which configuration resolves

the issue ?

Options:

A.

no access-list 100access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 179access-list 100 permit ospf any anyaccess-list 101 Permit tcp any any range 22 23!class-map CM-MGMTno match access-group 100match access-group 101

B.

control-planeno service-policy output PM-COPPservice-policy input PM-COPP

C.

No access-list 100access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 179access-list 100 permit tcp any any range eq 22access-list 100 permit tcp any any range eq 23access-list 100 permit ospf any any

D.

no access-list 100access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 179access-list 100 permit ospf any anyaccess-list 101 Permit tcp any any range 22 23!class-map CM-MGMTno match access-group 100match access-group 101!control-planeno service-policy output PM-COPPservice-policy input PM-COPP

Question 42

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting suboptimal communication from the 192.168.5.32/28 subnet to the 172.16.3.16/28 segment using the slowest links. Which configuration resolves the suboptimal routing issue?

Options:

A.

R1(config-router)#router elgrp 100

R1(config-router)#redistribute ospf 1 metric 1000000 1111

B.

R2{config-router)#router ospf 1

R2{config-roiiter)#default-metric 1

R1(config-router)#router ospf 1

R1(config-router)#default-metric 10

C.

R2(config-router)#ro liter eigrp 100

R2(config-router)#redistribute ospf 1 metric 1000000 1111

D.

R2(config-router)#ro uter ospf 1

R2(config-router)#default-metric 10

R1(config-router)#router ospf 1

R1(config-router)#default-metric 1

Question 43

Which mechanism must be chosen to optimize the reconvergence time for OSPF at company location 407173257 that is less CPU-intensive than reducing the hello and dead timers?

Options:

A.

BFD

B.

Dead Peer Detection keepalives

C.

SSO

D.

OSPF demand circuit

Question 44

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must advertise routes into IPv6 MP-BGP and failed. Which configuration resolves the issue on R1?

Options:

A.

router bgp 65000no bgp default ipv4-unicastaddress-family ipv6 multicastnetwork 2001:DB8::/64

B.

router bgp 65000no bgp default ipv4-unicastaddress-family ipv6 unicastnetwork 2001:DB8::/64

C.

router bgp 64900no bgp default ipv4-unicastaddress-family ipv6 unicastnetwork 2001:DB8::/64

D.

router bgp 64900no bgp default ipv4-unicastaddress-family ipv6 multicastneighbor 2001:DB8:7000::2 translate-update ipv6 multicast

Question 45

A customer reports that traffic is not passing on an EIGRP enabled multipoint interface on a router configured as below:

interface Serial0/0

no ip address

interface Server0/0/0.9 multipoint

ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.248

ip split-horizon eigrp 1

Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Enable poison reverse

B.

Enable split horizon

C.

Disable poison reverse

D.

Disable split horizon

Question 46

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator configured the network to connect two disjointed networks and ail the connectivity is up except the virtual link which causes area 250 to be unreachable. Which two configurations resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

R2router ospf 1router-id 10.23.23.2

B.

R2router ospf 1no area area 234 virtual-link 10.34.34.4area 0 virtual-link 0.0.0.44

C.

R4router ospf 1no area 234 virtual-link 10.23.23.2area 234 virtual-link 0.0.0.22

D.

R2router ospf 1no area 234 virtual-link 10.34.34.4area 234 virtual-link 0.0.0.44

E.

R4router ospf 1no area area 234 virtual-link 10.23.23.2area 0 virtual-link 0.0.0.22

Question 47

A newly installed spoke router is configured for DMVPN with the ip mtu 1400 command. Which configuration allows the spoke to use fragmentation with the maximum negotiated TCP MTU over GRE?

Options:

A.

ip tcp adjust-mss 1360crypto ipsec fragmentation after-encryption

B.

ip tcp adjust-mtu 1360crypto ipsec fragmentation after-encryption

C.

ip tcp adjust-mss 1360crypto ipsec fragmentation mtu-discovery

D.

ip tcp adjust-mtu 1360crypto ipsec fragmentation mtu-discovery

Question 48

Refer to the exhibit While troubleshooting an issue on the network, an engineer notices that a TCP Connect operation failed on port 3000 between R101 and R201. Which command must be configured on R201 to respond to the R101 IP SLA configurations with a control connection on UDP port 1967?

Options:

A.

ip sla responder udp-echo ipaddress 1.1.1.1 port 1967

B.

ip sla responder tcp-connect ipaddress 1.1.1.1 port 3000

C.

ip sla responder tcp-connect ipaddress 2.2.2.2 port 3001

D.

ip sla responder

Question 49

Drag and drop the IPv6 first hop security device roles from the left onto the corresponding descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 50

Which mechanism provides traffic segmentation within a DMVPN network?

Options:

A.

RSVP

B.

BGP

C.

MPLS

D.

iPsec

Question 51

Refer to lhe exhibit After an engineer configured a new Cisco rouler as a DHCP server, users reponed iwo primary issues:

Devices in the HR subnet have intermittent connectivity problems.

Workstations in the LEGAL subnet cannot obtain IP addresses.

Which configurations must the engineer apply to ROUTER_1 to restore connectivity for the affected devices?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 52

Refer to the exhibit.

R5 should not receive any routes originated in the EIGRP domain. Which set of configuration changes removes the EIGRP routes from the R5 routing table to fix the issue?

Options:

A.

R4route-map O2R deny 10match tag 111route-map O2R permit 20!router ripredistribute ospf 1 route-map O2R metric 1

B.

R2route-map E20 deny 20R4route-map O2R deny 10match tag 111!router ripredistribute ospf 1 route-map O2R metric 1

C.

R4route-map O2R permit 10match tag 111route-map O2R deny 20!router ripredistribute ospf 1 route-map O2R metric 1

D.

R4route-map O2R deny 10match tag 111!router ripredistribute ospf 1 route-map O2R metric 1

Question 53

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is attempting to disable the automatic logout after a period of inactivity. After logging out the console stopped responding to all keyword inputs. Remote access through SSH still work resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the exec command on line con 0.

B.

Configure the absolute-timeout command on line con 0.

C.

Configure the default exec-timeout command on line con 0.

D.

Configure the no exec-timeout command on line con 0.

Question 54

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is troubleshooting a failed Telnet session from PC to the DHCP server. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Remove sequence 30 and add it back to the IPv6 traffic filter as sequence 5.

B.

Remove sequence 20 and add it back to the IPv6 traffic filter as sequence 5.

C.

Remove sequence 10 to add the PC source IP address and add it back as sequence 10.

D.

Remove sequence 20 for sequence 40 in the access list to allow Telnet.

Question 55

What are two features of BFD? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

scalable

B.

replaces hello messages

C.

reliable

D.

intensive on CPU for Layer 2 links

E.

requires routing protocols

Question 56

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator configures a router to stop using a particular default route if the DNS server 8.8.8.8 is not reachable through that route. However, this configuration did not work as desired and the default route still works even if the DNS server 8.8.8 8 is unreachable. Which two configuration changes resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure two static routes for the 8.8.8.8/32 destination to match the IP SLA probe for each ISP.

B.

Associate every IP SLA probe with the proper WAN address of the router.

C.

Reference the proper exit interfaces along with the next hops in both static default routes.

D.

Use a separate track object to reference the existing IP SLA 1 probe for every static route.

E.

Use a separate IP SLA probe and track object for every static route

Question 57

Which feature minimizes DoS attacks on an IPv6 network?

Options:

A.

IPv6 Binding Security Table

B.

IPv6 Router Advertisement Guard

C.

IPv6 Prefix Guard

D.

IPv6 Destination Guard

Question 58

Refer to the exhibit.

Spoke routers do not learn about each other's routes in the DMVPN Phase2 network. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Remove default route from spoke routers to establish a spoke-to-spoke tunnel.

B.

Configure a static route in each spoke to establish a spoke-to-spoke tunnel.

C.

Rectify incorrect wildcard mask configured on the hub router network command.

D.

Disable EIGRP split horizon on the TunnelO interface of the hub router.

Question 59

Refer to the exhibit. An enterprise user reports an access issue with IPv6 content on the Internet. The user can access IPv4 content that is at the data center. Which action resolves the issue with IPv6 content?

Options:

A.

Change Area 11 to Area 0 between routers B and C.

B.

Add a static route for 2001: db8:0:6::1/64 on router B RIB.

C.

Advertise the 2001:db8: e::e/64 route on the router D OSPF process.

D.

Enable default information to originate in IPv6 AF on router B.

Question 60

Refer to the exhibit.

Although summarization is configured for R1 to receive 10.0.0.0/8. more specific routes are received by R1. How should the 10.0.0.0/8 summary route be received from the neighbor, attached to R1 via Fast Ethernet0/0 interface?

Options:

A.

R1 should configure the ip summary-address eigrp 10.0.0.0.255.0.0.0 command under the Fast Ethernet 0/0 interface.

B.

The summarization condition is not met Router 10 1 100.10 requires a route for 10 0.0.0/8 that points to null 0

C.

The summarization condition is not met. The network 10.1.100.0/24 should be changed to 172.16.0.0/24.

D.

R1 should configure the ip summary-address eigrp 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 command under the Fast Ethernet 0/0 interface.

Question 61

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is trying to switch to the privileged EXEC level on R1 but failed. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Enable password Cisco@123

B.

tacass server enable-password Cisco@123

C.

tacacs-server enable-password Cisco@123

D.

enable-password Cisco@123

Question 62

Refer to the exhibit Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure host IP address in access-list 16

B.

Configure SNMPv3 on the router

C.

Configure SNMP authentication on the router

D.

Configure a valid SNMP community string

Question 63

When provisioning a device in Cisco DNA Center, the engineer sees the error message “Cannot select the device. Not compatible with template”.

What is the reason for the error?

Options:

A.

The template has an incorrect configuration.

B.

The software version of the template is different from the software version of the device.

C.

The changes to the template were not committed.

D.

The tag that was used to filter the templates does not match the device tag.

Question 64

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator noticed that after a change was made on R1, the timestamps on the system logs did not match the clock. What is the reason for this error?

Options:

A.

An authentication error with the NTP server results in an incorrect timestamp.

B.

The keyword localtime is not defined on the timestamp service command.

C.

The NTP server is in a different time zone.

D.

The system clock is set incorrectly to summer-time hours.

Question 65

Which command is used to check IP SLA when an interface is suspected to receive lots of traffic with options?

Options:

A.

show track

B.

show threshold

C.

show timer

D.

show delay

Question 66

Exhibit:

BGP is flapping after the Copp policy is applied. What are the two solutions to fix the issue?

(Choose two)

Options:

A.

Configure BGP in the COPP-CRITICAL-7600 ACL

B.

Configure a higher value for CIR under the default class to allow more packets during peak traffic

C.

Configure a higher value for CIR under the class COPP-CRITICAL-7600

D.

Configure a three-color policer instead of two-color policer under class COPP-CRITICAL-7600

E.

Configure IP CEF to CoPP policy and BGP to work

Question 67

Refer to the exhibit.

Network operations cannot read or write any configuration on the device with this configuration from the operations subnet. Which two configurations fix the issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure SNMP rw permission in addition to community ciscotest.

B.

Modify access list 1 and allow operations subnet in the access list.

C.

Modify access list 1 and allow SNMP in the access list.

D.

Configure SNMP rw permission in addition to version 1.

E.

Configure SNMP rw permission in addition to community ciscotest 1.

Question 68

Refer to the exhibit.

A company is evaluating multiple network management system tools. Trending graphs generated by SNMP data are returned by the NMS and appear to have multiple gaps. While troubleshooting the issue, an engineer noticed the relevant output. What solves the gaps in the graphs?

Options:

A.

Remove the exceed-rate command in the class map.

B.

Remove the class map NMS from being part of control plane policing.

C.

Configure the CIR rate to a lower value that accommodates all the NMS tools

D.

Separate the NMS class map in multiple class maps based on the specific protocols with appropriate CoPP actions

Question 69

Which two methods use IPsec to provide secure connectivity from the branch office to the headquarters office? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

DMVPN

B.

MPLS VPN

C.

Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI)

D.

SSL VPN

E.

PPPoE

Question 70

Refer to the exhibit.

Redistribution is enabled between the routing protocols, and nowPC2 PC3, and PC4 cannot reach PC1. What are the two solutions to fix the problem? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Filter RIP routes back into RIP when redistributing into RIP in R2

B.

Filter OSPF routes into RIP FROM EIGRP when redistributing into RIP in R2.

C.

Filter all routes except RIP routes when redistributing into EIGRP in R2.

D.

Filter RIP AND OSPF routes back into OSPF from EIGRP when redistributing into OSPF in R2

E.

Filter all routes except EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF in R3.

Question 71

Which configuration enabled the VRF that is labeled “Inet” on FastEthernet0/0?

Options:

A.

R1(config)# ip vrf InetR1(config-vrf)#interface FastEthernet0/0R1(config-if)#ip vrf forwarding Inet

B.

R1(config)#router ospf 1 vrf InetR1(config-router)#ip vrf forwarding FastEthernet0/0

C.

R1(config)#ip vrf Inet FastEthernet0/0

D.

R1(config)# ip vrf InetR1(config-vrf)#ip vrf FastEthernet0/0

Question 72

An engineer is trying to copy an IOS file from one router to another router by using TFTP. Which two actions are needed to allow the file to copy? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Copy the file to the destination router with the copy tftp: flash: command

B.

Enable the TFTP server on the source router with the tftp-server flash: command

C.

TFTP is not supported in recent IOS versions, so an alternative method must be used

D.

Configure a user on the source router with the username tftp password tftp command

E.

Configure the TFTP authentication on the source router with the tftp-server authentication local command

Question 73

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of applying this configuration?

Options:

A.

The router can form BGP neighborships with any other device.

B.

The router cannot form BGP neighborships with any other device.

C.

The router cannot form BGP neighborships with any device that is matched by the access list named “BGP”.

D.

The router can form BGP neighborships with any device that is matched by the access list named “BGP”.

Question 74

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is trying to redistribute OSPF to BGP, but not all of the routes are

redistributed. What is the reason for this issue?

Options:

A.

By default, only internal routes and external type 1 routes are redistributed into BGP

B.

Only classful networks are redistributed from OSPF to BGP

C.

BGP convergence is slow, so the route will eventually be present in the BGP table

D.

By default, only internal OSPF routes are redistributed into BGP

Question 75

Refer to the exhibit.

Which subnet is redistributed from EIGRP to OSPF routing protocols?

Options:

A.

10.2.2.0/24

B.

10.1.4.0/26

C.

10.1.2.0/24

D.

10.2.3.0/26

Question 76

Which two statements about VRF-Lite configurations are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They support the exchange of MPLS labels

B.

Different customers can have overlapping IP addresses on different VPNs

C.

They support a maximum of 512.000 routes

D.

Each customer has its own dedicated TCAM resources

E.

Each customer has its own private routing table.

F.

They support IS-IS

Question 77

Drag and drop the MPLS VPN device types from me left onto the definitions on the right.

Options:

Question 78

Which label operations are performed by a label edge router?

Options:

A.

SWAP and POP

B.

SWAP and PUSH

C.

PUSH and PHP

D.

PUSH and POP

Question 79

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator configured VRF lite for customer A. The technician at the remote site misconfigured VRF on the router. Which configuration will resolve connectivity for both sites of customer_a?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 80

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is monitoring reachability of the configured default routes to ISP1 and ISP2. The default route from ISP1 is preferred if available. How is this issue resolved?

Options:

A.

Use the icmp-echo command to track both default routes

B.

Use the same AD for both default routes

C.

Start IP SLA by matching numbers for track and ip sla commands

D.

Start IP SLA by defining frequency and scheduling it

Question 81

Refer to the exhibit.

During troubleshooting it was discovered that the device is not reachable using a secure

web browser. What is needed to fix the problem?

Options:

A.

permit tcp port 443

B.

permit udp port 465

C.

permit tcp port 465

D.

permit tcp port 22

Question 82

Which protocol does MPLS use to support traffic engineering?

Options:

A.

Tag Distribution Protocol (TDP)

B.

Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP)

C.

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

D.

Label Distribution Protocol (LDP)

Question 83

An engineer configured the wrong default gateway for the Cisco DNA Center enterprise interface during the install. Which command must the engineer run to correct the configuration?

Options:

A.

sudo maglev-config update

B.

sudo maglev install config update

C.

sudo maglev reinstall

D.

sudo update config install

Question 84

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration configures a policy on R1 to forward any traffic that is sourced from

the 192.168.130.0/24 network to R2?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 85

Drag and drop the OSPF adjacency states from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 86

What is an advantage of using BFD?

Options:

A.

It detects local link failure at layer 1 and updates routing table.

B.

It detects local link failure at layer 2 and updates routing protocols.

C.

It has sub-second failure detection for layer 1 and layer 3 problems.

D.

It has sub-second failure detection for layer 1 and layer 2 problems.

Question 87

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP SLA was configured on router R1 that allows the default route to be modified in the event that Fa0/0 loses reachability with the router R3 Fa0/0 interface. The route has changed to flow through

router R2. Which debug command is used to troubleshoot this issue?

Options:

A.

debug ip flow

B.

debug ip sla error

C.

debug ip routing

D.

debug ip packet

Question 88

Refer to the exhibit.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 directly connect to the Internet. A customer is tracking both ISP links to

achieve redundancy and cannot see the Cisco IOS IP SLA tracking output on the router console. Which command is missing from the IP SLA configuration?

Options:

A.

Start-time 00:00

B.

Start-time 0

C.

Start-time immediately

D.

Start-time now

Question 89

Refer to the exhibit.

Why is the remote NetFlow server failing to receive the NetFlow data?

Options:

A.

The flow exporter is configured but is not used.

B.

The flow monitor is applied in the wrong direction.

C.

The flow monitor is applied to the wrong interface.

D.

The destination of the flow exporter is not reachable.

Question 90

Refer to the exhibit.

Which control plane policy limits BGP traffic that is destined to the CPU to 1 Mbps and

ignores BGP traffic that is sent at higher rate?

Options:

A.

policy-map SHAPE_BGP

B.

policy-map LIMIT_BGP

C.

policy-map POLICE_BGP

D.

policy-map COPP

Question 91

What is the role of a route distinguisher via a VRF-Lite setup implementation?

Options:

A.

It extends the IP address to identify which VFP instance it belongs to.

B.

It manages the import and export of routes between two or more VRF instances

C.

It enables multicast distribution for VRF-Lite setups to enhance EGP routing protocol capabilities

D.

It enables multicast distribution for VRF-Lite setups to enhance IGP routing protocol capabilities

Question 92

Which security feature can protect DMVPN tunnels?

Options:

A.

IPsec

B.

TACACS+

C.

RTBH

D.

RADIUS

Question 93

Refer to the exhibit.

The server for the finance department is not reachable consistently on the 200.30.40.0/24 network and after every second month it gets a new IP address. Which two actions must be taken to resolve this Issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure the server to use DHCP on the network with default gateway 200 30.40.100.

B.

Configure the server with a static IP address and default gateway.

C.

Configure the router to exclude a server IP address.

D.

Configure the server to use DHCP on the network with default gateway 200 30.30.100.

E.

Configure the router to exclude a server IP address and default gateway.

Question 94

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about R1 is true?

Options:

A.

OSPF redistributes RIP routes only if they have a tag of one.

B.

RIP learned routes are distributed to OSPF with a tag value of one.

C.

R1 adds one to the metric for RIP learned routes before redistributing to OSPF.

D.

RIP routes are redistributed to OSPF without any changes.

Question 95

What is a prerequisite for configuring BFD?

Options:

A.

Jumbo frame support must be configured on the router that is using BFD.

B.

All routers in the path between two BFD endpoints must have BFD enabled.

C.

Cisco Express Forwarding must be enabled on all participating BFD endpoints.

D.

To use BFD with BGP, the timers 3 9 command must first be configured in the BGP routing process.

Question 96

Which transport layer protocol is used to form LDP sessions?

Options:

A.

UDP

B.

SCTP

C.

TCP

D.

RDP

Question 97

Refer to the exhibit.

A router receiving BGP routing updates from multiple neighbors for routers in AS 690. What is the reason that the router still sends traffic that is destined to AS 690 to a neighbor other than 10.222.1.1?

Options:

A.

The local preference value in another neighbor statement is higher than 250.

B.

The local preference value should be set to the same value as the weight in the route map.

C.

The route map is applied in the wrong direction.

D.

The weight value in another neighbor statement is higher than 200.

Question 98

Drag and drop the MPLS VPN concepts from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 99

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is trying to configure local authentication on the console line, but the device is trying to authenticate using TACACS+. Which action produces the desired configuration?

Options:

A.

Add the aaa authentication login default none command to the global configuration.

B.

Replace the capital “C” with a lowercase “c” in the aaa authentication login Console local command.

C.

Add the aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ local-case command to the globalconfiguration.

D.

Add the login authentication Console command to the line configuration

Question 100

R2 has a locally originated prefix 192.168.130.0/24 and has these configurations:

What is the result when the route-map OUT command is applied toward an eBGP neighbor R1 (1.1.1.1) by using the neighbor 1.1.1.1 route-map OUT out command?

Options:

A.

R1 sees 192.168.130.0/24 as two AS hops away instead of one AS hop away.

B.

R1 does not accept any routes other than 192.168.130.0/24

C.

R1 does not forward traffic that is destined for 192.168.30.0/24

D.

Network 192.168.130.0/24 is not allowed in the R1 table

Question 101

While troubleshooting connectivity issues to a router, these details are noticed:

Standard pings to all router interfaces, including loopbacks, are successful.

Data traffic is unaffected.

SNMP connectivity is intermittent.

SSH is either slow or disconnects frequently.

Which command must be configured first to troubleshoot this issue?

Options:

A.

show policy-map control-plane

B.

show policy-map

C.

show interface | inc drop

D.

show ip route

Question 102

Which command allows traffic to load-balance in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN configuration?

Options:

A.

multi-paths eibgp 2

B.

maximum-paths 2

C.

Maximum-paths ibgp 2

D.

multi-paths 2

Question 103

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator that is connected to the console does not see debug messages when

remote users log in. Which action ensures that debug messages are displayed for remote logins?

Options:

A.

Enter the transport input ssh configuration command.

B.

Enter the terminal monitor exec command.

C.

Enter the logging console debugging configuration command.

D.

Enter the aaa new-model configuration command.

Question 104

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer for AS64512 must remove the inbound and outbound traffic from link A during maintenance without closing the BGP session so that there ............ a backup link over link A toward the ASN. Which BGP configuration on R1 accomplishes this goal?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 105

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is trying to connect to a device with SSH but cannot connect. The engineer connects by using the console and finds the displayed output when troubleshooting. Which command must be used in configuration mode to enable SSH on the device?

Options:

A.

no ip ssh disable

B.

ip ssh enable

C.

ip ssh version 2

D.

crypto key generate rsa

Question 106

Refer to the exhibits.

Phase-3 tunnels cannot be established between spoke-to-spoke in DMVPN. Which two

commands are missing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The ip nhrp redirect command is missing on the spoke routers.

B.

The ip nhrp shortcut command is missing on the spoke routers.

C.

The ip nhrp redirect commands is missing on the hub router.

D.

The ip nhrp shortcut commands is missing on the hub router.

E.

The ip nhrp map command is missing on the hub router.

Question 107

A network engineer is investigating a flapping (up/down) interface issue on a core switch that is synchronized to an NTP server. Log output currently does not show the time of the flap. Which command allows the logging on the switch to show the time of the flap according to the clock on the device?

Options:

A.

service timestamps log uptime

B.

clock summer-time mst recurring 2 Sunday mar 2:00 1 Sunday nov 2:00

C.

service timestamps log datetime localtime show-timezone

D.

clock calendar-valid

Question 108

While working with software images, an engineer observes that Cisco DNA Center cannot upload its software image directly from the device. Why is the image not uploading?

Options:

A.

The device must be resynced to Cisco DNA Center.

B.

The software image for the device is in install mode.

C.

The device has lost connectivity to Cisco DNA Center.

D.

The software image for the device is in bundle mode

Question 109

Drag and drop the SNMP attributes in Cisco IOS devices from the left onto the correct SNMPv2c or SNMPV3 categories on the right.

Options:

Question 110

Refer to the exhibit.

The output of the trace route from R5 shows a loop in the network. Which configuration

prevents this loop?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 111

Which command displays the IP routing table information that is associated with VRF-Lite?

Options:

A.

show ip vrf

B.

show ip route vrf

C.

show run vrf

D.

show ip protocols vrf

Question 112

Drag and drop the MPLS terms from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.

Options:

Question 113

Refer to the exhibit.

R2 is a route reflector, and R1 and R3 are route reflector clients. The route reflector learns the route to 172.16.25.0/24 from R1, but it does not advertise to R3. What is the reason the route is not advertised?

Options:

A.

R2 does not have a route to the next hop, so R2 does not advertise the prefix to other clients.

B.

Route reflector setup requires full IBGP mesh between the routers.

C.

In route reflector setup, only classful prefixes are advertised to other clients.

D.

In route reflector setups, prefixes are not advertised from one client to another.

Question 114

Refer to the exhibit.

The ACL is placed on the inbound Gigabit 0/1 interface of the router. Host

192.168.10.10cannot SSH to host 192.168.100.10 even though the flow is permitted. Which action

resolves the issue without opening full access to this router?

Options:

A.

Move the SSH entry to the beginning of the ACL

B.

Temporarily move the permit ip any any line to the beginning of the ACL to see if the flow works

C.

Temporarily remove the ACL from the interface to see if the flow works

D.

Run the show access-list FILTER command to view if the SSH entry has any hit statistic associated with it

Question 115

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has configured DMVPN on a spoke router. What is the WAN IP address of another spoke router within the DMVPN network?

Options:

A.

172.18.46.2

B.

192.168.1.4

C.

172.18.16.2

D.

192.168.1.1

Question 116

Refer to the exhibit. an engineer is trying to get 192.168.32.100 forwarded through 10.1.1.1, but it was forwarded through 10.1.1.2. What action forwards the packets through 10.1.1.1?

Options:

A.

Configure EIGRP to receive 192.168.32.0 route with lower admin distance.

B.

A. Configure EIGRP to receive 192.168.32.0 route with longer prefix than /19.

C.

A. Configure EIGRP to receive 192.168.32.0 route with lower metric.

D.

A. Configure EIGRP to receive 192.168.32.0 route with equal or longer prefix than /24.

Question 117

Drag and drop the operations from the left onto the locations where the operations are performed on the right.

Options:

Question 118

An engineer is configuring a network and needs packets to be forwarded to an interface for any destination address that is not in the routing table. What should be configured to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

set ip next-hop

B.

set ip default next-hop

C.

set ip next-hop recursive

D.

set ip next-hop verify-availability

Question 119

Which protocol is used in a DMVPN network to map physical IP addresses to logical IP addresses?

Options:

A.

BGP

B.

LLDP

C.

EIGRP

D.

NHRP

Question 120

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures a static route on a router, but when the engineer checks the route

to the destination, a different next hop is chosen. What is the reason for this?

Options:

A.

Dynamic routing protocols always have priority over static routes.

B.

The metric of the OSPF route is lower than the metric of the static route.

C.

The configured AD for the static route is higher than the AD of OSPF.

D.

The syntax of the static route is not valid, so the route is not considered.

Question 121

Which statement about route distinguishers in an MPLS network is true?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishers allow multiple instances of a routing table to coexist within the edge router.

B.

Route distinguishers are used for label bindings.

C.

Route distinguishers make a unique VPNv4 address across the MPLS network.

D.

Route distinguishers define which prefixes are imported and exported on the edge router.

Question 122

Refer to the exhibit.

Which routes from OSPF process 5 are redistributed into EIGRP?

Options:

A.

E1 and E2 subnets matching access list TO-OSPF

B.

E1 and E2 subnets matching prefix list TO-OSPF

C.

only E2 subnets matching access list TO-OSPF

D.

only E1 subnets matching prefix listTO-OS1

Question 123

Which two statements about redistributing EIGRP into OSPF are true? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as type 3 LSAs in the OSPF database

B.

The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as type 5 LSAs in the OSPF database

C.

The administrative distance of the redistributed routes is 170

D.

The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as OSPF external type 1

E.

The redistributed EIGRP routes as placed into an OSPF area whose area ID matches the EIGRPautonomous system number

F.

The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as OSPF external type 2 routes in the routing table

Question 124

What is a role of route distinguishers in an MPLS network?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishers define which prefixes are imported and exported on the edge router

B.

Route distinguishers allow multiple instances of a routing table to coexist within the edge router.

C.

Route distinguishers are used for label bindings.

D.

Route distinguishers make a unique VPNv4 address across the MPLS network

Question 125

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configured the branch router for IPv6 on the E 0/0 interface The neighboring router is fully configured to meet requirements, but the neighbor relationship is not coming up. Which action fixes the problem on the branch router to bring the IPv6 neighbors up?

Options:

A.

Enable the IPv4 address family under the E 0/0 interface by using the address-family Ipv4 unicast command

B.

Disable IPv6 on the E 0/0 interface using the no ipv6 enable command

C.

Enable the IPv4 address family under the router ospfv3 4 process by using the address-family ipv4 unicast command

D.

Disable OSPF for IPv4 using the no ospfv3 4 area 0 ipv4 command under the E 0/0 interface.

Question 126

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two actions should be taken to access the server? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Modify the access list to add a second line of permit ip any

B.

Modify the access list to deny the route to 192.168.2.2.

C.

Modify distribute list seq 10 to permit the route to 192.168.2.2.

D.

Add a sequence 20 in the route map to permit access list 1.

E.

Add a floating static route to reach to 192.168.2.2 with administrative distance higher than OSPF

Question 127

Refer to the exhibit.

Troubleshoot and ensure that branch B only ever uses the MPLS B network to reach HQ. Which action achieves this requirement?

Options:

A.

Introduce an AS path filter on branch A routers so that only local prefixes are advertised into BGP

B.

increase the local preference for all HQ prefixes received at branch B from the MPLS B network to be higher than the local preferences used on the MPLS A network

C.

Introduce AS path prepending on the branch A MPLS B network connection so that any HQ advertisements from branch A toward the MPLS B network are prepended three times

D.

Modify the weight of all HQ prefixes received at branch B from the MPLS B network to be higher than the weights used on the MPLS A network

Question 128

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has successfully set up a floating static route from the BRANCH router to the HQ network using HQ_R1 as the primary default gateway When the g0/0 goes down on HQ_R1, the branch network cannot reach the HQ network 192.168.20.0/24. Which set of configurations resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

HQ_R3(config)# ip sla responderHQ_R3(config)# ip sla responder icmp-echo 172.16.35.1

B.

BRANCH(config)# ip sla 1BRANCH(config-ip-sla)# icmp-echo 192.168.100.2

C.

HQ R3(config)# Ip sla responderHQ R3(config)# Ip sla responder Icmp-echo 172.16.35.5

D.

BRANCH(config)# Ip sla 1BRANCH(config-ip-sta)# Icmp-echo 192.168.100.1

Question 129

An engineer configured SNMP notifications sent to the management server using authentication and encrypting data with DES. An error in the response PDU is received as "UNKNOWNUSERNAME. WRONGDIGEST". Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the correct authentication password using SNMPv3 authPriv .

B.

Configure the correct authentication password using SNMPv3 authNoPriv.

C.

Configure correct authentication and privacy passwords using SNMPv3 authNoPriv.

D.

Configure correct authentication and privacy passwords using SNMPv3 authPriv.

Question 130

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is using the DNA Assurance Dashboard panel to troubleshoot an OSPF adjacency that failed between Edge_NYC interface GigabitEthernet1/3 with Neighbor Edge_SNJ. The administrator observes that the neighborship is stuck in exstart state. How does the administrator fix this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure to match the OSPF interface speed and duplex settings on both routers.

B.

Configure to match the OSPF interface MTU settings on both routers.

C.

Configure to match the OSPF interface unique IP address and subnet mask on both routers.

D.

Configure to match the OSPF interface network types on both routers.

Question 131

What are two functions of IPv6 Source Guard? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It uses the populated binding table for allowing legitimate traffic.

B.

It works independent from IPv6 neighbor discovery.

C.

It denies traffic from unknown sources or unallocated addresses.

D.

It denies traffic by inspecting neighbor discovery packets for specific pattern.

E.

It blocks certain traffic by inspecting DHCP packets for specific sources.

Question 132

Clients on ALS2 receive IPv4 and IPv6 addresses but clients on ALS1 receive only IPv4 addresses and not IPv6 addresses. Which action on DSW1 allows clients on ALS1 to receive IPv6 addresses?

Options:

A.

Configure DSW1(config-if)#ipv6 helper address 2002:404:404::404:404

B.

Configure DSW1(dhcp-config)#default-router 2002:A04:A01::A04:A01

C.

Configure DSW1(config)#ipv6 route 2002:404:404:404:404/128 FastEthernet1/0

D.

Configure DSW1(config-if)#ipv6 dhcp relay destination 2002:404:404::404:404 GigabitEthernet1/2

E.

Option A

F.

Option B

G.

Option C

Question 133

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator configured route advertisement to a remote low resources router to use only the default route to reach any network but failed. Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Change the direction of the distribute-list command from out to in.

B.

Remove the line with the sequence number 5 from the prefix list.

C.

Remove the prefix keyword from the distribute-list command.

D.

Remove the line with the sequence number 10 from the prefix list.

Question 134

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two actions restrict access to router R1 by SSH? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure transport input ssh on line vty and remove sequence 30 from access list 100.

B.

Configure transport output ssh on line vty and remove sequence 20 from access list 100.

C.

Remove class-map ANY from service-policy CoPP

D.

Configure transport output ssh on line vty and remove sequence 10 from access list 199.

E.

Remove sequence 10 from access list 100 and add sequence 20 deny tcp any any eq telnet to access list 199

Question 135

Refer to the exhibit. The Los Angeles and New York routers are receiving routes from Chicago but not from each other. Which configuration fixes the issue?

Options:

A.

Interface Tunnel1no ip split-horizon eigrp 111

B.

Interface Tunnel1Ip next-hop-self elgrp 111

C.

Interface Tunnel1tunnel mode Ipsec Ipv4

D.

Interface Tunnel1tunnel protection ipsec profile IPSec-PROFILE

Question 136

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured mutual redistribution on R1 and R2 routers, which caused instability in the network. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1. and match the same tag on R2 to deny when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.

B.

Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1. and match the same tag on R2 to allow when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.

C.

Advertise summary routes of EIGRP to OSPF and deny specific EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF.

D.

Apply a prefix list of EIGRP network routes in OSPF domain on R1 to propagate back into the EIGRP routing domain.

Question 137

What are two characteristics of VRF instance? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

All VRFs share customers routing and CEF tables .

B.

An interface must be associated to one VRF.

C.

Each VRF has a different set of routing and CEF tables

D.

It is defined by the VPN membership of a customer site attached to a P device.

E.

A customer site can be associated to different VRFs

Question 138

Which two components are needed for a service provider to utilize the LVPN MPLS application? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The P routers must be configured for MP-iBGP toward the PE routers

B.

The P routers must be configured with RSVP.

C.

The PE routers must be configured for MP-iBGP with other PE routers

D.

The PE routers must be configured for MP-eBGP to connect to CEs

E.

The P and PE routers must be configured with LDP or RSVP

Question 139

What are two purposes of using IPv4 and VPNv4 address-family configurations in a Layer 3 MPLS VPN? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The VPNv4 address is used to advertise the MPLS VPN label.

B.

RD is prepended to the IPv4 route to make it unique.

C.

MP-BGP is used to allow overlapping IPv4 addresses between customers to advertisethrough the network.

D.

The IPv4 address is needed to tag the MPLS label.

E.

The VPNv4 address consists of a 64-bit route distinguisher that is prepended to the IPv4prefix.

Question 140

Refer to Exhibit.

The network administrator configured the branch router for IPv6 on the E0/0 interface. The neighboring router is fully configured to meet requirements, but the neighbor relationship is not coming up. Which action fixes the problem on the branch router to bring the IPv6 neighbors up?

Options:

A.

Enable the IPv4 address family under the router ospfv3 4 process by using the address-family ipv4 unicast command

B.

Disable IPv6 on the E0/0 interface using the no ipv6 enable command

C.

Enable the IPv4 address family under the E0/0 interface by using the address-family ipv4 unicast command

D.

Disable OSPF for IPv4 using the no ospfv3 4 area 0 ipv4 command under the E0/0 interface

Question 141

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the Customer Edge router (AS 64511) to send only summarized routes toward ISP-1 (AS 100) and ISP-2 (AS 200).

router bgp 64511

network 172.16.20.0 mask 255.255.255.0

network 172.16.21.0 mask 255.255.255.0

network 172.16.22.0 mask 255.255.255.0

network 172.16.23.0 mask 255.255.255.0

aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255.255.252.0

After this configuration. ISP-1 and ISP-2 continue to receive the specific routes and the summary route. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

router bgp 64511aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only

B.

router bgp 64511neighbor 192.168.100.1 summary-onlyneighbor 192.168.200.2 summary-only

C.

interface E 0/0ip bgp suppress-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC!interface E 0/1ip bgp suppress-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC!ip prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 172.16.20.0/22 ge 24!route-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 10match ip address prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC

D.

ip prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC deny 172.16.20.0/22 ge 22ip prefix-list PL BLOCK SPECIFIC permit 172.16.20.0/22!route-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 10match ip address prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC!router bgp 64511aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255 255.252.0 suppress-map BLOCKSPECIFIC

Question 142

When configuring Control Plane Policing on a router to protect it from malicious traffic, an engineer observes that the configured routing protocols start flapping on

that device. Which action in the Control Plane Policy prevents this problem in a production environment while achieving the security objective?

Options:

A.

Set the conform-action and exceed-action to transmit initially to test the ACLs and transmit rates and apply the Control Plane Policy in the output direction

B.

Set the conform-action and exceed-action to transmit initially to test the ACLs and transmit rates and apply the Control Plane Policy in the input direction

C.

Set the conform-action to transmit and exceed-action to drop to test the ACLs and transmit rates and apply the Control Plane Policy m the input direction

D.

Set the conform-action to transmit and exceed-action to drop to test the ACLs and transmit rates and apply the Control Plane Policy m the output direction

Question 143

Refer to the exhibit.

A company with autonomous system number AS65401 has obtained IP address block 209.165.200.224/27 fro, ARIN. The company needed more IP addresses and was assigned block209.165.202.128/27 from ISP2. An engineer is ISP1 reports they are receiving ISP2 routes from AS65401. Which configuration onR1 resolves the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 144

An engineer is troubleshooting on the console session of a router and turns on multiple debug commands. The console screen is filled with scrolling debug messages that none of the commands can be verified if entered correctly or display any output. Which action allows the engineer to see entered console commands while still continuing the analysis of the debug messages?

Options:

A.

Configure the logging synchronous command

B.

Configure the no logging console debugging command globally

C.

Configure the logging synchronous level all command

D.

Configure the term no mon command globally

Question 145

Refer to Exhibit.

Traffic from the branch network should route through HQ R1 unless the path is unavailable. An engineer tests this functionality by shutting down interface on the BRANCH router toward HQ_R1 router but 192.168.20.0/24 is no longer reachable from the branch router. Which set of configurations resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

HQ_R1(config)# ip sla responderHQ_R1(config)# ip sla responder icmp-echo 172.16.35.2

B.

BRANCH(config)# ip sla 1BRANCH(config-ip-sla)# icmp-echo 172.16.35.1

C.

HQ_R2(config)# ip sla responderHQ_R2(config)# ip sla responder icmp-echo 172.16.35.5

D.

BRANCH(config)# ip sla 1BRANCH(config-ip-sla)# icmp-echo 172.16.35.2

Question 146

An engineer configured access list NON-CISCO in a policy to influence routes

What are the two effects of this route map configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Packets are not evaluated by sequence 10.

B.

Packets are evaluated by sequence 10.

C.

Packets are forwarded to the default gateway.

D.

Packets are forwarded using normal route lookup.

E.

Packets are dropped by the access list.

Question 147

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator logs into the router using TACACS+ username and password credentials, but the administrator cannot run any privileged commands Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure TACACS+ synchronization with the Active Directory admin group

B.

Configure the username from a local database

C.

Configure full access for the username from TACACS+ server

D.

Configure an authorized IP address for this user to access this router

Question 148

What is the minimum time gap required by the local system before putting a BFD control packet on the wire?

Options:

A.

Detect Mult

B.

Required Min Echo RX Interval

C.

Desired Min TX Interval

D.

Required Min RX Interval

Question 149

Refer to the exhibit. The engineer configured and connected Router2 to Router1. The link came up but could not establish a Telnet connection to Router1 IPv6 address of 2001:DB8::1. Which configuration allows Router2 to establish a Telnet connection to Router1?

Options:

A.

jpv6 unicast-routing

B.

permit ICMPv6 on access list INGRESS for Router2 to obtain IPv6 address

C.

permit ip any any on access list EGRESS2 on Router1

D.

IPv6 address on GigabitEthernet0/0

Question 150

Refer to the exhibit.

A user cannot SSH to the router. What action must be taken to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure transport input ssh

B.

Configure transport output ssh

C.

Configure ip ssh version 2

D.

Configure ip ssh source-interface loopback0

Question 151

Refer to the exhibit.

A client is concerned that passwords are visible when running this show archive log config all.

Which router configuration is needed to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

MASS-RTR(config-archive-log-cfg)#password encryption aes

B.

MASS-RTR(config)#aaa authentication arap

C.

MASS-RTR(config)#service password-encryption

D.

MASS-RTR(config-archive-log-cfg)#hidekeys

Question 152

An engineer sets up a DMVPN connection to connect branch 1 and branch 2 to HQ branch 1 and branch 2 cannot communicate with each other. Which change must be made to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 153

Refer to the exhibit.

An IT staff member comes into the office during normal office hours and cannot access devices through SSH Which action should be taken to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Modify the access list to use the correct IP address.

B.

Configure the correct time range.

C.

Modify the access list to correct the subnet mask

D.

Configure the access list in the outbound direction.

Question 154

What does the PE router convert the Ipv4 prefix to within an MPLS VPN?

Options:

A.

VPN-IPv4 prefix combined with the 64-bit route distinguisher

B.

48-bit route combining the IP and PE router-id

C.

prefix that combines the ASN, PE router-id, and IP prefix

D.

eBGP path association between the PE and CE sessions

Question 155

Drag and drop the LDP features from the left onto the descriptions on the right

Options:

Question 156

Refer to the exhibit. R2 has two paths to reach 192.168.13.0/24. but traffic is sent only through R3. Which action allows traffic to use both paths?

Options:

A.

Configure the bandwidth 2000 command under interface FastEthernet0/0 on R2.

B.

Configure the variance 4 command under the EIGRP process on R2.

C.

Configure the delay 1 command under interface FastEthernet0/0 on R2.

D.

Configure the variance 2 command under the EIGRP process on R2

Question 157

An engineer configured policy-based routing for a destination IP address that does not exist in the routing table. How is the packet treated through the policy for configuring the set ip default next-hop command?

Options:

A.

Packets are not forwarded to the specific next hop.

B.

Packets are forwarded based on the routing table.

C.

Packets are forwarded based on a static route.

D.

Packets are forwarded to the specific next hop.

Question 158

Drag and drop the MPLS concepts from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 159

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has developed a Python script on the local Linux machine and is trying to transfer it to the router. However, the transfer fails. Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

The SSH service must be enabled with the crypto key generate rsa command.

B.

The SCP service must be enabled with the ip scp server enable command.

C.

The Python interpreter must first be enabled with the guestshell enable command.

D.

The SSH access must be allowed on the VTY lines using the transport input ssh command.

Question 160

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action resolves the adjacency issue?

Options:

A.

Match the hello interval timers.

B.

Configure the same EIGRP process IDs.

C.

Match the authentication keys.

D.

Configure the same autonomous system numbers.

Question 161

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator can see the DHCP discovery packet in R1. but R2 is not replying to the DHCP request. The R1 related interface is configured with the DHCP helper address. If the PC is directly connected to the FaO/1 interface on R2, the DHCP server assigns as IP address from the DHCP pool to the PC. Which two commands resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

service dhcp-relay command on R1

B.

ip dhcp option 82 command on R2

C.

service dhcp command on R1

D.

ip dhcp relay information enable command on R1

E.

ip dhcp relay information trust-all command on R2

Question 162

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action resolves the failed authentication attempt to the router?

Options:

A.

Configure aaa authorization login command on line vty 0 4

B.

Configure aaa authorization login command on line console 0

C.

Configure aaa authorization console global command

D.

Configure aaa authorization console command on line vty 0 4

Question 163

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured NTP on a Cisco router to get synchronized time for system and logs from a unified time source The configuration did not work as desired Which service must be enabled to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Enter the service timestamps log datetime localtime global command.

B.

Enter the service timestamps log datetime synchronize global command.

C.

Enter the service timestamps log datetime console global command.

D.

Enter the service timestamps log datetime clock-period global command

Question 164

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer wanted to set a tag of 30 to route 10 1.80.65/32 but it failed How is the issue fixed?

Options:

A.

Modify route-map ospf-to-eigrp permit 30 and match prefix-list ccnp2.

B.

Modify route-map ospf-to-eigrp permit 10 and match prefix-list ccnp2.

C.

Modify prefix-list ccnp3 to add 10.1.64.0/20 le 24

D.

Modify prefix-list ccnp3 to add 10.1.64.0/20 ge 32

Question 165

An engineer configured a DHCP server for Cisco IP phones to download its configuration from a TFTP server, but the IP phones failed to toad the configuration What must be configured to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

BOOTP port 67

B.

DHCP option 66

C.

BOOTP port 68

D.

DHCP option 69

Question 166

An engineer needs dynamic routing between two routers and is unable to establish OSPF adjacency. The output of the show ip ospf neighbor command shows that the neighbor state is EXSTART/EXCHANGE. Which action should be taken to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

match the passwords

B.

match the hello timers

C.

match the MTUs

D.

match the network types

Question 167

Which configuration feature should be used to block rogue router advertisements instead of using the IPv6 Router Advertisement Guard feature?

Options:

A.

VACL blocking broadcast frames from nonauthorized hosts

B.

PVLANs with promiscuous ports associated to route advertisements and isolated ports for nodes

C.

PVLANs with community ports associated to route advertisements and isolated ports for nodes

D.

IPv4 ACL blocking route advertisements from nonauthorized hosts

Question 168

In which two ways does the IPv6 First-Hop Security Binding Table operate? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

by IPv6 routing protocols to securely build neighborships without the need of authentication

B.

by the recovery mechanism to recover the binding table in the event of a device reboot

C.

by IPv6 HSRP to make sure neighbors are authenticated before being used as gateways

D.

by various IPv6 guard features to validate the data link layer address

E.

by storing hashed keys for IPsec tunnels for the built-in IPsec features

Question 169

Refer to the exhibit.

The neighbor relationship is not coming up Which two configurations bring the adjacency up? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

NYrouter ospf 1area 0 authentication message-digest

B.

LAinterface E 0/0ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 Cisco123

C.

NYinterface E 0/0no ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 Cisco123ip ospf authentication-key Cisco123

D.

LAinterface E 0/0ip ospf authentication-key Cisco123

E.

LArouter ospf 1area 0 authentication message-digest

Question 170

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 is being monitored using SNMP and monitoring devices are getting only partial information. What action should be taken to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Modify the CoPP policy to increase the configured exceeded limit for SNMP.

B.

Modify the access list to include snmptrap.

C.

Modify the CoPP policy to increase the configured CIR limit for SNMP.

D.

Modify the access list to add a second line to allow udp any any eq snmp

Question 171

Refer to the exhibit.

The administrator successfully logs into R1 but cannot access privileged mode commands. What should be configured to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

aaa authorization reverse-access

B.

secret cisco123! at the end of the username command instead of password cisco123!

C.

matching password on vty lines as cisco123!

D.

enable secret or enable password commands to enter into privileged mode

Question 172

Refer to the exhibits.

When DMVPN is configured, which configuration allows spoke-to-spoke communication using loopback as a tunnel source?

Options:

A.

Configure crypto isakmp key cisco address 0.0.0.0 on the hub.

B.

Configure crypto isakmp key Cisco address 200.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 on the hub.

C.

Configure crypto isakmp key cisco address 200.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 on the spokes.

D.

Configure crypto isakmp key cisco address 0.0.0.0 on the spokes.

Question 173

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured an IPv6 access list to allow TCP return traffic only, but it is not working as expected. Which changes resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

ipv6 access-list inboundpermit tcp any any syndeny ipv6 any any log!interface gi0/0ipv6 traffic-filter inbound out

B.

ipv6 access-list inboundpermit tcp any any syndeny ipv6 any any log!interface gi0/0ipv6 traffic-filter inbound in

C.

ipv6 access-list inboundpermit tcp any any establisheddeny ipv6 any any log!interface gi0/0ipv6 traffic-filter inbound in

D.

ipv6 access-list inboundpermit tcp any any establisheddeny ipv6 any any log!interface gi0/0ipv6 traffic-filter inbound out

Question 174

Refer to Exhibit.

A network administrator added one router in the Cisco DNA Center and checked its discovery and health from the Network Health Dashboard. The network administrator observed that the router is still showing up as unmonitored. What must be configured on the router to mount it in the Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

Configure router with NetFlow data

B.

Configure router with the telemetry data

C.

Configure router with routing to reach Cisco DNA Center

D.

Configure router with SNMPv2c or SNMPv3 traps

Question 175

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer identifier a Layer 2 loop using DNAC. Which command fixes the problem in the SF-D9300-1 switch?

Options:

A.

no spanning-tree uplinkfast

B.

spanning-tree loopguard default

C.

spanning-tree backbonesfast

D.

spanning-tree portfast bpduguard

Question 176

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator must mutually redistribute routes at the Chicago router to the LA and NewYork routers. The configuration of the Chicago router is this:

After the configuration, the LA router receives all the NewYork routes, but NewYork router does not receive any LA routes. Which set of configurations fixes the problem on the Chicago router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 177

Refer to the exhibit.

SanFrancisco and Boston routers are choosing slower links to reach each other despite the direct links being up Which configuration fixes the issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 178

Which Ipv6 first-hop security feature helps to minimize denial of service attacks?

Options:

A.

IPv6 Router Advertisement Guard

B.

IPv6 Destination Guard

C.

DHCPv6 Guard

D.

IPv6 MAC address filtering

Question 179

How does an MPLS Layer 3 VPN function?

Options:

A.

set of sites use multiprotocol BGP at the customer site for aggregation

B.

multiple customer sites interconnect through service provider network to create secure tunnels between customer edge devices

C.

set of sites interconnect privately over the Internet for security

D.

multiple customer sites interconnect through a service provider network using customer edge to provider edge connectivity

Question 180

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator reviews the branch router console log to troubleshoot the OSPF adjacency issue with the DR router. Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Advertise the branch WAN interface matching subnet for the DR site.

B.

Configure matching hello and dead intervals between sites.

C.

Configure the WAN interface for DR site in the related OSPF area.

D.

Stabilize the DR site flapping link to establish OSPF adjacency.

Question 181

An engineer configured Reverse Path Forwarding on an interface and noticed that the routes are dropped when a route lookup fails on that interface for a prefix that is available in the routing table Which interface configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via rx

B.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via any

C.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via allow-default

D.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via 12-src

Question 182

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is discovering a Cisco Catalyst 9300 and a Cisco WLC 3504 in Cisco DNA Center. The Catalyst 9300 is added successfully However the WLC is showing [ error "uncontactable" when the administrator tries to add it in Cisco DNA Center. Which action discovers WLC in Cisco DNA Center successfully?

Options:

A.

Copy the .cert file from the Cisco DNA Center on the USB and upload it to the WLC 3504.

B.

Delete the WLC 3504 from Cisco DNA Center and add it to Cisco DNA Center again.

C.

Add the WLC 3504 under the hierarchy of the Catalyst 9300 connected devices.

D.

Copy the .pern file from the Cisco DNA Center on the USB and upload it to the WLC 3504.

Question 183

Refer to the exhibit. The OSPF neighbor relationship is not coming up What must be configured to restore OSPF neighbor adjacency?

Options:

A.

OSPF on the remote router

B.

matching hello timers

C.

use router ID

D.

matching MTU values

Question 184

Refer to the exhibit.

PC-2 failed to establish a Telnet connection to the terminal server. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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