Summer Special Flat 65% Limited Time Discount offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: netdisc

Cisco 300-410 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI) Exam Practice Test

Page: 1 / 60
Total 603 questions

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI) Questions and Answers

Testing Engine

  • Product Type: Testing Engine
$49  $139.99

PDF Study Guide

  • Product Type: PDF Study Guide
$42  $119.99
Question 1

Drag and drop the DHCP messages from the left onto the correct uses on the right.

Options:

Question 2

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator configured VRF lite for customer A. The technician at the remote site misconfigured VRF on the router. Which configuration will resolve connectivity for both sites of customer_a?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 3

Refer to the exhibit.

Users in the branch network of 2001:db8:0:4::/64 report that they cannot access the Internet. Which command is issued in IPv6 router EIGRP 100 configuration mode to solve this issue?

Options:

A.

Issue the eigrp stub command on R1

B.

Issue the no neighbor stub command on R2.

C.

Issue the eigrp command on R2.

D.

Issue the no eigrp stub command on R1.

Question 4

Which security feature can protect DMVPN tunnels?

Options:

A.

IPsec

B.

TACACS+

C.

RTBH

D.

RADIUS

Question 5

Which command is used to check IP SLA when an interface is suspected to receive lots of traffic with options?

Options:

A.

show track

B.

show threshold

C.

show timer

D.

show delay

Question 6

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP SLA is configured to use the backup default route when the primary is down, but it is not working as desired. Which command fixes the issue?

Options:

A.

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.2.2.2.2 10 track 1

B.

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.2.2.2.2

C.

R1(config)#ip sla track 1

D.

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.1.1.1.1 track 1

Question 7

What is the output of the following command:

show ip vrf

Options:

A.

Show's default RD values

B.

Displays IP routing table information associated with a VRF

C.

Show's routing protocol information associated with a VRF.

D.

Displays the ARP table (static and dynamic entries) in the specified VRF

Question 8

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration configures a policy on R1 to forward any traffic that is sourced from

the 192.168.130.0/24 network to R2?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 9

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about R1 is true?

Options:

A.

OSPF redistributes RIP routes only if they have a tag of one.

B.

RIP learned routes are distributed to OSPF with a tag value of one.

C.

R1 adds one to the metric for RIP learned routes before redistributing to OSPF.

D.

RIP routes are redistributed to OSPF without any changes.

Question 10

Which protocol does VRF-Lite support?

Options:

A.

IS-IS

B.

ODR

C.

EIGRP

D.

IGRP

Question 11

Drag and drop the MPLS VPN concepts from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 12

Which protocol does MPLS use to support traffic engineering?

Options:

A.

Tag Distribution Protocol (TDP)

B.

Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP)

C.

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

D.

Label Distribution Protocol (LDP)

Question 13

Refer to the exhibit.

During troubleshooting it was discovered that the device is not reachable using a secure

web browser. What is needed to fix the problem?

Options:

A.

permit tcp port 443

B.

permit udp port 465

C.

permit tcp port 465

D.

permit tcp port 22

Question 14

Which command displays the IP routing table information that is associated with VRF-Lite?

Options:

A.

show ip vrf

B.

show ip route vrf

C.

show run vrf

D.

show ip protocols vrf

Question 15

Refer to the exhibit.

Which subnet is redistributed from EIGRP to OSPF routing protocols?

Options:

A.

10.2.2.0/24

B.

10.1.4.0/26

C.

10.1.2.0/24

D.

10.2.3.0/26

Question 16

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator that is connected to the console does not see debug messages when

remote users log in. Which action ensures that debug messages are displayed for remote logins?

Options:

A.

Enter the transport input ssh configuration command.

B.

Enter the terminal monitor exec command.

C.

Enter the logging console debugging configuration command.

D.

Enter the aaa new-model configuration command.

Question 17

Refer to the exhibit.

Why is user authentication being rejected?

Options:

A.

The TACACS+ server expects “user”, but the NT client sends “domain/user”.

B.

The TACACS+ server refuses the user because the user is set up for CHAP.

C.

The TACACS+ server is down, and the user is in the local database.

D.

The TACACS+ server is down, and the user is not in the local database.

Question 18

Which is statement about IPv6 inspection is true?

Options:

A.

It teams and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables

B.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables

C.

It teams and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables

D.

It team and secures binding for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.

Question 19

Refer to the exhibit.

The ACL is placed on the inbound Gigabit 0/1 interface of the router. Host

192.168.10.10cannot SSH to host 192.168.100.10 even though the flow is permitted. Which action

resolves the issue without opening full access to this router?

Options:

A.

Move the SSH entry to the beginning of the ACL

B.

Temporarily move the permit ip any any line to the beginning of the ACL to see if the flow works

C.

Temporarily remove the ACL from the interface to see if the flow works

D.

Run the show access-list FILTER command to view if the SSH entry has any hit statistic associated with it

Question 20

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has configured DMVPN on a spoke router. What is the WAN IP address of another spoke router within the DMVPN network?

Options:

A.

172.18.46.2

B.

192.168.1.4

C.

172.18.16.2

D.

192.168.1.1

Question 21

Which method changes the forwarding decision that a router makes without first changing the routing table or influencing the IP data plane?

Options:

A.

nonbroadcast multiaccess

B.

packet switching

C.

policy-based routing

D.

forwarding information base

Question 22

Refer to the exhibit.

R2 is a route reflector, and R1 and R3 are route reflector clients. The route reflector learns the route to 172.16.25.0/24 from R1, but it does not advertise to R3. What is the reason the route is not advertised?

Options:

A.

R2 does not have a route to the next hop, so R2 does not advertise the prefix to other clients.

B.

Route reflector setup requires full IBGP mesh between the routers.

C.

In route reflector setup, only classful prefixes are advertised to other clients.

D.

In route reflector setups, prefixes are not advertised from one client to another.

Question 23

Refer to the exhibit.

Which interface configuration must be configured on the spoke A router to enable a dynamic DMVPN tunnel with the spoke B router?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 24

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration denies Telnet traffic to router 2 from 198A:0:200C::1/64?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 25

Which statement about IPv6 RA Guard is true?

Options:

A.

It does not offer protection in environments where IPv6 traffic is tunneled.

B.

It cannot be configured on a switch port interface in the ingress direction.

C.

Packets that are dropped by IPv6 RA Guard cannot be spanned.

D.

It is not supported in hardware when TCAM is programmed.

Question 26

Which statement about route distinguishers in an MPLS network is true?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishers allow multiple instances of a routing table to coexist within the edge router.

B.

Route distinguishers are used for label bindings.

C.

Route distinguishers make a unique VPNv4 address across the MPLS network.

D.

Route distinguishers define which prefixes are imported and exported on the edge router.

Question 27

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures a static route on a router, but when the engineer checks the route

to the destination, a different next hop is chosen. What is the reason for this?

Options:

A.

Dynamic routing protocols always have priority over static routes.

B.

The metric of the OSPF route is lower than the metric of the static route.

C.

The configured AD for the static route is higher than the AD of OSPF.

D.

The syntax of the static route is not valid, so the route is not considered.

Question 28

Refer to the exhibit.

After redistribution is enabled between the routing protocols; PC2, PC3, and PC4 cannot reach PC1. Which action can the engineer take to solve the issue so that all the PCs are reachable?

Options:

A.

Set the administrative distance 100 under the RIP process on R2.

B.

Filter the prefix 10.1.1.0/24 when redistributed from OSPF to EIGRP.

C.

Filter the prefix 10.1.1.0/24 when redistributed from RIP to EIGRP.

D.

Redistribute the directly connected interfaces on R2.

Question 29

Which label operations are performed by a label edge router?

Options:

A.

SWAP and POP

B.

SWAP and PUSH

C.

PUSH and PHP

D.

PUSH and POP

Question 30

When provisioning a device in Cisco DNA Center, the engineer sees the error message “Cannot select the device. Not compatible with template”.

What is the reason for the error?

Options:

A.

The template has an incorrect configuration.

B.

The software version of the template is different from the software version of the device.

C.

The changes to the template were not committed.

D.

The tag that was used to filter the templates does not match the device tag.

Question 31

Which protocol is used in a DMVPN network to map physical IP addresses to logical IP addresses?

Options:

A.

BGP

B.

LLDP

C.

EIGRP

D.

NHRP

Question 32

Drag and drop the OSPF adjacency states from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 33

Refer to the exhibit.

After applying IPsec, the engineer observed that the DMVPN tunnel went down, and both

spoke-to-spoke and hub were not establishing. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address 192.1.1.1 on R2 and R3

B.

Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address 0.0.0.0 on R2 and R3.

C.

Change the mode from mode tunnel to mode transport on R3

D.

Change the mode from mode transport to mode tunnel on R2.

E.

Remove the crypto isakmp key cisco address 10.1.1.1 on R2 and R3

Question 34

Drag and drop the operations from the left onto the locations where the operations are performed on the right.

Options:

Question 35

Drag and drop the addresses from the left onto the correct IPv6 filter purposes on the right.

Options:

Question 36

What is a role of route distinguishers in an MPLS network?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishers define which prefixes are imported and exported on the edge router

B.

Route distinguishers allow multiple instances of a routing table to coexist within the edge router.

C.

Route distinguishers are used for label bindings.

D.

Route distinguishers make a unique VPNv4 address across the MPLS network

Question 37

While working with software images, an engineer observes that Cisco DNA Center cannot upload its software image directly from the device. Why is the image not uploading?

Options:

A.

The device must be resynced to Cisco DNA Center.

B.

The software image for the device is in install mode.

C.

The device has lost connectivity to Cisco DNA Center.

D.

The software image for the device is in bundle mode

Question 38

What is a limitation of IPv6 RA Guard?

Options:

A.

It is not supported in hardware when TCAM is programmed

B.

It does not offer protection in environments where IPv6 traffic is tunneled.

C.

It cannot be configured on a switch port interface in the ingress direction

D.

Packets that are dropped by IPv6 RA Guard cannot be spanned

Question 39

Refer the exhibit.

Which action resolves intermittent connectivity observed with the SNMP trap

packets?

Options:

A.

Decrease the committed burst Size of the mgmt class map

B.

Increase the CIR of the mgmt class map

C.

Add a new class map to match TCP traffic

D.

Add one new entry in the ACL 120 to permit the UDP port 161

Question 40

Which component of MPLS VPNs is used to extend the IP address so that an engineer is able to

identify to which VPN it belongs?

Options:

A.

VPNv4 address family

B.

RD

C.

RT

D.

LDP

Question 41

Which transport layer protocol is used to form LDP sessions?

Options:

A.

UDP

B.

SCTP

C.

TCP

D.

RDP

Question 42

Which two methods use IPsec to provide secure connectivity from the branch office to the headquarters office? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

DMVPN

B.

MPLS VPN

C.

Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI)

D.

SSL VPN

E.

PPPoE

Question 43

Drag and drop the MPLS VPN device types from me left onto the definitions on the right.

Options:

Question 44

An engineer configured a leak-map command to summarize EIGRP routes and advertise specifically loopback 0 with an IP of 10.1.1.1.255.255.255.252 along with the summary route. After finishing configuration, the customer complained not receiving summary route with specific loopback address. Which two configurations will fix it? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0.0.0.0.3.

B.

Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.1.0.0.0.252.

C.

Configure access-list 1 and match under route-map Leak-Route.

D.

Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 10 and match access-list 1.

E.

Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 20.

Question 45

Which configuration adds an IPv4 interface to an OSPFv3 process in OSPFv3 address family configuration?

Options:

A.

Router ospf3 1 address-family ipv4

B.

Router(config-router)#ospfv3 1 ipv4 area 0

C.

Router(config-if)#ospfv3 1 ipv4 area 0

D.

Router ospfv3 1 address-family ipv4 unicast

Question 46

Which SNMP verification command shows the encryption and authentication protocols that are used in

SNMPV3?

Options:

A.

show snmp group

B.

show snmp user

C.

show snmp

D.

show snmp view

Question 47

Which statement about MPLS LDP router ID is true?

Options:

A.

If not configured, the operational physical interface is chosen as the router ID even if a loopback is configured.

B.

The loopback with the highest IP address is selected as the router ID.

C.

The MPLS LDP router ID must match the IGP router ID.

D.

The force keyword changes the router ID to the specified address without causing any impact.

Question 48

Which statement about IPv6 ND inspection is true?

Options:

A.

It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.

B.

It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.

C.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.

D.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.

Question 49

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of applying this configuration?

Options:

A.

The router can form BGP neighborships with any other device.

B.

The router cannot form BGP neighborships with any other device.

C.

The router cannot form BGP neighborships with any device that is matched by the access list named “BGP”.

D.

The router can form BGP neighborships with any device that is matched by the access list named “BGP”.

Question 50

Which list defines the contents of an MPLS label?

Options:

A.

20-bit label; 3-bit traffic class; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit TTL

B.

32-bit label; 3-bit traffic class; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit TTL

C.

20-bit label; 3-bit flow label; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit hop limit

D.

32-bit label; 3-bit flow label; 1-bit bottom stack; 8-bit hop limit

Question 51

Refer to the exhibit. an engineer is trying to get 192.168.32.100 forwarded through 10.1.1.1, but it was forwarded through 10.1.1.2. What action forwards the packets through 10.1.1.1?

Options:

A.

Configure EIGRP to receive 192.168.32.0 route with lower admin distance.

B.

A. Configure EIGRP to receive 192.168.32.0 route with longer prefix than /19.

C.

A. Configure EIGRP to receive 192.168.32.0 route with lower metric.

D.

A. Configure EIGRP to receive 192.168.32.0 route with equal or longer prefix than /24.

Question 52

After some changes in the routing policy, it is noticed that the router in AS 45123 is being used as a transit AS router for several service provides. Which configuration ensures that the branch router in AS 45123 advertises only the local networks to all SP neighbors?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 53

Refer to the exhibit.

Users report that IP addresses cannot be acquired from the DHCP server. The DHCP

server is configured as shown. About 300 total nonconcurrent users are using this DHCP server, but none of them are active for more than two hours per day. Which action fixes the issue within the current resources?

Options:

A.

Modify the subnet mask to the network 192.168.1.0 255.255.254.0 command in the DHCP pool

B.

Configure the DHCP lease time to a smaller value

C.

Configure the DHCP lease time to a bigger value

D.

Add the network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 command to the DHCP pool

Question 54

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is trying to block the route to 192.168.2.2 from the routing table by using the

configuration that is shown. The route is still present in the routing table as an OSPF route. Which action blocks the route?

Options:

A.

Use an extended access list instead of a standard access list.

B.

Change sequence 10 in the route-map command from permit to deny.

C.

Use a prefix list instead of an access list in the route map.

D.

Add this statement to the route map: route-map RM-OSPF-DL deny 20.

Question 55

An engineer is trying to copy an IOS file from one router to another router by using TFTP. Which two actions are needed to allow the file to copy? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Copy the file to the destination router with the copy tftp: flash: command

B.

Enable the TFTP server on the source router with the tftp-server flash: command

C.

TFTP is not supported in recent IOS versions, so an alternative method must be used

D.

Configure a user on the source router with the username tftp password tftp command

E.

Configure the TFTP authentication on the source router with the tftp-server authentication local command

Question 56

Refer to the exhibit.

Why is the remote NetFlow server failing to receive the NetFlow data?

Options:

A.

The flow exporter is configured but is not used.

B.

The flow monitor is applied in the wrong direction.

C.

The flow monitor is applied to the wrong interface.

D.

The destination of the flow exporter is not reachable.

Question 57

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer for AS64512 must remove the inbound and outbound traffic from link A during maintenance without closing the BGP session so that there ............ a backup link over link A toward the ASN. Which BGP configuration on R1 accomplishes this goal?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 58

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is trying to configure local authentication on the console line, but the device is trying to authenticate using TACACS+. Which action produces the desired configuration?

Options:

A.

Add the aaa authentication login default none command to the global configuration.

B.

Replace the capital “C” with a lowercase “c” in the aaa authentication login Console local command.

C.

Add the aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ local-case command to the globalconfiguration.

D.

Add the login authentication Console command to the line configuration

Question 59

What is a prerequisite for configuring BFD?

Options:

A.

Jumbo frame support must be configured on the router that is using BFD.

B.

All routers in the path between two BFD endpoints must have BFD enabled.

C.

Cisco Express Forwarding must be enabled on all participating BFD endpoints.

D.

To use BFD with BGP, the timers 3 9 command must first be configured in the BGP routing process.

Question 60

Refer to Exhibit.

Which statement about redistribution from BGP into OSPF process 10 is true?

Options:

A.

Network 172.16.1.0/24 is not redistributed into OSPF.

B.

Network 10.10 10.0/24 is not redistributed into OSPF

C.

Network 172.16.1.0/24 is redistributed with administrative distance of 1.

D.

Network 10.10.10.0/24 is redistributed with administrative distance of 20.

Question 61

Refer to the exhibit. The remote server is failing to receive the NetFlow data Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Modify the flow transport command transport udp 2055 to move under flow monitor profile.

B.

Modify the interlace command to Ip flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 Input.

C.

Modify the udp port under flow exporter profile to Ip transport udp 4739.

D.

Modify the flow record command record v4_r1 to move under flow exporter profile.

Question 62

Refer to the exhibit.

To provide reachability to network 10.1.1.0 /24 from R5, the network administrator redistributes EIGRP into OSPF on R3 but notices that R4 is now taking a ........... path through R5 to reach 10.1.1.0/24 network. Which action fixes the issue while keeping the reachability from R5 to 10.1.1.0/24 network?

Options:

A.

Change the administrative distance of the external EIGRP to 90.

B.

Apply the outbound distribution list on R5 toward R4 in OSPF.

C.

Change the administrative distance of OSPF to 200 on R5.

D.

Redistribute OSPF into EIGRP on R4

Question 63

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured NTP on a Cisco router to get synchronized time for system and logs from a unified time source The configuration did not work as desired Which service must be enabled to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Enter the service timestamps log datetime localtime global command.

B.

Enter the service timestamps log datetime synchronize global command.

C.

Enter the service timestamps log datetime console global command.

D.

Enter the service timestamps log datetime clock-period global command

Question 64

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator must mutually redistribute routes at the Chicago router to the LA and NewYork routers. The configuration of the Chicago router is this:

After the configuration, the LA router receives all the NewYork routes, but NewYork router does not receive any LA routes. Which set of configurations fixes the problem on the Chicago router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 65

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer wanted to set a tag of 30 to route 10 1.80.65/32 but it failed How is the issue fixed?

Options:

A.

Modify route-map ospf-to-eigrp permit 30 and match prefix-list ccnp2.

B.

Modify route-map ospf-to-eigrp permit 10 and match prefix-list ccnp2.

C.

Modify prefix-list ccnp3 to add 10.1.64.0/20 le 24

D.

Modify prefix-list ccnp3 to add 10.1.64.0/20 ge 32

Question 66

Refer to the exhibit. Which action restores the routes from neighbors while still filtering 1.1.1.0/24?

Options:

A.

Add a second line in the access list to permit any.

B.

Modify the route map to permit the access list instead of deny it

C.

Modify the access list to deny instead of permit it.

D.

Add a second sequence in the route map permit 20

Question 67

An engineer configured two routers connected to two different service providers using BGP with default attributes. One of the links is presenting high delay, which causes slowness in the network. Which BGP attribute must the engineer configure to avoid using the high-delay ISP link if the second ISP link is up?

Options:

A.

LOCAL_PREF

B.

MED

C.

WEIGHT

D.

AS-PATH

Question 68

Refer to Exhibit.

A network administrator added one router in the Cisco DNA Center and checked its discovery and health from the Network Health Dashboard. The network administrator observed that the router is still showing up as unmonitored. What must be configured on the router to mount it in the Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

Configure router with NetFlow data

B.

Configure router with the telemetry data

C.

Configure router with routing to reach Cisco DNA Center

D.

Configure router with SNMPv2c or SNMPv3 traps

Question 69

What is the minimum time gap required by the local system before putting a BFD control packet on the wire?

Options:

A.

Detect Mult

B.

Required Min Echo RX Interval

C.

Desired Min TX Interval

D.

Required Min RX Interval

Question 70

Refer to the exhibit.

A client is concerned that passwords are visible when running this show archive log config all.

Which router configuration is needed to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

MASS-RTR(config-archive-log-cfg)#password encryption aes

B.

MASS-RTR(config)#aaa authentication arap

C.

MASS-RTR(config)#service password-encryption

D.

MASS-RTR(config-archive-log-cfg)#hidekeys

Question 71

Clients on ALS2 receive IPv4 and IPv6 addresses but clients on ALS1 receive only IPv4 addresses and not IPv6 addresses. Which action on DSW1 allows clients on ALS1 to receive IPv6 addresses?

Options:

A.

Configure DSW1(config-if)#ipv6 helper address 2002:404:404::404:404

B.

Configure DSW1(dhcp-config)#default-router 2002:A04:A01::A04:A01

C.

Configure DSW1(config)#ipv6 route 2002:404:404:404:404/128 FastEthernet1/0

D.

Configure DSW1(config-if)#ipv6 dhcp relay destination 2002:404:404::404:404 GigabitEthernet1/2

E.

Option A

F.

Option B

G.

Option C

Question 72

Refer to the exhibit.

A user has set up an IP SLA probe to test if a non-SLA host web server on IP address 10.1.1.1 accepts HTTP sessions prior to deployment. The probe is failing. Which action should the network administrator recommend for the probe to succeed?

Options:

A.

Re-issue the ip sla schedule command.

B.

Add icmp-echo command for the host.

C.

Add the control disable option to the tcp connect.

D.

Modify the ip sla schedule frequency to forever.

Question 73

Refer to the exhibit.

A user cannot SSH to the router. What action must be taken to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure transport input ssh

B.

Configure transport output ssh

C.

Configure ip ssh version 2

D.

Configure ip ssh source-interface loopback0

Question 74

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two actions restrict access to router R1 by SSH? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure transport input ssh on line vty and remove sequence 30 from access list 100.

B.

Configure transport output ssh on line vty and remove sequence 20 from access list 100.

C.

Remove class-map ANY from service-policy CoPP

D.

Configure transport output ssh on line vty and remove sequence 10 from access list 199.

E.

Remove sequence 10 from access list 100 and add sequence 20 deny tcp any any eq telnet to access list 199

Question 75

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the Customer Edge router (AS 64511) to send only summarized routes toward ISP-1 (AS 100) and ISP-2 (AS 200).

router bgp 64511

network 172.16.20.0 mask 255.255.255.0

network 172.16.21.0 mask 255.255.255.0

network 172.16.22.0 mask 255.255.255.0

network 172.16.23.0 mask 255.255.255.0

aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255.255.252.0

After this configuration. ISP-1 and ISP-2 continue to receive the specific routes and the summary route. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

router bgp 64511aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only

B.

router bgp 64511neighbor 192.168.100.1 summary-onlyneighbor 192.168.200.2 summary-only

C.

interface E 0/0ip bgp suppress-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC!interface E 0/1ip bgp suppress-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC!ip prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 172.16.20.0/22 ge 24!route-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 10match ip address prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC

D.

ip prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC deny 172.16.20.0/22 ge 22ip prefix-list PL BLOCK SPECIFIC permit 172.16.20.0/22!route-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 10match ip address prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC!router bgp 64511aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255 255.252.0 suppress-map BLOCKSPECIFIC

Question 76

Which configuration feature should be used to block rogue router advertisements instead of using the IPv6 Router Advertisement Guard feature?

Options:

A.

VACL blocking broadcast frames from nonauthorized hosts

B.

PVLANs with promiscuous ports associated to route advertisements and isolated ports for nodes

C.

PVLANs with community ports associated to route advertisements and isolated ports for nodes

D.

IPv4 ACL blocking route advertisements from nonauthorized hosts

Question 77

Refer to the exhibit.

Which interface configuration must be configured on the HUB router to enable MVPN with mGRE mode?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 78

Exhibit:

NTP is configured across the network infrastructure and Cisco DNA Center. An NTP issue was reported on the Cisco DNA Center at 17:15. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Check and resolve reachability between the WLC and the NTP server

B.

Reset the NTP server to resolve any synchronization issues for all devices

C.

Check and resolve reachability between Cisco DNA Center and the NTP server

D.

Check and configure NTP on the WLC and synchronize with Cisco DNA Center

Question 79

How are MPLS Layer 3 VPN services deployed?

Options:

A.

The RD and RT values must match under the VRR

B.

The RD and RT values under a VRF must match on the remote PE router

C.

The import and export RT values under a VRF must always be the same.

D.

The label switch path must be available between the local and remote PE routers.

Question 80

What are two functions of MPLS Layer 3 VPNs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

LDP and BGP can be used for Pseudowire signaling.

B.

It is used for transparent point-to-multipoint connectivity between Ethernet links/sites.

C.

BGP is used for signaling customer VPNv4 routes between PE nodes.

D.

A packet with node segment ID is forwarded along with shortest path to destination.

E.

Customer traffic is encapsulated in a VPN label when it is forwarded in MPLS network.

Question 81

Refer to the exhibit.

When monitoring an IPv6 access list, an engineer notices that the ACL does not have any hits and is causing unnecessary traffic to pass through the interface Which command must be configured to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

access-class INTERNET in

B.

ipv6 traffic-filter INTERNET in

C.

ipv6 access-class INTERNET in

D.

ip access-group INTERNET in

Question 82

A network administrator is tasked to permit http and https traffic only toward the internet from the User1 laptop to adhere to company’s security policy. The administrator can still ping to Which interface should the access list 101 be applied to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Interface G0/48 in the incoming direction

B.

Interface G0/0 in the outgoing direction.

C.

Interface S1/0 in the outgoing direction.

D.

Interface G0/0 in the incoming direction.

Question 83

Refer to the exhibit.

SanFrancisco and Boston routers are choosing slower links to reach each other despite the direct links being up Which configuration fixes the issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 84

What are two characteristics of VRF instance? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

All VRFs share customers routing and CEF tables .

B.

An interface must be associated to one VRF.

C.

Each VRF has a different set of routing and CEF tables

D.

It is defined by the VPN membership of a customer site attached to a P device.

E.

A customer site can be associated to different VRFs

Question 85

An engineer configured a Cisco router to send reliable and encrypted notifications for any events to the management server. It was noticed that the notification messages are reliable but not encrypted. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure all devices for SNMPv3 informs with priv.

B.

Configure all devices for SNMPv3 informs with auth.

C.

Configure all devices for SNMPv3 traps with auth.

D.

Configure all devices for SNMPv3 traps with priv.

Question 86

Refer to Exhibit:

AS 111 wanted to use AS 200 as the preferred path for 172.20.5.0/24 and AS 100 as the backup. After the configuration, AS 100 is not used for any other routes. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

route-mmap SETLP permit 10match ip address prefix-list PLIST1set local-preference 99route-map SETLP permit 20

B.

route-map SETLP permit 10match ip address prefix-list PLIST1set local-preference 110route-map SETLP permit 20

C.

router bgp 111no neighbor 192.168.10.1 route-map SETLP inneighbor 192.168.10.1 route-map SETLP out

D.

router bap 111no neighbor 192.168.10.1 route-map SETLP inneighbor 192.168.20.2 route-map SE TLP in

Question 87

Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP client is unable to receive an IP address from the DHCP server RouterB is configured as follows:

Interface fastethernet 0/0

description Client DHCP ID 394482431

Ip address 172 31 11 255 255.255 0

!

ip route 172.16.1.0 255 255 255.0 10.1.1.2

Which command is required on the fastethernet 0/0 interface of RouterB to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

RouterB(config-if)#lp helper-address 172.31.1.1

B.

RouterBiconfig-ififclp helper-address 255.255 255 255

C.

RouterB(config-if)#lp helper-address 172.16.1.1

D.

RouterB(config-if)#lp helper-address 172.16.1.2

Question 88

Exhibit:

Bangkok is using ECMP to reach to the 192.168.5.0/24 network. The administrator must configure Bangkok in such a way that Telnet traffic from 192.168.3.0/24 and192.168.4.0/24 networks uses the HongKong router as the preferred router. Which set of configurations accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255!route-map PBR1 permit 10match ip address 101set ip next-hop 172.18.1.2interface Ethernet0/3ip policy route-map PBR1

B.

access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23!route-map PBR1 permit 10match ip address 101set ip next-hop 172.18.1.2interface Ethernet0/1ip policy route-map PBR1

C.

access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23!route-map PBR1 permit 10match ip address 101set ip next-hop 172.18.1.2!interface Ethernet0/3ip policy route-map PBR1

D.

access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255!route-map PBR1 permit 10match ip address 101set ip next-hop 172.18.1.2!interface Ethernet0/1ip policy route-map PBR1

Question 89

Drag and drop the MPLS concepts from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 90

Refer to Exhibit.

Which two configurations allow clients to get dynamic ip addresses assigned?

Options:

A.

Configure access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 61 as the first line

B.

Configure access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 86 as the first line

C.

Configure access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 68 as the first line

D.

Configure access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 69 as the first line

E.

Configure access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 67 as the first line

Question 91

Refer to the exhibit.

The administrator successfully logs into R1 but cannot access privileged mode commands. What should be configured to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

aaa authorization reverse-access

B.

secret cisco123! at the end of the username command instead of password cisco123!

C.

matching password on vty lines as cisco123!

D.

enable secret or enable password commands to enter into privileged mode

Question 92

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator can see the DHCP discovery packet in R1. but R2 is not replying to the DHCP request. The R1 related interface is configured with the DHCP helper address. If the PC is directly connected to the FaO/1 interface on R2, the DHCP server assigns as IP address from the DHCP pool to the PC. Which two commands resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

service dhcp-relay command on R1

B.

ip dhcp option 82 command on R2

C.

service dhcp command on R1

D.

ip dhcp relay information enable command on R1

E.

ip dhcp relay information trust-all command on R2

Question 93

Refer to the exhibit.

PC-2 failed to establish a Telnet connection to the terminal server. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 94

Which two protocols work in the control plane of P routers across the MPLS cloud? (choose two)

Options:

A.

LSP

B.

RSVP

C.

ECMP

D.

LDP

E.

MPLS OAM

Question 95

Which Ipv6 first-hop security feature helps to minimize denial of service attacks?

Options:

A.

IPv6 Router Advertisement Guard

B.

IPv6 Destination Guard

C.

DHCPv6 Guard

D.

IPv6 MAC address filtering

Question 96

Drag and drop the LDP features from the left onto the descriptions on the right

Options:

Question 97

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator redistributed the default static route into OSPF toward all internal routers to reach to Internet. Which set of commands restores reachability to the Internet by internal routers?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1default-information originate

B.

router ospf 1network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0

C.

router ospf 1redistribute connected 0.0.0.0

D.

router ospf 1redistribute static subnets

Question 98

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 cannot establish an EIGRP adjacency. Which action establishes EIGRP adjacency?

Options:

A.

Remove the current autonomous system number on one of the routers and change to a different value.

B.

Remove the passive-interface command from the R2 configuration so that it matches the R1 configuration.

C.

Add the no auto-summary command to the R2 configuration so that it matches the R1 configuration.

D.

Add the passive-interface command to the R1 configuration so that it matches the R2 configuration.

Question 99

In which two ways does the IPv6 First-Hop Security Binding Table operate? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

by IPv6 routing protocols to securely build neighborships without the need of authentication

B.

by the recovery mechanism to recover the binding table in the event of a device reboot

C.

by IPv6 HSRP to make sure neighbors are authenticated before being used as gateways

D.

by various IPv6 guard features to validate the data link layer address

E.

by storing hashed keys for IPsec tunnels for the built-in IPsec features

Question 100

What are two functions of IPv6 Source Guard? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It uses the populated binding table for allowing legitimate traffic.

B.

It works independent from IPv6 neighbor discovery.

C.

It denies traffic from unknown sources or unallocated addresses.

D.

It denies traffic by inspecting neighbor discovery packets for specific pattern.

E.

It blocks certain traffic by inspecting DHCP packets for specific sources.

Question 101

Refer to the exhibit.

Troubleshoot and ensure that branch B only ever uses the MPLS B network to reach HQ. Which action achieves this requirement?

Options:

A.

Introduce an AS path filter on branch A routers so that only local prefixes are advertised into BGP

B.

increase the local preference for all HQ prefixes received at branch B from the MPLS B network to be higher than the local preferences used on the MPLS A network

C.

Introduce AS path prepending on the branch A MPLS B network connection so that any HQ advertisements from branch A toward the MPLS B network are prepended three times

D.

Modify the weight of all HQ prefixes received at branch B from the MPLS B network to be higher than the weights used on the MPLS A network

Question 102

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer identifier a Layer 2 loop using DNAC. Which command fixes the problem in the SF-D9300-1 switch?

Options:

A.

no spanning-tree uplinkfast

B.

spanning-tree loopguard default

C.

spanning-tree backbonesfast

D.

spanning-tree portfast bpduguard

Question 103

Refer to the exhibits.

A user on the 192.168.1.0/24 network can successfully ping 192.168.3.1, but the administrator cannot ping 192.168.3.1 from the LA router. Which set of configurations fixes the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 104

An engineer configured Reverse Path Forwarding on an interface and noticed that the routes are dropped when a route lookup fails on that interface for a prefix that is available in the routing table Which interface configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via rx

B.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via any

C.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via allow-default

D.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via 12-src

Question 105

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two actions should be taken to access the server? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Modify the access list to add a second line of permit ip any

B.

Modify the access list to deny the route to 192.168.2.2.

C.

Modify distribute list seq 10 to permit the route to 192.168.2.2.

D.

Add a sequence 20 in the route map to permit access list 1.

E.

Add a floating static route to reach to 192.168.2.2 with administrative distance higher than OSPF

Question 106

Refer to the exhibits. An engineer filtered messages based on severity to minimize log messages. After applying the filter, the engineer noticed that it filtered required messages as well. Which action must the engineer take to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure syslog level 2.

B.

Configure syslog level 3.

C.

Configure syslog level 4.

D.

Configure syslog level 5.

Question 107

An engineer is troubleshooting on the console session of a router and turns on multiple debug commands. The console screen is filled with scrolling debug messages that none of the commands can be verified if entered correctly or display any output. Which action allows the engineer to see entered console commands while still continuing the analysis of the debug messages?

Options:

A.

Configure the logging synchronous command

B.

Configure the no logging console debugging command globally

C.

Configure the logging synchronous level all command

D.

Configure the term no mon command globally

Question 108

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator logs into the router using TACACS+ username and password credentials, but the administrator cannot run any privileged commands Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure TACACS+ synchronization with the Active Directory admin group

B.

Configure the username from a local database

C.

Configure full access for the username from TACACS+ server

D.

Configure an authorized IP address for this user to access this router

Question 109

Refer to the exhibit.

A company with autonomous system number AS65401 has obtained IP address block 209.165.200.224/27 fro, ARIN. The company needed more IP addresses and was assigned block209.165.202.128/27 from ISP2. An engineer is ISP1 reports they are receiving ISP2 routes from AS65401. Which configuration onR1 resolves the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 110

Drag and drop the MPLS VPN device types from the left onto the definitions on the right.

Options:

Question 111

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action resolves the failed authentication attempt to the router?

Options:

A.

Configure aaa authorization login command on line vty 0 4

B.

Configure aaa authorization login command on line console 0

C.

Configure aaa authorization console global command

D.

Configure aaa authorization console command on line vty 0 4

Question 112

Refer to exhibit.

Routing protocols are mutually redistributed on R3 and R1. Users report intermittent connectivity to services hosted on the 10.1.1.0/24 prefix. Significant routing update changes are noticed on R3 when the show ip route profile

command is run. How must the services be stabilized?

Options:

A.

The issue with using BGP must be resolved by using another protocol and redistributing it into EIGRP on R3

B.

The routing loop must be fixed by reducing the admin distance of iBGP from 200 to 100 on R3

C.

The routing loop must be fixed by reducing the admin distance of OSPF from 110 to 80 on R3

D.

The issue with using iBGP must be fixed by running eBGP between R3 and R4

Question 113

When determining if a system is capable of support, what is the minimum time spacing required for a BFD control packet to receive once a control packet is arrived?

Options:

A.

Desired Min TX Interval

B.

Detect Mult

C.

Required Min RX Interval

D.

Required Min Echo RX Interval

Question 114

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 is connected with R2 via GigabitEthernet0/0, and R2 cannot ping R1. What action will fix the issue?

Options:

A.

Fix route dampening configured on the router.

B.

Replace the SFP module because it is not supported.

C.

Fix IP Event Dampening configured on the interface.

D.

Correct the IP SLA probe that failed.

Question 115

An engineer configured access list NON-CISCO in a policy to influence routes

What are the two effects of this route map configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Packets are not evaluated by sequence 10.

B.

Packets are evaluated by sequence 10.

C.

Packets are forwarded to the default gateway.

D.

Packets are forwarded using normal route lookup.

E.

Packets are dropped by the access list.

Question 116

Refer to the exhibit.

An IPv6 network was newly deployed in the environment and the help desk reports that R3 cannot SSH to the R2s Loopback interface. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Modify line 10 of the access list to permit instead of deny.

B.

Remove line 60 from the access list.

C.

Modify line 30 of the access list to permit instead of deny.

D.

Remove line 70 from the access list.

Question 117

Drag and drop the actions from the left into the correct order on the right to configure a policy to avoid following packet forwarding based on the normal routing path.

Options:

Question 118

An engineer configured policy-based routing for a destination IP address that does not exist in the routing table. How is the packet treated through the policy for configuring the set ip default next-hop command?

Options:

A.

Packets are not forwarded to the specific next hop.

B.

Packets are forwarded based on the routing table.

C.

Packets are forwarded based on a static route.

D.

Packets are forwarded to the specific next hop.

Question 119

Which IGPs are supported by the MPLS LDP autoconfiguration feature?

Options:

A.

RIPv2 and OSPF

B.

OSPF and EIGRP

C.

OSPF and ISIS

D.

ISIS and RIPv2

Question 120

What does the PE router convert the Ipv4 prefix to within an MPLS VPN?

Options:

A.

VPN-IPv4 prefix combined with the 64-bit route distinguisher

B.

48-bit route combining the IP and PE router-id

C.

prefix that combines the ASN, PE router-id, and IP prefix

D.

eBGP path association between the PE and CE sessions

Question 121

Refer to the exhibit.

After the network administrator rebuilds the IPv6 DHCP server, clients are not getting the IPv6 address lease. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Remove FE80 A8BB CCFF FEOO 5000 assigned by the IPV6 DHCP server.

B.

Add Ipv6 dhcp sarver MY_POOL under the interface ethernet 0/0 on H1.

C.

Add Ipv6 dhcp server MY_POOL under the interface ethernet 0/0 on R1.

D.

Configure FF02::1:2 to discover al IPv6 OHCP cfcents

Question 122

Refer to the exhibit.

A junior engineer configured SNMP to network devices. Malicious users have uploaded different configurations to the network devices using SNMP and TFTP servers.

Which configuration prevents changes from unauthorized NMS and TFTP servers?

Options:

A.

access-list 20 permit 10.221.10.11access-list 20 deny any log!snmp-server group NETVIEW v3 priv read NETVIEW access 20snmp-server group NETADMIN v3 priv read NETVIEW write NETADMIN access 20snmp-server community Cisc0Us3r RO 20snmp-server community Cisc0wrus3r RW 20snmp-server tftp-server-list 20

B.

access-list 20 permit 10.221.10.11access-list 20 deny any log!snmp-server group NETVIEW v3 priv read NETVIEW access 20snmp-server group NETADMIN v3 priv read NETVIEW write NETADMIN access 20snmp-server community Cisc0wrus3r RO 20snmp-server community Cisc0Us3r RW 20snmp-server tftp-server-list 20

C.

access-list 20 permit 10.221.10.11access-list 20 deny any log

D.

access-list 20 permit 10.221.10.11

Question 123

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must upload the packages conf Me to an FTP server. However, the FTP server rejected anonymous service and required users to authenticate What are the two ways to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Use is ftp username and ip ftp password configuration commands to specify valid FTP server credentials.

B.

Use the copy flash:packages.conf scp: command instead and enter the FTP server credentials when prompted.

C.

Enter the FTP server credentials directly In the FTP URL using the ftp://username:passwordQ192.0.2.40/ syntax .

D.

Create a user on the rooter matching the username and password on the FTP server and log in before attempting the copy

E.

Use the copy flash-packages conf ftp: command instead and enter the FTP server credent-ais when prompted.

Question 124

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands provide the administrator with the information needed to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

snmp user

B.

debug snmp engine-id

C.

debug snmpv3 engine-id

D.

debug snmp packet

E.

showsnmpv3 user

Question 125

:577

Refer to the exhibit. R3 is dual-homed to two service providers for traffic redundancy. R3 prefers its outbound traffic via R2. Which set of configurations achieves this goal?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 126

Refer to the exhibit.

The R2 loopback interface is advertised with RIP and EIGRP using default values. Which configuration changes make R1 reach the R2 loopback using RIP?

Options:

A.

R1(config)# router ripR1(config-router)# distance 90

B.

R1(config)# router ripR1(config-router)# distance 100

C.

R1(config)# router eigrp 1R1(config-router)# distance eigrp 130 120

D.

R1(config)# router eigrp 1R1(config-router)# distance eigrp 120 120

Question 127

Which rouler takes an active role between two LDP neighbors when initiating LDP session negotiation and LDP TCP connection establishment?

Options:

A.

with the higher IP address

B.

with the larger number of LDP TCP neighbors

C.

with the lowest IP address

D.

with one interface in the MPLS backbone

Question 128

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is configuring a GRE tunnel to establish an EIGRP neighbor to a remote router. The

other tunnel endpoint is already configured. After applying the configuration as shown, the tunnel

started flapping. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Modify the network command to use the Tunnel0 interface netmask

B.

Advertise the Loopback0 interface from R2 across the tunnel

C.

Stop sending a route matching the tunnel destination across the tunnel

D.

Readdress the IP network on the Tunnel0 on both routers using the /31 netmask

Question 129

A CoPP policy is applied for receiving SSH traffic from the WAN interface on a Cisco ISR4321 router.

However, the SSH response from the router is abnormal and stuck during the high link utilization. The problem is identified as SSH traffic does not match in the ACL. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Rate-limit SSH traffic to ensure dedicated bandwidth.

B.

Apply CoPP on the control plane interface.

C.

Increase the IP precedence value of SSH traffic to 6.

D.

Apply CoPP on the WAN interface inbound direction.

Question 130

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured route exchange between two different companies for a migration project EIGRP routes were learned in router C but no OSPF routes were learned in router A. Which configuration allows router A to receive OSPF routes?

Options:

A.

(config-router-af)#redistribute ospf 10 1000000 10 255 1 1500

B.

(config-routeraf-topology)#redistribute ospf 10 metric 1000000 10 255 1 1500

C.

(config-router-af-topology)#redistribute connected

D.

(config-router-af-topology )£no redistribute ospf 10 match external 1 external 2 metric 1000000 10 255 1 1500

Question 131

A network administrator added a new spoke site with dynamic IP on the DMVPN network. Which configuration command passes traffic on the DMVPN tunnel from the spoke router?

Options:

A.

ip nhrp registration ignore

B.

ip nhrp registration no-registration

C.

ip nhrp registration dynamic

D.

ip nhrp registration no-unique

Question 132

Refer to the exhibit An engineer configured NetFlow but cannot receive the flows from R1 Which two configurations resolve the issue? (Choose two )

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Question 133

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 is configured with uRPF, and ping to R1 is failing from a source present in the R1 routing table via the GigatxtEthernet 0/0 interface. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Remove the access list from the interface GigabrtEthernet 0/0

B.

Modify the uRPF mode from strict to loose

C.

Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to ensure that uRPF is functioning correctly

D.

Add a floating static route to the source on R1 to the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface

Question 134

Refer to the exhibit R1 cannot establish a neighbor relationship with R2 Which action resolves the issue"?

Options:

A.

Configure the mtu Ignore command on the Interfaces of R1 and R2

B.

Configure the ip ospf network point-to-point command on the interfaces of R1 and R2

C.

Configure the ip ospf network broadcast command on the interfaces of R1 and R2

D.

Configure the neighbor 2.2.2.2 command on R1 under the OSPF process

Question 135

Refer to the exhibit A network engineer notices that R1 and R2 cannot establish an eBGP peering. The following messages appear in the log:

Which configuration must the engineer apply to R1 to restore the eBGP peering?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 136

A customer is running an mGRE DMVPN tunnel over WAN infrastructure between hub and spoke sites. The existing configuration allows NHRP to add spoke routers automatically to the multicast NHRP mappings. The customer is migrated the network from IPv4 to the IPv6 addressing scheme for those spokes’ routers that support IPv6 and can run DMVPN tunnel over the IPv6 network. Which configuration must be applied to support IPv4 and IPv6 DMVPN tunnel on spoke routers?

Options:

A.

Tunnel mode ipv6ip 6to4

B.

Tunnel mode ipv6ip isatap

C.

Tunnel mode ipv6ip auto-tunnel

D.

Tunnel mode ipv6ip 6rd

Question 137

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured summarization for the R1 loopback addresses and failed. Which action permits the successful advertisement of the R1 loopback addresses?

Options:

A.

Configure EIGRP 100 with a network statement for loopback 0 and configure and redistribute the static route for loopback 50.

B.

Configure EIGRP 100 with a network statement for loopback 0 and redistribute the connected route for loopback 50.

C.

Configure EIGRP 100 with a network statement for loopback 0 and remove the leak map for loopback 50.

D.

Configure 100.1.1.1 permit statement in the prefix list LOPPBACK50 and redistribute the connected route for loopback 50.

Question 138

In a DMVPN network, the Spoke1 user observed that the voice traffic is coming to Spoke2 users via the hub router. Which command is required on both spoke routers to communicate directly to one another?

Options:

A.

ip nhrp map dynamic

B.

ip nhrp shortcut

C.

ip nhrp nhs multicast

D.

ip nhrp redirect

Question 139

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NetFlow to capture traffic information through the router, but it iOS not working as expected. Which action captures the flow information from this router to the collector?

Options:

A.

Change the interface configuration FLOW-MONITOR-1 from input to output.

B.

Configure a flow exporter under flow FLOW-MONITOR-1.

C.

Configure more than one flow exporter destination addresses.

D.

Change the flow exporter transport protocol from UDP to TCP

Question 140

Refer to the exhibit.

The static route is not present in the routing table of an adjacent OSPF neighbor router. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the next hop of 10.20.20.1 in the prefix list DMZ-STATIC

B.

Configure the next-hop interface at the end of the static router for it to get redistributed

C.

Configure a permit 20 statement to the route map to redistribute the static route

D.

Configure the subnets keyword in the redistribution command

Question 141

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer applied a filter for LSA traffic on OSPFv3 interarea routes on the area 5 ABR to protect advertising the internal routes of area 5 to the business partner network. All other areas should receive the area 5 internal routes. After the respective route filtering configuration is applied on the ABR, area 5 routes are not visible on any of the areas. How must the filter list be applied on the ABR to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

in the “in” direction for area 5 on router R1

B.

in the “out” direction for area 5 on router R1

C.

in the “in” direction for area 20 on router R2

D.

in the “out” direction for area 20 on router R2

Question 142

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer applied filter on R1 The interface flapped between R1 and R2 and cleaning the BGP session did not restore the BGP session and failed Which action must the engineer take to restore the BGP session from R2 to R1?

Options:

A.

Apply the IPv6 traffic filter in the outbound direction on the interface

B.

ICMPv6 must be permitted by the IPv6 traffic filter

C.

Enable the BGP session, which went down when the session was cleared.

D.

Swap the source and destination IP addresses in the IPv6 traffic filter

Question 143

Exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit. A network is configured for EIGRP equal-cost load balancing, but the traffic destined to the servers is not load balanced. Link metrics from router R2 to R3 and R4 are the same. Which delay value must be configured to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

208 oon R3 E0/0

B.

120 on R4 E0/1

C.

120/on R3 E0/1

D.

2200 on R4 E0/1

Question 144

Refer to the exhibit.

The connected routers do not show up as OSPF neighbors. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Change the R1 dead timer to 20.

B.

Change the R2 dead timer to 20.

C.

Change the R2 hello timer to 20.

D.

Change the R1 hello timer to 20.

Question 145

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer Is troubleshooting a routing loop on the network to reach the 172.16.3.0/16 from the OSPF domain. Which configuration on router R1 resolves the Issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 146

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is investigating an OSPF issue reported by the Cisco DNA Assurance Center. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

One of the neighbor links is down Bring the interface up by running shut and no shut

B.

One of the interfaces is using the wrong MTU Match interface MTU on both links

C.

An ACL entry blocking multicast on the interfaces Allow multicast through the interface ACL

D.

One of the interfaces is using the wrong authentication Match interface authentication on both links

Question 147

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured SNMP traps to record spoofed packets drop of more than 48000 a minute on the ethernet0/0 interlace. During an IP spoofing attack, the engineer noticed that no notifications have been received by the SNMP server. Which configuration resolves the issue on R1?

Options:

A.

ip verity unicast notification threshold 48000

B.

ip verify unicast notification threshold 8000

C.

ip verify unicast notification threshold 800

D.

ip verify unicast notification threshold 80

Question 148

Refer to the exhibit. After recovering from a power failure. Ethernet0/1 stayed down while Ethernet0/0 returned to the up/up state The default route through ISP1 was not reinstated m the routing table until Ethernet0/1 also came up Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Reference the track object 1 in both static default routes

B.

Remove the references to the interface names from both static default routes

C.

Configure the default route through ISP1 with a higher administrative distance than 2.

D.

Add a static route to the 8 8.8 8/32 destination through the next hop 203.0.113.1

Question 149

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NetFlow on R1, but the NMS server cannot see the flow from R1. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

flow monitor Flowmonitor1destination 10.221.10.11

B.

flow exporter FlowAnalyzer1destination 10.221.10.11

C.

interface Ethernet0/1flow-destination 10.221.10.11

D.

interface Ethernet0/0flow-destination 10.221.10.11

Question 150

A network administrator is troubleshooting a failed AAA login issue on a Cisco Catalyst c3560 switch. When the network administrator tries to log in with SSH using TACACS+ username and password credentials, the switch is no longer authenticating and is failing back to the local account. Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure ip tacacs source-interface GigabitEthernet 1/1

B.

Configure ip tacacs source-ip 192.168.100.55

C.

Configure ip tacacs-server source-ip 192.168.100.55

D.

Configure ip tacacs-server source-interface GigabitEthernet 1/1

Question 151

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is troubleshooting IPv6 address assignment for a DHCP client that is not getting an IPv6 address from the server.

Which configuration retrieves the client IPv6 address from the DHCP server?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address autoconfig command on the interface

B.

ipv6 dhcp server automatic command on DHCP server

C.

ipv6 dhcp relay-agent command on the interface

D.

service dhcp command on DHCP server

Question 152

Which IPv6 first hop security feature controls the traffic necessary for proper discovery of neighbor device operation and performance?

Options:

A.

RA Throttling

B.

Source or Destination Guard

C.

ND Multicast Suppression

D.

IPv6 Snooping

Question 153

A DMVPN network is preconfigured with tunnel 0 IP address 192.168.1.254 on the HUB, IP connectivity, crypto policies, profiles, and EIGRP AS 100. The NHRP password is ccnp123, and the network ID and tunnel key is EIGRP ASN Do not introduce a static route. Configure DMVPN connectivity between routers BR1 and BR2 to the HUB router using physical interface as the tunnel source to achieve these goals:

Options:

Question 154

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration resolves the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 155

Network engineer must configure an ElGRP stub router at a site that advertises only connected and summary routes. Which configuration performs this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 156

Refer to the Exhibit.

R1 and R2 use IGP protocol to route traffic between AS 100 and AS 200 despite being configured to use BGP. Which action resolves the issue and ensures the use of BGP?

Options:

A.

Configure distance to 100 under the EIGRP process of R1 and R2.

B.

Remove distance commands under BGP AS 100 and AS 200.

C.

Remove distance commands under BGP AS 100.

D.

Configure distance to 100 under the OSPF process of R1 and R2

Question 157

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is attempting to disable the automatic logout after a period of inactivity. After logging out the console stopped responding to all keyword inputs. Remote access through SSH still work resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the exec command on line con 0.

B.

Configure the absolute-timeout command on line con 0.

C.

Configure the default exec-timeout command on line con 0.

D.

Configure the no exec-timeout command on line con 0.

Question 158

:586

While BGP internet routes are redistributed to a lower class of router via RIP. packets are being dropped and routes are failing to be distributed in RIP. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Use OSPF instead of RIP to accept all BGP routes.

B.

Use the input-queue command to prevent the loss of packets.

C.

Use WFQ in the output queue of the high-performance router.

D.

Use RIP V2 to be able to use classless networks from BGP

Question 159

Options:

Question 160

Refer lo lhe exhibit. The Customer Edge rouler wants to use AS 100 as the preferred ISP for all external routes and ISP-2 as a backup.

After this configuration, all the backup routes have disappeared from the BGP table on the Customer Edge router. Which set of configurations resolves the issue on the Customer Edge router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 161

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured BGP and wants to select the path from 10.77.255.57 as the best path instead

of current best path. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure AS_PATH prepend for the current best path

B.

Configure higher MED to select as the best path

C.

Configure AS_PATH prepend for the desired best path

D.

Configure lower LOCAL_PREF to select as the best path

Question 162

What is the function of BFD?

Options:

A.

It provides uniform failure detection regardless of media type.

B.

It creates high CPU utilization on hardware deployments.

C.

It negotiates to the highest version if the neighbor version differs.

D.

It provides uniform failure detection on the same media type.

Question 163

What is considered the primary advantage of running BFD?

Options:

A.

reduction in time needed to detect Layer 2 switched neighbor failures

B.

reduction in time needed to detect Layer 3 routing neighbor failures

C.

reduction in CPU needed to detect Layer 2 switch neighbor failures

D.

reduction in CPU needed to detect Layer 3 routing neighbor failures

Question 164

Which routing protocol is used by the PE router to advertise routes to a CE router without redistribution or static after removing the RD tag from the P router?

Options:

A.

IS-IS

B.

OSPF

C.

BGPIPv4

D.

MP-BGP

Question 165

A customer reports that traffic is not passing on an EIGRP enabled multipoint interface on a router configured as below:

interface Serial0/0

no ip address

interface Server0/0/0.9 multipoint

ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.248

ip split-horizon eigrp 1

Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Enable poison reverse

B.

Enable split horizon

C.

Disable poison reverse

D.

Disable split horizon

Question 166

What is LDP label binding?

Options:

A.

neighboring router with label

B.

source prefix with label

C.

destination prefix with label

D.

two routers with label distribution session

Question 167

Options:

A.

access-list 20 permit 10.221.10.12

B.

snmp-server group NETVIEW v2c priv read NETVIEW access 20

C.

snmp-server group NETADMIN v3 priv read NETVIEW write NETADMIN access 22

D.

access-list 20 permit 10.221.10.11

Question 168

Refer to the exhibit.

A prefix list is created to filter routes inbound to an EIGRP process except for network 10 prefixes After the prefix list is applied no network 10 prefixes are visible in the routing table from EIGRP. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 20 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 9.

B.

ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32

C.

ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 5 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 9 no ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 20 permit 10.0.0.0/8

D.

ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 20 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 9 ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32

Question 169

Refer to lhe exhibit. APC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically, but it receives an IP address only from the 169.254.0.0 subnet The DHCP server logs contained no DHCPDISCOVER message from the MAC address of the PC. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure an ip helper-address on the router to forward DHCP messages to the server.

B.

Configure DHCP Snooping on the switch to forward DHCP messages to the server.

C.

Configure a DHCP reservation on the server for the PC.

D.

Configure a static IP address on the PC and exclude it from the DHCP pool.

Question 170

Refer to the exhibit.

During ISP router maintenance, the network produced many alerts because of the flapping interface. Which configuration on R1 resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

no snmp trap link-status

B.

snmp trap link-status down

C.

snmp trap ip verify drop-rate

D.

ip verify drop-rate notify hold-down 60

Question 171

Refer to the exhibit.

The none area 0 routers in OSPF still receive more specific routes of 10.1.1.0.10.1.2.0.10.1.3.0 from area 0. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure route summarization on OSPF-enabled interfaces.

B.

Summarize by using the summary-address 10.1.0.0 255.255.252.0 command.

C.

Summarize by using the area range command on ABRs

D.

Configure the summary-address 10.1.0.0 255.255.252.0 command under OSPF process.

Question 172

Refer to the exhibit. A customer finds that traffic from the application server (192.168.1.1) to the HUB site passes through a congested path that causes random packet drops. The NOC team influences the BGP path with MED on RB. but RD still sees that traffic coming from RA is not taking an alternate route. Which configuration resolves the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 173

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator notices these console messages from host 10.11.110.12 originating from interface E1/0. The administrator considers this an unauthorized attempt to access SNMP on R1. Which action prevents the attempts to reach R1 E1/0?

Options:

A.

Configure IOS control plane protection using ACL 90 on interface E1/0

B.

Configure IOS management plane protection using ACL 90 on interface E1/0

C.

Create an inbound ACL on interface E1/0 to deny SNMP from host 10.11.110.12

D.

Add a permit statement including the host 10.11.110.12 into ACL 90

Question 174

Refer to me exhibit Traffic from R3 to the central site does not use alternate paths when R3 cannot reach 10 10 10 2 Traffic on R3 destined to R4 takes an alternate route via 10 10 10.6 when 10 10 10 4 is not accessible from R3 Which configuration switches traffic destined to 10 10 10 2 from R3 on the alternate path’’

Options:

A.

R3(config)#ip route 192.168.10.1 255.255.265.255 10.10.10.2 track 20

B.

R2(config)#ip route 10.10 10 3 255 255.255 255 10.0.0.6

C.

R3(config)#track( 20 ip sla 20 reachability

D.

R6(config)#ip route 10.10.10 3 255.255.255.255 10.0.0.30

Question 175

Refer to the exhibit.

A loop occurs between R1, R2, and R3 while EIGRP is run with poison reverse enabled. Which action prevents the loop between R1, R2, and R3?

Options:

A.

Configure route tagging

B.

Enable split horizon

C.

Configure R2 as stub receive-only

D.

Configure route filtering

Question 176

The summary route is not shown in the RouterB routing table after this below configuration on Router_A

.

Which Router_A configuration resolves the issue by advertising the summary route to Router B?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 177

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a per VRF for TACACS+ for company A. Which configuration on RTG-1 accomplishes the task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 178

Which table is used to map the packets in an MPLS LSP that exit from the same interface, via the same next hop, and have the same queuing policies?

Options:

A.

RIB

B.

FEC

C.

LDP

D.

CEF

Question 179

Refer to the exhibit After a misconfiguration by a junior engineer, the console access to router A is not working Which configuration allows access to router A?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 180

An engineer must establish a connection between two CE routers for two customers with overlapping IP addresses Customer_a is connected to interfaces Gig0/0, and Customer_b is connected to interfaces Gig0/1. Routers CE1 and CE2 are configured as follows:

Drag and drop the code snippets from the right onto the boxes in the configuration to establish the needed connection. Snippets may be used more than once.

Options:

Page: 1 / 60
Total 603 questions