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Cisco 200-301 Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Exam Practice Test

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Total 1197 questions

Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Refer to the exhibit.

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

Options:

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

Question 2

Refer to the exhibit.

A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

Options:

A.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.192 10.73.65.65

B.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.0 10.73.65.65

C.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.128.0 10.73.65.64

D.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66

Question 3

Refer to the exhibit.

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

Options:

A.

It drops the frame from the switch CAM table.

B.

It floods the frame out of all ports except port Fa0/1.

C.

It shuts down the port Fa0/1 and places it in err-disable mode.

D.

It experiences a broadcast storm.

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

Question 5

A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:

• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1

• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2

• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 6

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active

B.

int range g0/0-1 chanm.l-group 10 mode desirable

C.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive

D.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

Options:

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

Question 8

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

Options:

A.

router-id 10.0.0.15

B.

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

C.

ipospf priority 100

D.

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Question 9

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

Telnet

D.

console

Question 10

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

Options:

A.

forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

B.

connects server and client devices to a network

C.

allows users to record data and transmit to a tile server

D.

provides wireless services to users in a building

Question 11

Refer to the exhibit.

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

Question 12

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1

D.

ip route 0,0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6

Question 13

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

Options:

A.

F0/10

B.

F0/11

C.

F0/12

D.

F0/13

Question 14

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

GigabltEthornet0/1

C.

GigabitEthernet0/2

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

Question 15

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?

Options:

A.

Change the channel-group mode on SW2 to auto

B.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to desirable.

C.

Configure the interface port-channel 1 command on both switches.

D.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive.

Question 16

Refer to the exhibit.

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

Options:

A.

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.

Disable AES encryption.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

Question 17

How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?

Options:

A.

lt requires multiple links between core switches

B.

It generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN

C.

It maps multiple VLANs into the same spanning-tree instance

D.

It uses multiple active paths between end stations.

Question 18

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

Options:

Question 19

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:

• The first subnet must support 24 hosts

• The second subnet must support 472 hosts

• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block

Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

interface vlan 1234ip address 10.70.159.1 255.255.254.0

B.

interface vlan 1148ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0

C.

interface vlan 4722ip address 10.70.133.17 255.255.255.192

D.

interface vlan 3002ip address 10.70.147.17 255.255.255.224

E.

interface vlan 155ip address 10.70.155.65 255.255.255.224

Question 20

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

Question 21

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

Options:

A.

WLAN dynamic

B.

management

C.

trunk

D.

access

Question 22

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Options:

Question 23

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

Options:

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passiveSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode activeSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

Question 24

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 25

Refer to the exhibit.

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 26

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

Options:

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

Question 27

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

C.

Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0

D.

Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0

Question 28

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

Options:

A.

authorized services

B.

authenticator

C.

username

D.

password

Question 29

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Question 30

What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

to increase security and encrypt management frames

B.

to provide link redundancy and load balancing

C.

to allow for stateful and link-state failover

D.

to enable connected switch ports to failover and use different VLANs

Question 31

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

Options:

A.

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

Question 32

Refer to the exhibit.

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

Options:

A.

The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B.

The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

C.

The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

D.

The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

Question 33

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

Options:

A.

A distributed management plane must be used.

B.

Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C.

Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D.

Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

Question 34

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

Options:

A.

weighted random early detection

B.

traffic policing

C.

traffic shaping

D.

traffic prioritization

Question 35

Refer to the exhibit.

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 36

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

Question 37

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

Options:

A.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

B.

interface vlan 2000Ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64

C.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fe80;0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

D.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

Question 38

Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?

Options:

A.

VLANID

B.

SSID

C.

RFID

D.

WLANID

Question 39

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

Options:

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

Question 40

Refer to the exhibit.

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

Options:

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

Question 41

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

Options:

A.

SYIM flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

Question 42

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 43

Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

Options:

A.

forwards traffic to the next hop

B.

constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol

C.

provides CLI access to the network device

D.

looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base

Question 44

Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

preshared key that authenticates connections

B.

RSA token

C.

CA that grants certificates

D.

clear-text password that authenticates connections

E.

one or more CRLs

Question 45

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

Options:

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Question 46

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 47

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

Options:

A.

lp route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

Question 48

What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

Options:

A.

offer compression

B.

increase security by using a WEP connection

C.

provide authentication

D.

protect traffic on open networks

Question 49

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :EB8:C 1:2200.1 ::331-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64

Question 50

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

Options:

A.

unique local address

B.

link-local address

C.

aggregatable global address

D.

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

Question 51

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0hello interval 15interface e1/1Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

Question 52

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 53

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

Options:

A.

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1iaccess-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.

interface FastEthernot0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.

interface FastEthernetO/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1Iaccess-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

Question 54

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 55

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 56

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

A.

nothing plugged into the port

B.

link flapping

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

latency

Question 57

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

Options:

A.

WPA3

B.

WPA

C.

WEP

D.

WPA2

Question 58

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

Options:

Question 59

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

Options:

A.

Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.

B.

Set the router B OSPF ID to a nonhost address.

C.

Configure a point-to-point link between router A and router B.

D.

Set the router B OSPF ID to the same value as its IP address

Question 60

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.

Options:

Question 61

What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?

Options:

A.

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.

fragmenting and reassembling packets

C.

making routing decisions

D.

forwarding packets

Question 62

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

Options:

A.

password password

B.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

C.

ip domain-name domain

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Question 63

Refer to the exhibit.

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

Options:

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

Question 64

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

Options:

A.

192.168.0.7

B.

192.168.0.4

C.

192.168.0.40

D.

192.168.3.5

Question 65

Refer to the exhibit.

Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

Options:

A.

Define a NAT pool on the router.

B.

Configure static NAT translations for VLAN 200.

C.

Configure the ip nat outside command on another interface for VLAN 200.

D.

Update the NAT INSIDF RANGFS ACL

Question 66

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

Options:

A.

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

B.

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

C.

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

D.

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

Question 67

Which protocol uses the SSL?

Options:

A.

HTTP

B.

SSH

C.

HTTPS

D.

Telnet

Question 68

Refer to the exhibit.

All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?

Options:

A.

192.168.1.0/24 via 192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.1.128/25 via 192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.1.192/26 via 192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.1.224/27 via 192.168.15.5

Question 69

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

a lightweight access point

B.

a firewall

C.

a wireless LAN controller

D.

a LAN switch

Question 70

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

B.

ip ssh version 2

C.

line vty 0 4

D.

crypto key generate rsa 1024

E.

transport input ssh

Question 71

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 72

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#lp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.

R1(config)#jp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.

R1(config>#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.

R1(conflg)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

Question 73

When is the PUT method used within HTTP?

Options:

A.

when a nonidempotent operation is needed

B.

to update a DNS server

C.

to display a web site

D.

when a read-only operation it required

Question 74

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix did router R1 learn from internal EIGRP?

Options:

A.

192.168.10/24

B.

192.168.3.0/24

C.

192.168.2.0/24

D.

172.16 1.0/24

Question 75

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Options:

Question 76

Refer to the exhibit.

The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?

Options:

A.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode on

B.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode desirable

C.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode passive

Question 77

How does network automation help reduce network downtime?

Options:

A.

Changes can be implemented in parallel across multiple devices at once, which increases the speed of the change rate.

B.

By using automation platforms with intent-based configuration, all changes are checked for possible outages before being implemented.

C.

Emails can be generated based on when a network admin performs a network change, which increases visibility.

D.

Configuration templates and testing can be built into implementation, which increases the success rate of a network change.

Question 78

Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

Question 79

Refer to Itie exhibit

A network engineer started to configure port security on a new switch. These requirements must be met:

* MAC addresses must be learned dynamically

* Log messages must be generated without disabling the interface when unwanted traffic is seen

Which two commands must be configured to complete this task"? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

SW(ccnfig-if)=switchport port-security mac-address sticky

B.

SW(confKj-if)=switchport port-security violation restrict

C.

SW(config.if)sswitchport port-security mac-address 0010.7B84.45E6

D.

SW(config-if)aswitchport port-security maximum 2

E.

SW(ccnfig-if)=switchport port-security violation shutdown

Question 80

An engineer is configuring SSH version 2 exclusively on the R1 router. What is the minimum configuration required to permit remote management using the cryptographic protocol?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 81

Company has decided to require multifactor authentication for all systems. Which set of parameters meets the requirement?

Options:

A.

personal 10-digit PIN and RSA certificate

B.

complex password and personal 10-digit PIN

C.

password of 8 to 15 characters and personal 12-digit PIN

D.

fingerprint scanning and facial recognition

Question 82

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

Options:

Question 83

What are two reasons to implement DHCP in a network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

reduce administration time in managing IP address ranges for clients

B.

control the length of time an IP address is used by a network device

C.

manually control and configure IP addresses on network devices

D.

dynamic control over the best path to reach an IP address

E.

access a website by name instead of by IP address

Question 84

A router has two static routes to the same destination network under the same OSPF process. How does the router forward packets to the destination if the next-hop devices are different?

Options:

A.

The router chooses the route with the oldest age.

B.

The router load-balances traffic over all routes to the destination.

C.

The router chooses the next hop with the lowest MAC address.

D.

The router chooses the next hop with the lowest IP address.

Question 85

Refer to the exhibit.

The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a static password for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Crable PSKEnable iod 1s

B.

Select WPA2 PolicyDisable PMFEnable PSK

C.

Select WPA PolicyEnable PSK

D.

Select WPA PolicySelect WRAS Policy

Question 86

Refer to the exhibit.

All interfaces are configured with duplex auto and ip ospf network broadcast. Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency and act as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

option D

Question 87

What are two protocols within the IPsec suite? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

AH

B.

3DES

C.

ESP

D.

TLS

E.

AES

Question 88

Which event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

Options:

A.

An ICMP connection has been built

B.

A certificate has expired

C.

An interface line has changed status

D.

A TCP connection has been torn down

Question 89

Refer to the exhibit.

What are the two steps an engineer must take to provide the highest encryption and authentication using domain credentials from LDAP?

Options:

A.

Select PSK under Authentication Key Management

B.

Select WPA+WPA2 on Layer 2 Security

C.

Select Static-WEP + 802.1X on Layer 2 Security

D.

Select WPA Policy with TKIP Encryption

E.

Select 802.1X from under Authentication Key Management

Question 90

Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers immediately, transparently, and automatically when edge devices or access circuits fail?

Options:

A.

SLB

B.

FHRP

C.

VRRP

D.

HSRP

Question 91

Which type of DNS record is used to specify the mail server responsible for accepting email messages on behalf of a recipient's domain?

Options:

A.

MX record

B.

TXT record

C.

A record

D.

SRV record

Question 92

Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?

Options:

A.

snmp-server host

B.

snmp-server community

C.

snmp-server enable traps

D.

snmp-server user

Question 93

An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2. Which command meets the requirements?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2 1

B.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2 floating

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2

D.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2 10

Question 94

Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto the matching statements on the right.

Options:

Question 95

Refer to the exhibit.

The administrator must configure a floating sialic default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?

Options:

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 3

B.

ipv6 route ::/128 2001 :db8:1234:2::1 3

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 1

D.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 2

Question 96

A WLC sends alarms about a rogue AP, and the network administrator verifies that the alarms are caused by a legitimate autonomous AP.

Options:

A.

Place the AP into manual containment.

B.

Remove the AP from WLC management.

C.

Manually remove the AP from Pending state.

D.

Set the AP Class Type to Friendly.

Question 97

Which WLC interface provides out-of-band management in the Cisco Unified Wireless Network Architecture?

Options:

A.

service port

B.

virtual

C.

AP-Manager

D.

dynamic

Question 98

Refer to the exhibit.

Rooter R1 is added to the network and configured with tie 10 0 0 64/26 and 10.0.20.0/24 subnets However traffic destined for the LAN on R3 is not access. Which command when executed on R1 defines a tunic route to reach the R3 LAN?

A)

B)

C)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

Question 99

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a static network route between two networks so that host A communicates with host B. Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the routers where they must be configured on the right. Not all commands are used.

Options:

Question 100

In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?

Options:

A.

when the subnet must be available only within an organization

B.

when the subnet does not need to be routable

C.

when the addresses on the subnet must be equivalent to private IPv4 addresses

D.

when the subnet must be routable over the internet

Question 101

What provides connection redundancy increased bandwidth and load sharing between a wireless LAN controller and a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

VLAN trunking

B.

tunneling

C.

first hop redundancy

D.

link aggregation

Question 102

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator must prevent the switch Cat9K-2 IP address from being visible in LLDP without disabling the protocol. Which action must be taken must be taken to complete the task?

Options:

A.

Configure the no lldp tlv-select-management-address command globally on Cat9K-2

B.

Configure the no lldp transmit command on interface G1/0/21 in Cat9K-1

C.

Configure the no lldp receive command on interface G1/0/21 on Cat9K-1

D.

Configure the no lldp mac-phy-cfg command globally on Cat9K-2

Question 103

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of JSON data is shown?

Options:

A.

sequence

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

Question 104

A network architect is deciding whether to implement Cisco autonomous access points or lightweight access points. Which fact about firmware updates must the architect consider? Unlike lightweight access points, which require

Options:

A.

Unlike lightweight access points, which require redundant WLCs to support firmware upgrades, autonomous access points require only one WLC.

B.

Unlike autonomous access points, lightweight access points store a complete copy of the current firmware for backup.

C.

Unlike lightweight access points, autonomous access points can recover automatically from a corrupt firmware update.

D.

Unlike autonomous access points, lightweight access points require a WLC to implement remote firmware updates.

Question 105

What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?

Options:

A.

The APs must be connected to the switch with multiple links in LAG mode

B.

The switch port mode must be set to trunk

C.

The native VLAN must match the management VLAN of the AP

D.

IEEE 802.10 trunking must be disabled on the switch port.

Question 106

Refer to the exhibit.

Which per-hop QoS behavior is R1 applying to incoming packets?

Options:

A.

queuing

B.

marking

C.

shaping

D.

policing

Question 107

What is the purpose of classifying network traffic in QoS?

Options:

A.

services traffic according to its class

B.

identifies the type of traffic that will receive a particular treatment

C.

writes the class identifier of a packet to a dedicated field in the packet header

D.

configures traffic-matching rules on network devices

Question 108

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is updating the configuration on router R1 to connect a new branch office to the company network R2 has been configured correctly. Which command must the engineer configure so that devices at the new site communicate with the main office?

Options:

A.

ip route 172.25.25 0 255 255 255.0 192.168.2.1

B.

ip route 172.25.25 1 255 255 255 255 g0/1

C.

ip route 172.25.25.0.255.255.255.0.192.168.2.2

Question 109

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168 1 0/24 and why?

Options:

A.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing

B.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol

C.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance

D.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric.

Question 110

Which IPsec mode encapsulates the entire IP packet?

Options:

A.

tunnel

B.

Q-in-Q

C.

SSL VPN

D.

transport

Question 111

When an access point is seeking to join wireless LAN controller, which message is sent to the AP- Manager interface?

Options:

A.

Discovery response

B.

DHCP request

C.

DHCP discover

D.

Discovery request

Question 112

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer updates the existing configuration on interface fastethernet1/1 switch SW1. It must establish an EtherChannel by using the same group designation with another vendor switch. Which configuration must be performed to complete the process?

Options:

A.

interface port-channel 2channel-group 2 mode desirable

B.

interface fasteinernet 1/1channel-group 2 mode active

C.

interface fasteinernet 1/1channel-group 2 mode on

D.

interface port-channel 2channel-group 2 mode auto

Question 113

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

Options:

A.

255.255.254.0

B.

255.255.255.240

C.

255.255.255.248

D.

255.255.255.252

Question 114

Options:

Question 115

What are two lacts that differentiate optical-fiber cabling from copper cabling? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is less expensive when purchasing patch cables.

B.

It has a greater sensitivity to changes in temperature and moisture.

C.

It provides greater throughput options.

D.

It carries signals for longer distances.

E.

It carries electrical current further distances for PoE devices.

Question 116

A router received three destination prefixes:10.0.0/18, and 10.0.0/24. When the show ip route command is executed, which output does it return?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 117

Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?

Options:

A.

UDP operates without acknowledgments, and TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet received.

B.

UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load.

C.

UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets, and TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery.

D.

UDP uses sequencing data tor packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers trie capability to receive packets in random order.

Question 118

What is a function performed by a web server?

Options:

A.

provide an application that is transmitted over HTTP

B.

send and retrieve email from client devices

C.

authenticate and authorize a user's identity

D.

securely store flies for FTP access

Question 119

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must provide configured IP addressing details to investigate a firewall rule Issue. Which subnet and mask Identify what is configured on the en0 interface?

Options:

A.

10.8.0.0/16

B.

10.8.64.0/18

C.

10.8.128.0/19

D.

10.8.138.0/24

Question 120

An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP

What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?

Options:

A.

Enable LLDP globally.

B.

Disable CDP on gi0/0.

C.

Enable LLDP TLVs on the ISP router.

D.

Disable auto-negotiation.

Question 121

Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured conrectly, and the expected routes are being exchanged among the routers. Which set of routes are leamed from neighbors and installed on router 2?

Options:

A.

10.129.9.0/2310.139.2.0/3010.2.191.0/3010.129.9.0/25

B.

10.129.9.0/2310.40.1.0/3010.2.191.0/3010.129.9.0/25

C.

10.40.1.0/3010.139.2.0/3010.2.191.0/3010.129.9.0/25

D.

10.129.9.0/2310.139.2.0/3010.129.9.0/2510.22.1.0/24

Question 122

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configures an interface control re switch so that it connects to interface Gi1/0/1 on switch Cat9300-1. Which configuration must be applied to the new interface?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 123

Drag and drop the DNS commands from the left onto their effects on the right.

Options:

Question 124

What are two reasons to implement DHCP in a network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

reduce administration time in managing IP address ranges for clients

B.

control the length of time an IP address is used by a network device

C.

manually control and configure IP addresses on network devices

D.

dynamic control over the best path to reach an IP address

E.

access a website by name instead of by IP address

Question 125

Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?

Options:

A.

northbound interface

B.

software virtual interface

C.

southbound interface

D.

tunnel Interface

Question 126

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and now must remove the commands.

Options:

A.

metric

B.

cost

C.

longest prefix

D.

administrative distance

Question 127

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS, OSPF, RIP, and Internal EIGRP. Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol's route will be installed in the routing table?

Options:

A.

IS-IS

B.

RIP

C.

OSPF

D.

Internal EIGRP

Question 128

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure?

Options:

A.

R1(conftg)#lp route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

B.

R1(Config)#lp route 10.10.10.10 265.255.255.255 192 168.0.2

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.10

D.

R1(config)3|p route 0.0.0.0 0.0 0.0 192 168.0.2

Question 129

Which command do you enter so that a switch configured with Rapid PVST + listens and learns for a specific time period?

Options:

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10

C.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096

D.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

Question 130

A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?

Options:

A.

Assign traffic from the backup servers to a dedicated switch.

B.

Configure a dedicated circuit for the backup traffic.

C.

Place the backup servers in a dedicated VLAN.

D.

Advertise a more specific route for the backup traffic via the secondary circuit.

Question 131

SW1 supports connectivity for a lobby conference room and must be secured. The engineer must limit the connectivity from PCI lo ma SW1 and SW2 network. The MAC addresses allowed must be Limited to two. Which configuration secures the conference room connectivity?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 132

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. An network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.20/24 subnet passes through r2. Which command must be used?

Options:

A.

Ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 115

B.

Ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 100

C.

Ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 115

D.

Ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 100

Question 133

SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configured in the Cisco WLC GUI. SIP call-snooping ports are configured. Which two actions must be completed next? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Set the QoS level to silver or greater for voice traffic.

B.

Set the QoS level to platinum for voice traffic.

C.

Enable Media Session Snooping on re WLAN.

D.

Enable traffic shaping for the LAN interlace of the WLC.

E.

Configure two different QoS rotes tor data and voice traffic.

Question 134

Refer to the exhibit. Company A wants to use a RADIUS server to service all user and device authentication attempts with a more secure and granular authentication approach. Not all client devices support dot1x authentication. Which two configuration changes must be made to accomplish the task? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable AutoConfig IPSK under the Layer 2 tab.

B.

Select Authentication server under the AAA servers tab.

C.

Configure Enterprise Security type under the Layer 2 tab.

D.

Set Authentication under the Layer 3 tab.

E.

Enable WPA2 Policy under the Layer 2 tab.

Question 135

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Options:

Question 136

Which command enables HTTP access to the Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

config network secureweb enable

B.

config certificate generate web admin

C.

config network webmode enable

D.

config network telnet enable

Question 137

What is a function of an endpoint?

Options:

A.

It is used directly by an individual user to access network services

B.

It passes unicast communication between hosts in a network

C.

It transmits broadcast traffic between devices in the same VLAN

D.

It provides security between trusted and untrusted sections of the network.

Question 138

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is asked to confère router R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with R2. Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 139

Refer to the exhibit.

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 140

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?

Options:

A.

The QoS policy is dropping traffic.

B.

There is a duplex mismatch.

C.

The link is over utilized.

D.

The MTU is not set to the default value.

Question 141

What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

data center network pokey con

B.

console server that permits secure access to all network devices

C.

IP address cool distribution scheduler

D.

software-defined controller for automaton of devices and services

Question 142

An on-site service desk technician must verify the IP address and DNS server information on a users Windows computer. Which command must the technician enter at the command prompt on the user's computer?

Options:

A.

ipconfig /all

B.

ifconfig -a

C.

show interface

D.

netstat -r

Question 143

A network engineer must configure an interface with IP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?

Options:

A.

/29

B.

/30

C.

/27

D.

/28

Question 144

What is the difference between an IPv6 link-local address and a unique local address?

Options:

A.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is limited to a loopback address, and an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a directly attached interface.

B.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address can be used throughout a company site or network, but an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a loopback address.

C.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is global, but the scope of an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a loopback address.

D.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is limited to a directly attached interface, but an IPv6 unique local address is used throughout a company site or network.

Question 145

Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

listening

B.

blocking

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

speaking

Question 146

An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result?

Options:

A.

logging trap 5

B.

logging trap 2

C.

logging trap 4

D.

logging trap 3

Question 147

Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.

Options:

A.

dual algorithm

B.

metric

C.

administrative distance

D.

hop count

Question 148

Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.

Options:

Question 149

Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?

Options:

A.

enforcing routing policies

B.

marking interesting traffic for data polices

C.

attaching users to the edge of the network

D.

applying security policies

Question 150

What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?

Options:

A.

ISATAP

B.

GRE over iPsec

C.

iPsec over ISATAP

D.

GRE

Question 151

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.

Which IP address is the source IP?

Options:

A.

10.4.4.4

B.

10.4.4.5

C.

172.23.103.10

D.

172.23.104.4

Question 152

An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used

Options:

Question 153

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

B.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts

C.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

D.

a rooter that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

Question 154

What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?

Options:

A.

different nonoverlapping channels

B.

different overlapping channels

C.

one overlapping channel

D.

one nonoverlapping channel

Question 155

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Question 156

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

runts

B.

giants

C.

frame

D.

CRC

E.

input errors

Question 157

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?

Options:

A.

interface gi0/1no cdp enable

B.

interface gi0/1clear cdp table

C.

interface gi0/0no cdp advertise-v2

D.

interface gi0/0no cdp run

Question 158

Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?

Options:

A.

a list of the available IP addresses in a pool

B.

a list of public IP addresses and their corresponding names

C.

usernames and passwords for the end users in a domain

D.

a list of statically assigned MAC addresses

Question 159

Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?

Options:

A.

TKIP with RC4

B.

RC4

C.

AES-128

D.

AES-256

Question 160

A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.

Clock timezone

B.

Clock summer-time-recurring

C.

Clock summer-time date

D.

Clock set

Question 161

What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?

Options:

A.

Enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs

C.

Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID

D.

Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

Question 162

Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

asynchronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

Question 163

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 164

Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?

Options:

A.

broadband cable access

B.

frame-relay packet switching

C.

dedicated point-to-point leased line

D.

Integrated Services Digital Network switching.

Question 165

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

B.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

C.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

D.

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

Question 166

What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?

Options:

A.

Facilities communication between the controller and the applications

B.

Facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware

C.

allows application developers to interact with the network

D.

integrates a controller with other automation and orchestration tools.

Question 167

Refer to the exhibit.

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two

changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose

two )

Options:

A.

Add a "permit ip any any" statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

B.

Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

C.

The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

D.

The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1

E.

The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2

Question 168

Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?

Options:

A.

redundancy

B.

console

C.

distribution system

D.

service

Question 169

How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?

Options:

A.

enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP

C.

activate all ports and place in the default VLAN

D.

configure extended VLANs

Question 170

Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 171

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/8

Question 172

Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable

What is the result of this configuration?

Options:

A.

The link is in a down state.

B.

The link is in an error disables state

C.

The link is becomes an access port.

D.

The link becomes a trunk port.

Question 173

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

Options:

A.

TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.

B.

UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits

C.

UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol

D.

TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery

Question 174

Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running configuration?

Options:

A.

password-encrypt

B.

enable password-encryption

C.

enable secret

D.

service password-encryption

Question 175

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

Options:

A.

intrusion detection

B.

user awareness

C.

physical access control

D.

network authorization

Question 176

What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?

Options:

A.

data plane

B.

control plane

C.

policy plane

D.

management plane

Question 177

A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

Options:

A.

CDP

B.

SNMP

C.

SMTP

D.

ARP

Question 178

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root bridge?

Options:

A.

S1

B.

S2

C.

S3

D.

S4

Question 179

Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?

Options:

A.

TACACS server

B.

wireless access point

C.

RADIUS server

D.

wireless LAN controller

Question 180

What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?

Options:

A.

initiates a ping request to the URL

B.

prompts the user to specify the desired IP address

C.

continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled

D.

sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

Question 181

What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?

Options:

A.

Both have a 50 micron core diameter

B.

Both have a 9 micron core diameter

C.

Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter

D.

Both have a 100 micron core diameter

Question 182

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

Options:

Question 183

Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?

Options:

A.

ARP

B.

DHCP

C.

CDP

D.

DNS

Question 184

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

Options:

A.

floating static route

B.

host route

C.

default route

D.

network route

Question 185

What is a difference between local AP mode and FiexConnet AP mode?

Options:

A.

Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC

B.

FiexConnect AP mode fails to function if the AP loses connectivity with the WLC

C.

FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured

D.

Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP

Question 186

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110?

Options:

A.

Switch 1

B.

Switch 2

C.

Switch 3

D.

Switch 4

Question 187

Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right

Options:

Question 188

Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?

Options:

A.

alert

B.

critical

C.

notice

D.

debug

Question 189

Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 190

Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two. )

Options:

A.

The device Is assigned to the Global site.

B.

The device Is placed into the Unmanaged state.

C.

The device is placed into the Provisioned state.

D.

The device is placed into the Managed state.

E.

The device is assigned to the Local site.

Question 191

What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?

Options:

A.

VTP

B.

DTP

C.

egress traffic

D.

ingress traffic

Question 192

Refer to the exhibit.

After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?

Options:

A.

Switch 1

B.

Switch 2

C.

Switch 3

D.

Switch 4

Question 193

Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

cookbook

B.

task

C.

playbook

D.

model

E.

recipe

Question 194

Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?

Options:

A.

Reassociation Request

B.

Probe Request

C.

Authentication Request

D.

Association Request

Question 195

Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.

Options:

Question 196

Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

YAML

B.

JSON

C.

EBCDIC

D.

SGML

E.

XML

Question 197

Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

SCP

D.

Telnet

E.

SSH

Question 198

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 199

What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

register with a single access point that controls traffic between wired and wireless endpoints.

B.

use SSIDs to distinguish between wireless clients.

C.

send LWAPP packets to access points.

D.

monitor activity on wireless and wired LANs

Question 200

Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

Options:

Question 201

Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?

Options:

A.

200

B.

301

C.

404

D.

500

Question 202

How is the native VLAN secured in a network?

Options:

A.

separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain

B.

give it a value in the private VLAN range

C.

assign it as VLAN 1

D.

configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link

Question 203

What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

serves as the network aggregation point

B.

provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications

C.

designed to meet continuous, redundant uptime requirements

D.

is the backbone for the network topology

E.

physical connection point for a LAN printer

Question 204

What is a function of a remote access VPN?

Options:

A.

used cryptographic tunneling to protect the privacy of data for multiple users simultaneously

B.

used exclusively when a user is connected to a company's internal network

C.

establishes a secure tunnel between two branch sites

D.

allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel

Question 205

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?

Options:

A.

TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery.

B.

TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.

C.

TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing

D.

TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

Question 206

Refer to the exhibit.

How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?

Options:

A.

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

B.

It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

C.

it load-balances traffic between all three routes

D.

It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance

Question 207

Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?

Options:

A.

firewall

B.

switch

C.

access point

D.

wireless controller

Question 208

Refer to the exhibit.

which path is used by the router for internet traffic ?

Options:

A.

209.165.200.0/27

B.

10.10.10.0/28

C.

0.0.0.0/0

D.

10.10.13.0/24

Question 209

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

Options:

A.

Physical access control

B.

Social engineering attack

C.

brute force attack

D.

user awareness

Question 210

Which option about JSON is true?

Options:

A.

uses predefined tags or angle brackets () to delimit markup text

B.

used to describe structured data that includes arrays

C.

used for storing information

D.

similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

Question 211

An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

Options:

A.

platform-as-a-service

B.

software-as-a-service

C.

network-as-a-service

D.

infrastructure-as-a-service

Question 212

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.

Options:

Question 213

An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B

C.

ipv6 address 2001:Odb8::7:3:4F:572B

D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::700:3:400F:572B

Question 214

Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

asychronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

Question 215

What is a DNS lookup operation?

Options:

A.

DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available

B.

serves requests over destination port 53

C.

DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down

D.

responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

Question 216

An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 217

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

traverses the Internet when an outbound ACL Is applied

B.

used without allocation from a regional Internet authority

C.

shared address space between an ISP and subscriber

D.

reduces the need for isolated networks

Question 218

What is a function of Layer 3 switches?

Options:

A.

They route traffic between devices in different VLANs.

B.

They forward Ethernet frames between VLANs using only MAC addresses.

C.

They move frames between endpoints limited to IP addresses.

D.

They transmit broadcast traffic when operating in Layer 3 mode exclusively.

Question 219

What is the main capability of multifactor authentication?

Options:

A.

Identifying permissions for end users using three authentication factors

B.

Authenticating and authorizing end users using two authentication factors

C.

Confirming end-user identity using two or more authentication factors

D.

Verifying end-user access permissions using two authentication factors

Question 220

Aswitch receives a frame with the destination MAC address 3C:5D: 7E:9F: 1A:2B.

Switch# show ethernet-frame-and-mac-address-table

How does the switch handle the frame?

Options:

A.

It ages out the frame until the MAC address becomes known.

B.

It drops the frame to avoid unnecessary network congestion.

C.

It switches the frame to a predetermined port based on settings.

D.

It floods the frame to all ports except the incoming port.

Question 221

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

Question 222

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 10.30.0.1?

Options:

A.

10.0.0.2

B.

110

C.

30

D.

2

Question 223

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Options:

Question 224

How does automation affect network management processes?

Options:

A.

It interoperates with ISE to define and manage patch and update schedules.

B.

It performs configuration updates based on user profiles.

C.

It improves the efficiency of system lifecycle management.

D.

It provides a reactive support model.

Question 225

What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?

Options:

A.

It identifies the wired network to which a network device is connected.

B.

It identifies a wireless network for a mobile device to connect.

C.

It identifies the wireless network to which an application must connect.

D.

It identifies the wired network to which a user device is connected.

Question 226

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

Enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces

B.

Forwards frames to a neighbor port using CDP

C.

Overwrites the known source MAC address in the address table

D.

Protects against denial of service attacks

Question 227

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the metric for the route to the 192.168.10.33 host?

Options:

A.

84

B.

110

C.

192

D.

193

Question 228

How does automation leverage data models to reduce the operational complexity of a managed network?

Options:

A.

Reduces the response time for specific requests to devices with many interfaces

B.

Categorizes traffic and provides insights

C.

Allows the controller to be vendor-agnostic

D.

Streamlines monitoring using SNMP and other polling tools

Question 229

A network security team noticed that an increasing number of employees are becoming victims of phishing attacks. Which security program should be implemented to mitigate the problem?

Options:

A.

Physical access control

B.

Software firewall enabled on all PCs

C.

Email system patches

D.

User awareness training

Question 230

Which feature Is mandatory when configuring a new SSID for a wireless network running WPA3-Personal mode?

Options:

A.

Opportunistic Wireless Encryption

B.

Protected Management Frame

C.

Enhanced Open

D.

Fast Transition

Question 231

What is a similarity between global and unique local IPv6 addresses?

Options:

A.

They are allocated by the same organization.

B.

They are routable on the global internet.

C.

They use the same process for subnetting.

D.

They are part of the multicast IPv6 group type.

Question 232

Refer to the exhibit.

Of the routes learned with dynamic routing protocols, which has the least preferred metric?

Options:

A.

Local

B.

EIGRP

C.

OSPF

D.

RIP

Question 233

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 forward packets destined to 10.0.4.10?

Options:

A.

via 10.0.4.2

B.

via 10.0.0.2

C.

via FastEthernet0/1

D.

via FastEthernet1/1

Question 234

Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Uncheck the WPA Policy option check box, and check the WPA2 Policy option check box.

B.

Uncheck the MAC Filtering option check box.

C.

Change the WPA Encryption option from TKIP to CCMP(128AES).

D.

Set the Security Type option to Personal.

E.

Set the Layer 2 Security option to None.

Question 235

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the cable type on the right.

Options:

Question 236

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

Uses routers to create collision domains

B.

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.

Avoids MAC address storage for faster transmission

D.

Uses the data link layer for communications

Question 237

Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.

Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?

Options:

A.

channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.

channel-group 1 mode on

C.

channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

channel-group 1 mode active

Question 238

Which technology allows for logical Layer 3 separation on physical network equipment?

Options:

A.

Virtual Route Forwarding

B.

Virtual Switch System

C.

IPsec Transport Mode

D.

Time Division Multiplexer

Question 239

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

Options:

Question 240

Which fact must the engineer consider when implementing syslog on a new network?

Options:

A.

Syslog defines the software or hardware component that triggered the message.

B.

There are 16 different logging levels (0-15).

C.

By default, all message levels are sent to the syslog server.

D.

The logging level defines the severity of a particular message.

Question 241

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring a new WLAN for a wireless network that has these requirements:

    Dual-band clients that connect to the WLAN must be directed to the 5-GHz spectrum.

    Wireless clients on this WLAN must be able to apply VLAN settings from RADIUS attributes.

Which two actions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable the Aironet IE option.

B.

Enable the Coverage Hole Detection option.

C.

Set the MFP Client Protection option to Required

D.

Enable the client band select option.

E.

Enable the allow AAA Override option

Question 242

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the host address of 192.168.18.16?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet1/0

B.

GigabitEthernet0/0

C.

GigabitEthernet2/0

D.

Null0

Question 243

Refer to the exhibit. During initial configuration testing, the Windows workstation PC1 cannot connect with the 172.16.2.0/24 network.

Which set of actions corrects the configuration?

Options:

A.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.6 and change the subnet mask to 255.255.255.248.

B.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.6 and change the DNS servers to 172.16.1.12 and 172.16.1.13.

C.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.9 and change the default gateway to 172.16.1.7.

D.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.9 and change the DNS server to 172.16.1.12 only.

Question 244

Refer to the exhibit. How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve the desired neighbor relationship?

Options:

A.

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf network point-to-point

B.

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf cost 5

C.

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf 1 area 2

D.

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf priority 1

Question 245

An organization developed new security policies and decided to print the policies and distribute them to all personnel so that employees review and apply the policies. Which element of a security program is the organization implementing?

Options:

A.

Asset identification

B.

User training

C.

Physical access control

D.

Vulnerability control

Question 246

Refer to the exhibit. All routers In the network are configured. R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configured on R2 to be elected as the DR in the network?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 247

Refer to the exhibit. What is the value of the administrative distance for the default gateway?

Options:

A.

10

B.

0

C.

1

D.

110

Question 248

Refer to the exhibit. Which tasks must be performed on the Download File tab to install new software using TCP port 22?)

Options:

A.

Set the File Type to Code, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the WLC.

B.

Set the File Type to Configuration, set the Transfer Mode to FTP, and specify the IP address of the file server.

C.

Set the File Type to Code, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the file server.

D.

Set the File Type to Configuration, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the WLC.

Question 249

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17

O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/20

R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8

R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12

Options:

A.

F0/8

B.

FO/20

C.

FO/12

D.

FO/17

Question 250

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?

Options:

A.

0

B.

192.168.10.2

C.

24

D.

1

Question 251

Why would a network administrator choose to implement RFC 1918 address space?

Options:

A.

to route traffic on the internet

B.

to provide flexibility in the IP network design

C.

to provide overlapping address space with another network

D.

to limit the number of hosts on the network

Question 252

Why are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?

Options:

A.

to uniquely identify clients to monitor their usage patterns

B.

to encrypt data to prevent excessive usage

C.

to contain embedded permissions that automatically expire

D.

to track the geographical location of each request

Question 253

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

Maintains stateful transaction information

B.

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.

Makes forwarding decisions based on MAC addresses

D.

Filters based on a transport layer protocol

Question 254

Refer to the exhibit. Which next hop is used to route packets to the application server at 152.168.32.85?

Options:

A.

10.10.1.2

B.

10.10.2.2

C.

10.10.3.2

D.

10.10.4.2

Question 255

Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs?

Options:

A.

TCP port 443 and UDP 21 are used.

B.

Control and data traffic encryption are enabled.

C.

The tunnel uses the IPsec protocol for encapsulation.

D.

The tunnel uses the EolP protocol to transmit data traffic.

Question 256

Which switch port configuration must be configured when connected to an AP running in FlexConnect mode, and the WLANs use flex local switching?

Options:

A.

access port with one VLAN

B.

trunk port with pruned VLANs

C.

Layer 3 port with an IP address

D.

tagged port with MAC Filtering enabled

Question 257

Which role does AI play in monitoring network data flow?

Options:

A.

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection.

B.

It exclusively predicts device malfunctions.

C.

It simplifies traffic route mapping.

D.

It enhances data packet delivery speeds.

Question 258

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the correct next hop for router R1 to reach IP addresses 192.168.2.86 and 10.20.1.50?

Options:

A.

172.16.1.4

B.

172.16.1.1

C.

172.16.1.2

D.

172.16.1.3

Question 259

Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?

Options:

A.

router D

B.

router B

C.

router C

D.

router A

Question 260

An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different subnets to communicate locally with each other. One PC is configured with IP address 192.168.25.128/25 and the other with 192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the communication?

Options:

A.

255.255.255.224

B.

255.255.255.248

C.

255.255.255.0

D.

255.255.255.252

Question 261

Which technology allows multiple operating systems lo run a single physical server?

Options:

A.

cloud computing

B.

virtualization

C.

application hosting

D.

containers

Question 262

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

Question 263

A default route must be configured to temporarily use a local broadband modem with the IP address of 192.168.1.1 until a WAN circuit is installed. The WAN circuit will use an external routing protocol that exchanges network prefixes between two separate autonomous systems on the Internet. Only a default route will be received by the ISP Which configuration must be applied to allow the new WAN circuit to take precedence when It Is In place?

Options:

A.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

B.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 25

C.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 track 1

D.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 20

Question 264

What is the main purpose of SSH management access?

Options:

A.

To support DES 56-bit and 3DES (168-bit) ciphers

B.

To enable secured access to the inbound management interface

C.

To validate management access with username and domain name only

D.

To allow passwords protected with HTTPS encryption to be sent

Question 265

A new DHCP server has been deployed in a corporate environment with lease time set to eight hours. Which CMD command on a Windows-based device allows the engineer to verify the DHCP lease expiration?

Options:

A.

ipconfig /renew

B.

ipconfig

C.

ipconfig /all

D.

ipconfig /displaydns

Question 266

Which syslog message logging level displays interface line protocol up/down events?

Options:

A.

Informational

B.

debugging

C.

alerts

D.

notifications

Question 267

Refer to the exhibit.

Users will be using a preconfigured secret key and SSID and must have a secured key hashing algorithm configured. The AAA server must not be used for the user authentication method. Which action completes the task?

Options:

A.

Enable AutoConfig iPSK.

B.

SetCCMP128(AES).

C.

Configure PSK Format HEX with key string.

D.

Configure PSK-SHA2.

Question 268

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

10.90.207.87/26 [110/1912] via F0/7

10.90.207.87/26 [110/28968] via F0/6

10.90.207.87/26 [120/14] via F0/4

10.90.207.87/26 [120/11] via F0/5

Options:

A.

F0/7

B.

F0/5

C.

F0/4

D.

F0/6

Question 269

Refer to the exhibit.

Network services must be enabled on interface Gil/0734. Which configuration meets the needs for this implementation?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 270

What are two benefits of private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

provides external internet network connectivity

B.

provides unlimited address ranges

C.

propagates routing information to WAN links

D.

reuses addresses at multiple sites

E.

conserves globally unique address space

Question 271

Refer to the exhibit. The routers R1-LAB and R2-LAB are configured with link-local addresses. What command must be applied to interface Gi0/0 on R1-LAB for an automated address self-assignment on the IPv6 network?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:0FFA:0::/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:0FFA::1/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:0FFA::/64 eui-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:0FFA::/64 anycast

Question 272

Which header must be included in a REST request from an application that requires JSON-formatted content?

Options:

A.

Content-Type: application/json

B.

Accept-Encoding: application/json

C.

Accept: application/json

D.

Accept-Language: application/json

Question 273

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

Question 274

Which type of protocol is VRRP?

Options:

A.

uses dynamic IP address assignment

B.

allows two or more routers to act as a default gateway

C.

uses a destination IP address 224.0.0.102 for router-to-router communication

D.

uses Cisco-proprietary First Hop Redundancy Protocol

Question 275

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a wireless LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Set the Layer 2 Security to 802.1X.

B.

Enable TKIP and CCMP256 WPA2 Encryption.

C.

Set the Layer 2 Security to None.

D.

Enable the WPA Policy.

Question 276

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1. fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) ' Packets toward the entire network 2001:db8:23: :/64 must be forwarded through router R2. ' Packets toward host 2001: db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

Options:

A.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: :/128 fd00:12::2

B.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

C.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

D.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: l4/64 fd00:12::2

E.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: :/64 fd00:12::2

Question 277

What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

Options:

A.

TCP ensures ordered, reliable data delivery, and UDP offers low latency and high throughput.

B.

TCP is used for transmitting data over the internet, and UDP is used for transmitting data over a local network.

C.

TCP manages multicast and broadcast data transfers, and UDP only handles unicast communications.

D.

TCP is used to ensure data integrity in a file transfer, and UDP is used to broadcast a message to multiple recipients.

Question 278

Refer to the exhibit. Configurations for the switch and PCs are complete.

Which configuration must be applied so that VLANs 2 and 3 communicate back and forth?

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 3 native ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10 encapsulation dot1Q 3

D.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 10 ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

Question 279

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables SW2 to establish an LACP EtherChannel?

Options:

A.

B.

B.

C.

C.

D.

D.

Question 280

Refer to the exhibit. The loopback IP of R3 has been learned via the two interfaces on R1. R1 is configured with a reference bandwidth of 10 Gbps. Based on the metric calculations, which next hop IP would be used for outgoing routing?

Options:

A.

10.12.0.5

B.

10.12.0.2

C.

10.12.0.1

D.

10.12.0.6

Question 281

What differentiates the TCP and UDP protocols?

Options:

A.

TCP tracks segments being transmitted or received by assigning segment numbers, and UDP adjusts data flow according to network conditions.

B.

TCP establishes a connection with the device on the other end before transferring, and UDP transfers without establishing a connection.

C.

TCP sends data at a constant rate with error checking on upper protocol layers, and UDP provides error-checking and sequencing.

D.

TCP immediately transmits data without waiting for a handshake, and UDP awaits a response from the receiver before sending additional data.

Question 282

Which role do predictive Al models play in network load balancing?

Options:

A.

They anticipate future traffic spikes.

B.

They assign IP addresses to devices.

C.

They select correct cabling types for deployment.

D.

They solely monitor historical traffic volumes.

Question 283

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

inserts MAC addresses dynamically into the CAM table

B.

restricts ports to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

C.

protects against denial of service attacks

D.

rewrites the source and destination MAC address

Question 284

Why does an administrator choose to implement a remote access IPsec VPN?

Options:

A.

to establish an encrypted tunnel between a remote user and a private network over the internet

B.

to allow access to an enterprise network using any internet-enabled location via a web browser using SSL

C.

to provide a secure link between an HTTPS server, authentication subsystem, and an end-user

D.

to use cryptography for authentication between a device and user over a negotiated VPN gateway

Question 285

Which feature of Digest Authentication prevents credentials from being sent in plaintext?

Options:

A.

SSL/TLS encryption

B.

Challenge-response mechanism

C.

Token-based authorization

D.

Public key infrastructure

Question 286

What is a function of a northbound API in an SDN environment?

Options:

A.

It supports distributed processing for configuration.

B.

It relies on global provisioning and configuration.

C.

It upgrades software and restores files.

D.

It provides orchestration and network automation services.

Question 287

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Options:

Question 288

What is a characteristic of encryption in wireless networks?

Options:

A.

uses a unidirectional handshake for authentication

B.

Intercepts data threats before they attack a network

C.

uses integrity checks to identify forgery attacks

D.

prevents intercepted data from being easily read

Question 289

Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?

Options:

A.

between the SDN controller and PCs on the network

B.

between the SON controller and switches and routers on the network

C.

between the SON controller and services and applications on the network

D.

between network applications and switches and routers on the network

Question 290

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 291

When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

Options:

A.

DHCP relay agent

B.

DHCP server

C.

DHCPDISCOVER

D.

DHCPOFFER

Question 292

Refer to the exhibit.

For security reasons, automatic neighbor discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:

• Disable all neighbor discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.

• Permit neighbor discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.

• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.

• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 293

Refer to the exhibit.

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

Options:

A.

Router2

B.

Router3

C.

Router4

D.

Router5

Question 294

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?

Options:

A.

point-to-multipoint

B.

point-to-point

C.

broadcast

D.

nonbroadcast

Question 295

What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

Options:

A.

Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats

B.

Both cable types support LP connectors

C.

Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors

D.

Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

Question 296

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

Java

C.

REST

D.

XML

Question 297

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?

Options:

A.

Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

11ac MU-MIMO

C.

OEAP Split Tunnel

D.

Client Band Select

Question 298

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If

the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

B.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

C.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip address dhcpR1(config-if)# no shutdown

D.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp

E.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2

Question 299

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured the New York router with state routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?

Options:

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/1

B.

ipv6 route 0/0 Serial 0/0/0

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0

E.

ipv6 route ::/0 2000::2

Question 300

What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?

Options:

A.

access - core - distribution - access

B.

access - distribution - distribution - access

C.

access - core - access

D.

access -distribution - core - distribution - access

Question 301

A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?

Options:

A.

Device(Config)#lldp run

B.

Device(Config)#cdp run

C.

Device(Config-if)#cdp enable

D.

Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology

Question 302

Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

Options:

A.

The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

B.

The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

C.

The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

D.

The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

Question 303

What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?

Options:

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service.

B.

Software-as-a-service

C.

control and distribution of physical resources

D.

services as a hardware controller.

Question 304

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

Options:

A.

802.1x

B.

IP Source Guard

C.

MAC Authentication Bypass

D.

802.11n

Question 305

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

Options:

Question 306

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

Options:

Question 307

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

Options:

A.

it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

B.

it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

C.

it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

D.

it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

Question 308

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh

B.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq scp

C.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq telnet

D.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq https

Question 309

An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?

Options:

A.

configure switchport nonegotiate

B.

configure switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

configure switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable

Question 310

Refer to the exhibit.

The nip server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?

Options:

A.

Router2(config)#ntp passive

B.

Router2(config)#ntp server 172.17.0.1

C.

Router2(config)#ntp master 4

D.

Router2(config)#ntp server 192.168.0.2

Question 311

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

B.

when the cable length limits are exceeded

C.

when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

D.

when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

E.

when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

Question 312

An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

Options:

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport nonegotiate

Question 313

Refer to the exhibit.

If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

Options:

A.

192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.15.5

Question 314

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?

Options:

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dot1-tunnel

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

Question 315

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Telnet

B.

SSH

C.

HTTP

D.

HTTPS

E.

TFTP

Question 316

What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?

Options:

A.

After the cable is connected, the interface uses the fastest speed setting available for that cable type

B.

After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data

C.

The frames entering the interface are marked with higher priority and then processed faster by a switch.

D.

Real-time voice and video frames entering the interface are processed faster

Question 317

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

Options:

A.

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

B.

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

C.

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

D.

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

Question 318

Refer to the exhibit.

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?

Options:

A.

Interface errors are incrementing

B.

An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA

C.

High usage is causing high latency

D.

The sites were connected with the wrong cable type

Question 319

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.202.131

B.

ip route 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.130

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.224

D.

ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254

Question 320

Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

management interface settings

B.

QoS settings

C.

Ip address of one or more access points

D.

SSID

E.

Profile name

Question 321

Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?

Options:

A.

bridge

B.

route

C.

autonomous

D.

lightweight

Question 322

Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

Options:

A.

forwarding remote client/server traffic

B.

facilitates spanning-tree elections

C.

processing inbound SSH management traffic

D.

sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets

Question 323

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.

Options:

Question 324

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Question 325

Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?

Options:

A.

northbound API

B.

REST API

C.

SOAP API

D.

southbound API

Question 326

Refer to me exhibit.

Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?

Options:

A.

It uses a route that is similar to the destination address

B.

It discards the packets.

C.

It floods packets to all learned next hops.

D.

It Queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.

Question 327

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?

Options:

A.

configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network

B.

enable SLAAC on an interface

C.

disable the EUI-64 bit process

D.

explicitly assign a link-local address

Question 328

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?

Options:

A.

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240

B.

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240

C.

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224

D.

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

Question 329

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 330

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

B.

Router2 is using the default hello timer.

C.

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

D.

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

Question 331

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

192.168.1.17

B.

192.168.1.61

C.

192.168.1.64

D.

192.168.1.127

E.

192.168.1.254

Question 332

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

Options:

A.

Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 fa VLAN segmentation

B.

Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

C.

Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter-VLAN routing.

D.

Add PC A to the same subnet as the Fie Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.

Question 333

An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

Options:

A.

WEP

B.

RC4

C.

AES

D.

TKIP

Question 334

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256.

B.

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

C.

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

D.

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

E.

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

Question 335

which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/12

Question 336

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 337

Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?

Options:

A.

The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link

B.

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device

C.

The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen

D.

The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen

Question 338

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

Options:

A.

It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points

B.

It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.

C.

It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.

D.

It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

Question 339

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

Options:

A.

in the MAC address table

B.

in the CAM table

C.

in the binding database

D.

in the frame forwarding database

Question 340

Refer to the exhibit.

What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

Options:

A.

10.10.1.10

B.

10.10.10.20

C.

172.16.15.10

D.

192.168.0.1

Question 341

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI

B.

It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers

C.

It moves the control plane to a central point.

D.

It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions

E.

It uses Telnet to report system issues.

Question 342

Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?

Options:

A.

management-plane

B.

control-plane

C.

data-plane

D.

services-plane

Question 343

A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?

Options:

A.

collision

B.

CRC

C.

runt

D.

late collision

Question 344

Refer to the exhibit.

The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?

Options:

A.

The interface is not participating in OSPF

B.

A point-to-point network type is configured

C.

The default Hello and Dead timers are in use

D.

There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface

Question 345

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

Options:

A.

Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms

B.

VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.

C.

Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down

D.

After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.

Question 346

Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Options:

Question 347

An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?

Options:

A.

switch(config-line)#IIdp port-description

B.

switch(config)#IIdp port-description

C.

switch(config-if)#IIdp port-description

D.

switch#IIdp port-description

Question 348

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied

B.

issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number

C.

composed of up to 65.536 available addresses

D.

used without tracking or registration

Question 349

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The core and distribution layers perform the same functions

B.

The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains

C.

The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.

D.

The core layer maintains wired connections for each host

E.

The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

Question 350

Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?

Options:

A.

FIFO

B.

WFQ

C.

PQ

D.

WRED

Question 351

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

Options:

A.

moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy

B.

provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks

C.

allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized port

D.

combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

Question 352

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.

Options:

Question 353

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

Options:

A.

internal BGP route

B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP

C.

statically assigned route

D.

route learned through EIGRP

Question 354

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

Options:

Question 355

Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right

Options:

Question 356

Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

Options:

Question 357

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

sniffer

B.

mesh

C.

flexconnect

D.

local

Question 358

A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?

Options:

A.

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

B.

It drops the traffic

C.

It tags the traffic with the default VLAN

D.

It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

Question 359

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

Options:

A.

It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

B.

It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance.

C.

It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost.

D.

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

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