Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.
Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?
An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?
Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?
Refer to the exhibit.
A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Refer to the exhibit.
A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?
Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)
Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:
• The first subnet must support 24 hosts
• The second subnet must support 472 hosts
• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block
Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )
What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?
Refer to the exhibit.
How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?
OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?
A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?
Refer to the exhibit.
All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?
What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?
Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?
Refer to the exhibit.
The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
What is a function of an endpoint on a network?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?
What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?
An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.
An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:
* It must be configured in the local database.
* The username is engineer.
* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?
Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?
Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?
Which protocol uses the SSL?
Refer to the exhibit.
The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?
If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?
What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?
Refer to Exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?
When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
Refer to the exhibit.
The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.
What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?
An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?
R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which change to the configuration on Switch?
allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?
Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right
Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?
Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)
Refer to Exhibit.
Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?
Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.
What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?
What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?
What is the purpose of an SSID?
How does WPA3 improve security?
Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?
Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?
Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?
Refer to the exhibit.
Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the effect of this configuration?
What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?
The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)
What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route type is configured to reach the internet?
Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?
An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.
Which type of traffic is sent with pure iPsec?
Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?
When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that in ASCll format?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If
the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)
What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?
What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?
An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?
Refer to the exhibit.
The nip server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.
Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?
Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?
What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?
Refer to the exhibit.
Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
Which networking function occurs on the data plane?
A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)
When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?
What Is a syslog facility?
What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?
Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?
An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?
What is a difference between local AP mode and FiexConnet AP mode?
Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?
A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?
Refer to Exhibit.
The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)
How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?
How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?
Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.
Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?
What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?
Refer to the exhibit.
which path is used by the router for internet traffic ?
Refer to the exhibit.
After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?
Refer to the exhibit.
If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?
Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)
What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?
An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?
A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?
What describes the operation of virtual machines?
What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?
Refer to the exhibit.
An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two
changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose
two )
Refer to the exhibit.
A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.
Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0'1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two.)
Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.
How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 v2ia R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4?
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?
Refer to the exhibit.
How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?
An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?
What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?
Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?
Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?
Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right
What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?
An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used
In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)
What are network endpoints?
What is a function of a remote access VPN?
Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two )
When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured'? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.
Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)
What is a benefit of VRRP?
What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?
Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?
When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original P packet?
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?
Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
What is the purpose of traffic shaping?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.
Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?
What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?
What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)
Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?
What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?
Refer to the exhibit.
An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?
What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?
An on-site service desk technician must verify the IP address and DNS server information on a users Windows computer. Which command must the technician enter at the command prompt on the user's computer?
Refer to the exhibit.
The SW1 and SW2 Gi0/0 ports have been preconfigured. An engineer is given these requirements:
• Allow all PCs to communicate with each other at Layer 3.
• Configure untagged traffic to use VLAN 5.
• Disable VLAN 1 from being used.
Which configuration set meets these requirements?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
How many arrays are present in the JSON data?
When an access point is seeking to join wireless LAN controller, which message is sent to the AP- Manager interface?
Which encryption method is used by WPA3?
What is a DHCP client?
Which (unction generally performed by a traditional network device is replaced by a software-defined controller?
When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format?
A packet from a company s branch office is destined to host 172.31.0.1 at headquarters. The sending router has three possible matches in its routing table for the packet prefixes: 172. 31.0 .0/16.72.31.0.0724. and 172.31 0 0/25. How does the router handle the packet?
Refer to the exhibit.
When router R1 is sending traffic to IP address 10.56.192 1, which interface or next hop address does it use to route the packet?
Drag and drop the statements about AAA from the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right. Not all options are used.
When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture?
Refer to the exhibit.
How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R14 is in the process of being configured. Which configuration must be used to establish a host route to PC 10?
PC1 tries to send traffic to newly installed PC2. The PC2 MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table of the switch, so the switch sends the packet to all ports in the same VLAN Which switching concept does this describe?
Which AP mode serves as the primary hub in a point-to-multipoint network topology.
An administrator must use the password complexity not manufacturer-name command to prevent users from adding “cisco” as a password. Which command must be issued before this command?
How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-response model?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must configure the interface that connects to PC 1 and secure it in a way that only PC1 is allowed to use the port No VLAN tagging can be used except for a voice VLAN. Which command sequence must be entered to configure the switch?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is the definition of backdoor malware?
Why choose Cisco DNA Center for automated lifecycle management?
What is the difference between 1000BASE-LX/LH and 1000BASE-ZX interfaces?
Refer to the exhibit.
All routers in the network are configured correctly, and the expected routes are being exchanged among the routeis. Which set or routes are learned from neighbors and Installed on router 2?
A)
B)
C)
D)
When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?
What is a specification for SSIDS?
Which port type does a lightweight AP use to connect to the wired network when it is configured in local mode?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which interface is chosen to forward traffic to the host at 192.168.0.55?
Which type of encryption does WPA1 use for data protection?
Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 must be implemented on R1 to the ISP The uplink between R1 and the ISP must be configured with a manual assignment, and the LAN interface must be self-provisioned Both connections must use the applicable IPv6 networks Which two configurations must be applied to R1? (Choose two.)
What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode for power allocation when an access point is connected to a PoE switch port?
Which command do you enter so that a switch configured with Rapid PVST + listens and learns for a specific time period?
Drag and drop the characteristics of device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding deployment types on the right.
Why would a network administrator choose to implement automation in a network environment?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the issue?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a static network route between two networks so that host A communicates with host B. Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the routers where they must be configured on the right. Not all commands are used.
Which EtherChannel mode must be configured when using LAG on a WLC?
An engineer is configuring SSH version 2 exclusively on the R1 router. What is the minimum configuration required to permit remote management using the cryptographic protocol?
Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the issue with the interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1?
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to use a WPA2 PSK and allow only specific clients to join. Which two actions must be taken to complete the process? (Choose two.)
Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cisco DNA Center provide over traditional campus management?
Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?
Refer to the exhibit.
Rooter R1 is added to the network and configured with tie 10 0 0 64/26 and 10.0.20.0/24 subnets However traffic destined for the LAN on R3 is not access. Which command when executed on R1 defines a tunic route to reach the R3 LAN?
A)
B)
C)
A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?
Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator must prevent the switch Cat9K-2 IP address from being visible in LLDP without disabling the protocol. Which action must be taken must be taken to complete the task?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which next-hop IP address has the least desirable metric when sourced from R1?
Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional campus management?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the subnet masks on the right
A WLC sends alarms about a rogue AP, and the network administrator verifies that the alarms are caused by a legitimate autonomous AP.
What is a difference between an IPv6 multicast address and an IPv6 anycast address?
Refer to the exhibit.
What must be configured to enable 802.11w on the WLAN?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer just installed network 10.120.10.0/24. Which configuration must be applied to the R14 router to add the new network to its OSPF routing table?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer started to configure two directly-connected routers as shown. Which command sequence must the engineer configure on R2 so that the two routers become OSPF neighbors?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and now must remove the commands.
What is the primary purpose of private address space?
It work security team noticed that an increasing number of employees are becoming victims of phishing attacks. Which security program should be implemented to mitigate the problem?
Refer to the exhibit.
Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access the network must not be limited. Which action completes this configuration?
What is the purpose of the URI string in a REST request?
Which two features introduced in SNMPv2 provides the ability to retrieve large amounts of data in one request
Which enhancements were implemented as part of WPA3?
Which command creates a static NAT binding for a PC address of 10.1.1.1 to the public routable address 209.165.200.225 assigned to the PC?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of 10.1.2 126?
Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two.)
Which syslog severity level is considered the most severe and results in the system being considered unusable?
Drag and drop the configuration management terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right. Not all terms are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken so that neighbofing devices rapidly discover switch Cat9300?
What is the difference between controller-based networks and traditional networks as they relate to control-plane and/or data-plane functions?
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
A new DHCP server has been deployed in a corporate environment with lease time set to eight hours. Which CMD command on a Windows-based device allows the engineer to verify the DHCP lease expiration?
Refer to the exhibit.
How does router R1 forward packets destined to 10.0.4.10?
What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?
IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.
Refer to the exhibit.
The LACP EtherChannel is configured, and the last change is to modify the interfaces on SwitchA to respond to packets received, but not to initiate negotiation. The interface range gigabitethernet0/0-15 command is entered. What must be configured next?
An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different subnets to communicate locally with each other. One PC is configured with IP address 192.168.25.128/25 and the other with 192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the communication?
What is the maximum length of characters used in an SSID?
An organization developed new security policies and decided to print the policies and distribute them to all personnel so that employees review and apply the policies. Which element of a security program is the organization implementing?
Which header must be included in a REST request from an application that requires JSON-formatted content?
How does a network administrator securely manage an AP in lightweight mode?
Why would a network administrator implement the HSRP protocol?
Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)
What is a similarity between global and unique local IPv6 addresses?
What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?
How does automation affect network management processes?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the cable type on the right.
What is represented by the word "switch" within this JSON schema?
Which two principles must be considered when using per-hop behavior in QoS? (Choose two.)
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
10.90.207.87/26 [110/1912] via F0/7
10.90.207.87/26 [110/28968] via F0/6
10.90.207.87/26 [120/14] via F0/4
10.90.207.87/26 [120/11] via F0/5
Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Users will be using a preconfigured secret key and SSID and must have a secured key hashing algorithm configured. The AAA server must not be used for the user authentication method. Which action completes the task?
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.
How does automation leverage data models to reduce the operational complexity of a managed network?
Refer to the exhibit. Configurations for the switch and PCs are complete.
Which configuration must be applied so that VLANs 2 and 3 communicate back and forth?
What is an advantage of using SDN versus traditional networking when it comes to security?
Which two QoS tools provide congestion management? (Choose two.)
An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?
Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?
Which action prevents debug messages from being sent via syslog while allowing other messages when an abnormally high number of syslog messages are generated by a device with the debug process turned on?
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables SW2 to establish an LACP EtherChannel?
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring a new WLAN for a wireless network that has these requirements:
Dual-band clients that connect to the WLAN must be directed to the 5-GHz spectrum.
Wireless clients on this WLAN must be able to apply VLAN settings from RADIUS attributes.
Which two actions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
How is Al used to identify issues within network traffic?
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Refer to the exhibit. What is preventing host A from reaching the internet?
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.
Where are the real-time control functions processed in a split MAC architecture?
How does MAC learning function?
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17
O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/20
R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8
R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12
Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.
Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1. fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) ' Packets toward the entire network 2001:db8:23: :/64 must be forwarded through router R2. ' Packets toward host 2001: db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
Why are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.
Which feature, when used on a WLC, allows it to bundle its distribution system ports into one 802.3ad group?
How does MAC learning function?
Why would a network administrator choose to implement RFC 1918 address space?
Which two features are provided by Ansible in network automation? (Choose two.)
Which technology allows for logical Layer 3 separation on physical network equipment?
Why does an administrator choose to implement a remote access IPsec VPN?
Which fact must the engineer consider when implementing syslog on a new network?
All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.
What is the main purpose of SSH management access?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?
Which key function is provided by the data plane?
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4's LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Which security element uses a combination of one-time passwords, a login name, and a personal smartphone?
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?
Which technology allows multiple operating systems lo run a single physical server?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?
Which type of protocol is VRRP?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 10.30.0.1?
Which statement describes virtualization on containers?
What is the function of generative AI in network operations?
What are two behaviors of a point-to-point WAN topology? (Choose two.)
Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?
Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.