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Checkpoint 156-315.77 Check Point Certified Security Expert Exam Practice Test

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Total 754 questions

Check Point Certified Security Expert Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Steve is troubleshooting a connection problem with an internal application. If he knows the source IP address is 192.168.4.125, how could he filter this traffic?

Options:

A.

Run fw monitor -e "accept src-ip=192.168.4.125;"

B.

Run fw monitor -e "accept src=192.168.4.125;"

C.

Run fw monitor -e "accept dst-ip=192.168.4.125;"

D.

Run fw monitor -e "accept ip=192.168.4.125;"

Question 2

Fill in the blank.

Type the command and syntax to configure the Cluster Control Protocol (CCP) to use Broadcast.

Options:

Question 3

Fill in the blank.

The command useful for debugging by capturing packet information, including verifying LDAP authentication on all Check Point platforms is _____

Options:

Question 4

Jon is explaining how the inspection module works to a colleague. If a new connection passes through the inspection module and the packet matches the rule, what is the next step in the process?

Options:

A.

Verify if another rule exists.

B.

Verify if any logging or alerts are defined.

C.

Verify if the packet should be moved through the TCP/IP stack.

D.

Verify if the packet should be rejected.

Question 5

Fill in the blank.

Write the full fw command and syntax that you would use to troubleshoot ClusterXL sync issues.

Options:

Question 6

Which Check Point tool allows you to open a debug file and see the VPN packet exchange details.

Options:

A.

PacketDebug.exe

B.

VPNDebugger.exe

C.

IkeView.exe

D.

IPSECDebug.exe

Question 7

Fill in the blank.

To view the number of concurrent connections going through core 0 on the firewall, you would use the command and syntax _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____.

Options:

Question 8

MegaCorp is using SmartCenter Server with several gateways. Their requirements result in a heavy log load. Would it be feasible to add the SmartEvent Correlation Unit and SmartEvent Server to their SmartCenter Server?

Options:

A.

No. SmartCenter SIC will interfere with the function of SmartEvent.

B.

No. If SmartCenter is already under stress, the use of a separate server for SmartEvent is recommended.

C.

No, SmartEvent and Smartcenter cannot be installed on the same machine at the same time.

D.

Yes. SmartEvent must be installed on your SmartCenter Server.

Question 9

Fill in the blanks.

To view the number of concurrent connections going through your firewall, you would use the command and syntax _____ _____ _____ _____ _____.

Options:

Question 10

You run cphaprob -a if. When you review the output, you find the word DOWN. What does DOWN mean?

Options:

A.

The cluster link is down.

B.

The physical interface is administratively set to DOWN.

C.

The physical interface is down.

D.

CCP packets couldn't be sent to or didn't arrive from neighbor member.

Question 11

Security server configuration settings are stored in _____.

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf

B.

$FWDIR/conf/AMT.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwopsec.conf

D.

$FWDIR/conf/Fwauth.c

Question 12

When an Endpoint user is able to authenticate but receives a message from the client that it is unable to enforce the desktop policy, what is the most likely scenario?

Options:

A.

The gateway could not locate the user in SmartDirectory and is allowing the connection with limitations based on a generic profile.

B.

The user’s rights prevent access to the protected network.

C.

A Desktop Policy is not configured.

D.

The user is attempting to connect with the wrong Endpoint client.

Question 13

What is the proper command for importing users into the R77 User Database?

Options:

A.

fwm importusrs

B.

fwm dbimport

C.

fwm import

D.

fwm importdb

Question 14

Anytime a client initiates a connection to a server, the firewall kernel signals the FWD process using a trap. FWD spawns the _____ child service, which runs the security server.

Options:

A.

FWSD

B.

FWD

C.

In.httpd

D.

FWSSD

Question 15

The process that performs the authentication for SSL VPN Users is:

Options:

A.

cpd

B.

cvpnd

C.

fwm

D.

vpnd

Question 16

Which of the following CLISH commands would you use to set the admin user's shell to bash?

Options:

A.

set user admin shell bash

B.

set user admin shell /bin/bash

C.

set user admin shell = /bin/bash

D.

set user admin /bin/bash

Question 17

When configuring an LDAP Group object, select option _____ if you want the gateway to reference a specific group defined on the LDAP server for authentication purposes.

Options:

A.

Group Agnostic

B.

All Account-Unit's Users

C.

Only Sub Tree

D.

Only Group in Branch

Question 18

User definitions are stored in _____.

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/conf/users.NDB

B.

$FWDIR/conf/fwmuser.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwusers.conf

D.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauth.NDB

Question 19

The process _____ executes the authentication for logging in to SmartDashboard.

Options:

A.

fwm

B.

vpnd

C.

cpd

D.

cvpnd

Question 20

The process _____ is responsible for the authentication for Remote Access clients.

Options:

A.

fwm

B.

vpnd

C.

cvpnd

D.

cpd

Question 21

Where do you define NAT properties so that NAT is performed either client side or server side? In SmartDashboard under:

Options:

A.

Gateway Setting

B.

NAT Rules

C.

Global Properties > NAT definition

D.

Implied Rules

Question 22

You are the MegaCorp Security Administrator. This company uses a firewall cluster, consisting of two cluster members. The cluster generally works well but one day you find that the cluster is behaving strangely. You assume that there is a connectivity problem with the cluster synchronization link (cross-over cable). Which of the following commands is the BEST for testing the connectivity of the crossover cable?

Options:

A.

ifconfig -a

B.

arping

C.

telnet

D.

ping

Question 23

The “MAC Magic” value must be modified under the following condition:

Options:

A.

There is more than one cluster connected to the same VLAN

B.

A firewall cluster is configured to use Multicast for CCP traffic

C.

There are more than two members in a firewall cluster

D.

A firewall cluster is configured to use Broadcast for CCP traffic

Question 24

What is the proper CLISH syntax to configure a default route via 192.168.255.1 in GAiA?

Options:

A.

set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.255.1 priority 1 on

B.

set static-route 192.168.255.0/24 nexthop gateway logical ethl on

C.

set static-route 192.168.255.0/24 nexthop gateway address 192.168.255.1 priority 1 on

D.

set static-route nexthop default gateway logical 192.168.255.1 priority 1 on

Question 25

What firewall kernel table stores information about port allocations for Hide NAT connections?

Options:

A.

NAT_dst_any_list

B.

NAT_alloc

C.

NAT_src_any_list

D.

fwx_alloc

Question 26

When using Captive Portal to send unidentified users to a Web portal for authentication, which of the following is NOT a recommended use for this method?

Options:

A.

For deployment of Identity Agents

B.

Identity-based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)

C.

Leveraging identity in Internet application control

D.

Basic identity enforcement in the internal network

Question 27

Which two processes are responsible on handling Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

pdp and lad

B.

pdp and pdp-11

C.

pep and lad

D.

pdp and pep

Question 28

Which of the following access options would you NOT use when configuring Captive Portal?

Options:

A.

From the Internet

B.

Through all interfaces

C.

Through internal interfaces

D.

Through the Firewall policy

Question 29

If using AD Query for seamless identity data reception from Microsoft Active Directory (AD), which of the following methods is NOT Check Point recommended?

Options:

A.

Identity-based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)

B.

Basic identity enforcement in the internal network

C.

Leveraging identity in Internet application control

D.

Identity-based auditing and logging

Question 30

Which is NOT a method through which Identity Awareness receives its identities?

Options:

A.

AD Query

B.

Group Policy

C.

Identity Agent

D.

Captive Portal

Question 31

MultiCorp is located in Atlanta. It has a branch office in Europe, Asia, and Africa.

Each location has its own AD controller for local user login.

How many AD queries have to be configured?

Options:

A.

3

B.

1

C.

4

D.

2

Question 32

To backup all events stored in the SmartEvent Server, you should back up the contents of which folder(s)?

Options:

A.

$RTDIR/distrib_db and $FWDIR/events

B.

$RTDIR/events_db

C.

$RTDIR/distrib and $FWDIR/events_db

D.

$RTDIR/distrib

Question 33

Your primary SmartCenter Server is installed on a Secure PlatformPro machine, which is also a VPN-1 Pro Gateway. You want to implement Management High Availability (HA). You have a spare machine to configure as the secondary SmartCenter Server. How do you configure the new machine to be the standby SmartCenter Server, without making any changes to the existing primary SmartCenter Server? (Changes can include uninstalling and reinstalling.)

Options:

A.

You cannot configure Management HA, when either the primary or secondary SmartCenter Server is running on a VPN-1 Pro Gateway.

B.

The new machine cannot be installed as the Internal Certificate Authority on its own.

C.

The secondary Server cannot be installed on a SecurePlatform Pro machine alone.

D.

Install the secondary Server on the spare machine. Add the new machine to the same network as the primary Server.

Question 34

What is a task of the SmartEvent Client?

Options:

A.

Add events to the events database.

B.

Display the received events.

C.

Assign a severity level to an event.

D.

Analyze each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.

Question 35

All of the following are used by the DLP engine to match a message during a scan, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Message Body

B.

Protocol

C.

Data Type

D.

Destination

Question 36

In a Management High Availability (HA) configuration, you can configure synchronization to occur automatically, when:

1. The Security Policy is installed.

2. The Security Policy is saved.

3. The Security Administrator logs in to the secondary SmartCenter Server, and changes its status to active.

4. A scheduled event occurs.

5. The user database is installed.

Select the BEST response for the synchronization sequence. Choose one.

Options:

A.

1, 2, 3

B.

1, 2, 3, 4

C.

1, 3, 4

D.

1, 2, 5

E.

1, 2, 4

Question 37

If Victor wanted to edit new Signature Protections, what tab would he need to access in SmartDashboard?

Options:

A.

QoS Tab

B.

SmartDefense Tab

C.

IPSec VPN Tab

D.

IPS Tab

Question 38

Which one of the following processes below would not start if there was a licensing issue?

Options:

A.

CPD

B.

CPCA

C.

FWM

D.

CPWD

Question 39

In R76, My Organization e-mail addresses or domains are used for:

Options:

A.

Scanning e-mails only if its sender e-mail address is part of this definition, by default.

B.

Defining the e-mail address of the SMTP relay server.

C.

FTP traffic sent from a user where his e-mail is part of this definition scanned by DLP, by default.

D.

HTTP traffic sent from a user where his e-mail is part of this definition scanned by DLP, by default.

Question 40

You have installed a R77 Security Gateway on GAiA. To manage the Gateway from the enterprise Security Management Server, you create a new Gateway object and Security Policy.

When you install the new Policy from the Policy menu, the Gateway object does not appear in the Install Policy window as a target. What is the problem?

Options:

A.

The new Gateway's temporary license has expired.

B.

The object was created with Node > Gateway.

C.

The Gateway object is not specified in the first policy rule column Install On.

D.

No Masters file is created for the new Gateway.

Question 41

When restoring a Security Management Server from a backup file, the restore package can be retrieved from which source?

Options:

A.

Local folder, TFTP server, or Disk

B.

Disk, SCP server, or TFTP server

C.

HTTP server, FTP server, or TFTP server

D.

Local folder, TFTP server, or FTP server

Question 42

Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R77 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine.

What is the correct order of the steps below to successfully complete this procedure?

1) Export databases from source.

2) Connect target to network.

3) Prepare the source machine for export.

4) Import databases to target.

5) Install new version on target.

6) Test target deployment.

Options:

A.

3, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6

B.

5, 2, 6, 3, 1, 4

C.

3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2

D.

6, 5, 3, 1, 4, 2

Question 43

MegaCorps' disaster recovery plan is past due for an update to the backup and restore section to enjoy the benefits of the new distributed R77 installation. You must propose a plan that meets the following required and desired objectives:

Required: Security Policy repository must be backed up no less frequently than every 24 hours.

Desired: Back up R77 components enforcing the Security Policies at least once a week.

Desired: Back up R77 logs at least once a week.

You develop a disaster recovery plan proposing the following:

The corporate IT change review committee decides your plan:

Options:

A.

meets the required objective and only one desired objective.

B.

meets the required objective and both desired objectives.

C.

meets the rquired objective but does not meet either deisred objective.

D.

does not meet the required objective.

Question 44

What tool exports the Management Configuration into a single file?

Options:

A.

CPConfig_Export

B.

Backup

C.

Upgrade_Export

D.

migrate export

Question 45

MegaCorp has two different types of hardware with Check Point GAiA installed and set up as gateways. The Administrator wants to provide redundancy in case one of them fails. Choose the best approach.

Options:

A.

Configure Gateway HA

B.

Configure Management HA for gateways

C.

Configure ClusterXL

D.

Configure VRRP

Question 46

Which command would you use to save the interface information before upgrading a GAiA Gateway?

Options:

A.

save configuration

B.

cp /etc/sysconfig/network.C [location]

C.

netstat –rn > [filename].txt

D.

ifconfig > [filename].txt

Question 47

You need to back up the routing, interface, and DNS configuration information from your R77 GAiA Security Gateway. Which backup-and-restore solution do you use?

Options:

A.

Manual copies of the directory $FWDIR/conf

B.

GAiA back up utilities

C.

Database Revision Control

D.

Commands upgrade_export and upgrade_import

Question 48

Which of the following statements accurately describes the migrate command?

Options:

A.

upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be included or excluded before exporting.

B.

Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, migrate stores all object databases and the conf directories for importing to a newer version of the Security Gateway.

C.

Used when upgrading the Security Gateway, upgrade_export includes modified files, such as in the directories /lib and /conf.

D.

upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server.

Question 49

What process manages the dynamic routing protocols (OSPF, RIP, etc.) on GAiA?

Options:

A.

routed

B.

There's no separate process, but the Linux default router can take care of that.

C.

routerd

D.

arouted

Question 50

Select the command set best used to verify proper failover function of a new ClusterXL configuration.

Options:

A.

reboot

B.

cphaprob -d failDevice -s problem -t 0 register / cphaprob -d failDevice unregister

C.

clusterXL_admin down / clusterXL_admin up

D.

cpstop/cpstart

Question 51

Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

Transparent upgrades

B.

Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization

C.

Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)

D.

Transparent failover in case of device failures

Question 52

What could be a reason why synchronization between primary and secondary Security Management Servers does not occur?

Options:

A.

If the set of installed products differ from each other, the Security Management Servers do not synchronize the database to each other.

B.

You have installed both Security Management Servers on different server systems (e. g. one machine on HP hardware and the other one on DELL).

C.

You are using different time zones.

D.

You did not activate synchronization within Global Properties.

Question 53

In Management High Availability, what is an Active SMS?

Options:

A.

Active Security Master Server

B.

Active Smart Master Server

C.

Active Smart Management Server

D.

Active Security Management Server

Question 54

A connection is said to be Sticky when:

Options:

A.

A copy of each packet in the connection sticks in the connection table until a corresponding reply packet is received from the other side.

B.

A connection is not terminated by either side by FIN or RST packet.

C.

All the connection packets are handled, in either direction, by a single cluster member.

D.

The connection information sticks in the connection table even after the connection has ended.

Question 55

How do new connections get established through a Security Gateway with SecureXL enabled?

Options:

A.

New connections are always inspected by the firewall and if they are accepted, the subsequent packets of the same connection will be passed through SecureXL

B.

New connection packets never reach the SecureXL module.

C.

The new connection will be first inspected by SecureXL and if it does not match the drop table of SecureXL, then it will be passed to the firewall module for a rule match.

D.

If the connection matches a connection or drop template in SecureXL, it will either be established or dropped without performing a rule match, else it will be passed to the firewall module for a rule match.

Question 56

What can you do to see the current number of kernel instances in a system with CoreXL enabled?

Options:

A.

Only Check Point support personnel can access that information.

B.

Run command cpconfig.

C.

Execute SmartDashboard client.

D.

Browse to Secure Platform Web GUI.

Question 57

In SmartDirectory, what is each LDAP server called?

Options:

A.

Account Server

B.

LDAP Unit

C.

Account Unit

D.

LDAP Server

Question 58

The process _____ complies $FWDIR/CONF/*.W files into machine language.

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fw gen

C.

cpd

D.

fwm

Question 59

Which is the lowest Gateway version manageable by SmartCenter R77?

Options:

A.

R65

B.

S71

C.

R55

D.

R60A

Question 60

When migrating the SmartEvent data base from one server to another, the last step is to save the files on the new server. Which of the following commands should you run to save the SmartEvent data base files on the new server?

Options:

A.

cp

B.

restore

C.

migrate import

D.

eva_db_restore

Question 61

When restoring R76 using the command upgrade_import, which of the following items are NOT restored?

Options:

A.

Global properties

B.

Route tables

C.

Licenses

D.

SIC Certificates

Question 62

To change the default port of the Management Portal:

Options:

A.

Edit the masters. conf file on the Portal server.

B.

Modify the file cp_httpd_admin .conf.

C.

Run sysconfig and change the management interface

D.

Re-initialize SIC

Question 63

Which Check Point QoS feature is used to dynamically allocate relative portions of available bandwidth?

Options:

A.

Guarantees

B.

Weighted Fair Queuing

C.

Low Latency Queuing

D.

Differentiated Services

Question 64

A user cannot authenticate to SSL VPN. You have verified the user is assigned a user group and reproduced the problem, confirming a failed-login session. You do not see an indication of this attempt in the traffic log. The user is not using a client certificate for login.

To debug this error, where in the authentication process could the solution be found?

Options:

A.

apache

B.

admin

C.

cvpnd

D.

cpauth

Question 65

Which Protection Mode does not exist in IPS?

Options:

A.

Allow

B.

Detect

C.

Prevent

D.

Inactive

Question 66

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding OSPF configuration on Secure Platform Pro?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1 creates the Router ID for the Security Gateway and should be the same ID for all Gateways.

B.

router ospf 1 creates the Router ID for the Security Gateway and should be different for all Gateways.

C.

router ospf 1 creates an OSPF routing instance and this process ID should be different for each Security Gateway.

D.

router ospf 1 creates an OSPF routing instance and this process ID should be the same on all Gateways.

Question 67

What are you required to do before running upgrade_export?

Options:

A.

Run a cpstop on the Security Gateway.

B.

Run cpconfig and set yourself up as a GUI client.

C.

Run a cpstop on the Security Management Server.

D.

Close all GUI clients.

Question 68

You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules:

an H.323 rule with a weight of 10, and the Default Rule with a weight of 10.

The H.323 rule includes a per-connection guarantee of 384 Kbps. and a per-connection limit of 512 Kbps. The per-connection guarantee is for four connections, and no additional connections are allowed in the Action properties. If traffic is passing through the QoS Module matches both rules, which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Each H.323 connection will receive at least 512 Kbps of bandwidth.

B.

The H.323 rule will consume no more than 2048 Kbps of available bandwidth.

C.

50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the Default Rule.

D.

Neither rule will be allocated more than 10% of available bandwidth.

Question 69

You are configuring the VoIP Domain object for a Skinny Client Control Protocol (SCCP) environment protected by VPN-1 NGX. Which VoIP Domain object type can you use?

Options:

A.

CallManager

B.

Gatekeeper

C.

Gateway

D.

Proxy

E.

Transmission Router

Question 70

Laura notices the Microsoft Visual Basic Bits Protection is set to inactive. She wants to set the Microsoft Visual Basic Kill Bits Protection and all other Low Performance Impact Protections to Prevent. She asks her manager for approval and stated she can turn theses on.

But he wants Laura to make sure no high Performance Impacted Protections are turned on while changing this setting.

Using the out below, how would Laura change the Default_Protection on Performance Impact Protections classified as low from inactive to prevent until meeting her other criteria?

Options:

A.

Go to Profiles / Default_Protection and uncheck Do not activate protections with performance impact to medium or above

B.

Go to Profiles / Default_Protection and select Do not activate protections with performance impact to low or above

C.

Go to Profiles / Default_Protection and select Do not activate protections with performance impact to medium or above

D.

Go to Profiles / Default_Protection and uncheck Do not activate protections with performance impact to high or above

Question 71

MegaCorp is running Smartcenter R70, some Gateways at R65 and some other Gateways with R60. Management wants to upgrade to the most comprehensive IPv6 support. What should the administrator do first?

Options:

A.

Upgrade Smartcenter to R77 first.

B.

Upgrade R60-Gateways to R65.

C.

Upgrade every unit directly to R77.

D.

Check the ReleaseNotes to verify that every step is supported.

Question 72

MultiCorp is running Smartcenter R71 on an IPSO platform and wants to upgrade to a new Appliance with R77. Which migration tool is recommended?

Options:

A.

Download Migration Tool R77 for IPSO and Splat/Linux from Check Point website.

B.

Use already installed Migration Tool.

C.

Use Migration Tool from CD/ISO

D.

Fetch Migration Tool R71 for IPSO and Migration Tool R77 for Splat/Linux from CheckPoint website

Question 73

Paul has just joined the MegaCorp security administration team. Natalie, the administrator, creates a new administrator account for Paul in SmartDashboard and installs the policy. When Paul tries to login it fails. How can Natalie verify whether Paul’s IP address is predefined on the security management server?

Options:

A.

Login to Smart Dashboard, access Properties of the SMS, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.

B.

Type cpconfig on the Management Server and select the option “GUI client List” to see if Paul’s IP address is listed.

C.

Login in to Smart Dashboard, access Global Properties, and select Security Management, to verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.

D.

Access the WEBUI on the Security Gateway, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed as a GUI client.

Question 74

Which of the following is NOT an internal/native Check Point command?

Options:

A.

fwaccel on

B.

fw ctl debug

C.

tcpdump

D.

cphaprob

Question 75

How does Check Point recommend that you secure the sync interface between gateways?

Options:

A.

Use a dedicated sync network.

B.

Configure the sync network to operate within the DMZ.

C.

Secure each sync interface in a cluster with Endpoint.

D.

Encrypt all sync traffic between cluster members.

Question 76

How do you verify the Check Point kernel running on a firewall?

Options:

A.

fw ver -k

B.

fw ctl pstat

C.

fw ctl get kernel

D.

fw kernel

Question 77

Katie has enabled User Directory and applied the license to Security Management Server, Green. Her supervisor has asked her to configure the Password Strength options of the least one digit, one symbol, 8 characters long and include an uppercase character. How should she accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Open the SmartDashboard, Select Global properties, select Identity Awareness; check the boxes for Password must include an upper character, Password must include a digit, Password must include a symbol and change the password length to 8 characters.

B.

Open the SmartDashboard, Select Global properties, select User Authority; check the boxes for Password must include an upper character, Password must include a digit and Password must include a symbol.

C.

Open the SmartDashboard, Select Global Properties, select User Directory, check the boxes for Password must include an uppercase character, Password must include a digit, and Password must include a symbol.

D.

Open the SmartDashboard, Select Global Properties, select User Directory, check the boxes for Password must include an uppercase character, Password must include a digit, Password must include a symbol and change the password length to 8 characters.

Question 78

Which graded parameters help determine the protections to activate for security and which can be safely deactivated? Select the most correct answer.

Options:

A.

Type, Severity, Confidence level, Performance impact, Geo information.

B.

Severity, Confidence level, Performance impact, Protection type.

C.

Type, Severity, Confidence level, Performance impact.

D.

Type, Severity, Confidence level, Performance impact, Protection type.

Question 79

Frank is concerned with performance and wants to configure the affinities settings. His gateway does not have the Performance pack running. What would Frank need to perform in order configure those settings?

Options:

A.

Edit affinity.conf and change the settings

B.

Run fw affinity and change the settings

C.

Edit $FWDIR/conf/fwaffinity.conf and change the settings

D.

Run sim affinity and change the settings

Question 80

Which Check Point ClusterXL mode is used to synchronize the physical interface IP and MAC addresses on all clustered interfaces.

Options:

A.

Legacy Mode HA

B.

Pivot Mode Load Sharing

C.

New Mode HA

D.

Multicast Mode Load Sharing

Question 81

Which of the following log files contains verbose information regarding the negotiation process and other encryption failures?

Options:

A.

ike.elg

B.

vpn.elg

C.

iked.elg

D.

vpnd.elg

Question 82

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN’s?

Options:

A.

The VPN Client selects which Security Gateway takes over, should the first connection fail.

B.

MEP VPN’s are restricted to the location of the gateways.

C.

State synchronization between Security Gateways is required.

D.

MEP Security Gateways cannot be managed by separate Management Servers.

Question 83

Fill in the blank.

To verify that a VPN Tunnel is properly established, use the command _____.

Options:

Question 84

You are trying to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the Match column does not have the option to see the Directional Match. You see the following window. What must you enable to see the Directional Match?

Exhibit:

Options:

A.

directional_match (true) in the objects_5_0.C file on Security Management Server

B.

VPN Directional Match on the Gateway object’s VPN tab

C.

VPN Directional Match on the VPN advanced window, in Global Properties

D.

Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway

Question 85

If you need strong protection for the encryption of user data, what option would be the BEST choice?

Options:

A.

Use Diffie-Hellman for key construction and pre-shared keys for Quick Mode. Choose SHA in Quick Mode and encrypt with AES. Use AH protocol. Switch to Aggressive Mode.

B.

When you need strong encryption, IPsec is not the best choice. SSL VPN’s are a better choice.

C.

Use certificates for Phase 1, SHA for all hashes, AES for all encryption and PFS, and use ESP protocol.

D.

Disable Diffie-Hellman by using stronger certificate based key-derivation. Use AES-256 bit on all encrypted channels and add PFS to QuickMode. Use double encryption by implementing AH and ESP as protocols.

Question 86

Which statement defines Public Key Infrastructure? Security is provided:

Options:

A.

by authentication.

B.

via both private and public keys, without the use of digital Certificates.

C.

by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and public key encryption.

D.

by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and two-way symmetric-key encryption.

Question 87

Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?

Options:

A.

They are supported on the GAiA Operating System.

B.

Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured.

C.

VTIs can only be physical, not loopback.

D.

VTIs cannot be assigned a proxy interface.

Question 88

What is the most common cause for a Quick mode packet 1 failing with the error “No Proposal Chosen” error?

Options:

A.

The encryption strength and hash settings of one peer does not match the other.

B.

The previously established Permanent Tunnel has failed.

C.

There is a network connectivity issue.

D.

The OS and patch level of one gateway does not match the other.

Question 89

Remote clients are using SSL VPN to authenticate via LDAP server to connect to the organization. Which gateway process is responsible for the authentication?

Options:

A.

vpnd

B.

cvpnd

C.

fwm

D.

fwd

Question 90

When configuring a Permanent Tunnel between two gateways in a Meshed VPN community, in what object is the tunnel managed?

Options:

A.

VPN Community object

B.

Only the local Security Gateway object

C.

Each participating Security Gateway object

D.

Security Management Server

Question 91

When two or more DLP rules are matched, the action taken is the most restrictive action.

Rank the following items from the lowest restriction level (1) to the highest (4).

1. Ask User

2. Prevent

3. Detect

4. Inform User

Options:

A.

3,4,1,2

B.

3,1,4,2

C.

4,3,1,2

D.

4,1,3,2

Question 92

Choose all correct statements. SmartUpdate, located on a VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server, allows you to:

(1) Remotely perform a first time installation of VPN-1 NGX on a new machine

(2) Determine OS patch levels on remote machines

(3) Update installed Check Point and any OPSEC certified software remotely

(4) Update installed Check Point software remotely

(5) Track installed versions of Check Point and OPSEC products

(6) Centrally manage licenses

Options:

A.

4, 5, & 6

B.

2, 4, 5, & 6

C.

1 & 4

D.

1, 3, 4, & 6

Question 93

You just upgraded to R71 and are using the IPS Software Blade.

You want to enable all critical protections while keeping the rate of false positive very low.

How can you achieve this?

Options:

A.

new IPS system is based on policies, but it has no ability to calculate or change the confidence level, so it always has a high rate of false positives.

B.

As in SmartDefense, this can be achieved by activating all the critical checks manually.

C.

The new IPS system is based on policies and gives you the ability to activate all checks with critical severity and a high confidence level.

D.

This can't be achieved; activating any IPS system always causes a high rate of false positives.

Question 94

Which of the following are valid reasons for beginning with a fresh installation VPN-1 NGX R65, instead of upgrading a previous version to VPN-1 NGX R65? Select all that apply.

Options:

A.

You see a more logical way to organize your rules and objects

B.

You want to keep your Check Point configuration.

C.

Your Security Policy includes rules and objects whose purpose you do not know.

D.

Objects and rules' naming conventions have changed over time.

Question 95

Which of these four Check Point QoS technologies prevents the transmission of redundant packets when multiple copies of a packet are concurrently queued on the same flow?

Options:

A.

Weighted Flow Random Early Drop (WFRED)

B.

Intelligent Queuing Engine

C.

Retransmission Detection Early Drop (RDED)

D.

Stateful Inspection

Question 96

Public-key cryptography is considered which of the following?

Options:

A.

two-key/symmetric

B.

one-key/asymmetric

C.

two-key/asymmetric

D.

one-key/symmetric

Question 97

Your customer wishes to install the SmartWorkflow Software Blade on a R70 Security Management server (Secure Platform).

Which is the correct method?

Options:

A.

When you install the R70.1 package on an R70 Security Management server, it will be upgraded to version R70.1 with SmartWorkflow.

B.

The SmartWorkflow works directly on the version R70. Install the SmartWorkflow as an add-on. The version of the Management server remains R70.

C.

You must upgrade the Management Server to the version R70.1 first before you start the installation of the SmartWorkflow Software Blade plug-in.

D.

The SmartWorkflow Software Blade is included in the standard R70 version. You need to enable it via cpconfig.

Question 98

Your company is planning on moving their server farm to a new datacenter which requires IP changes to important network services including DNS, DHCP, and TFTP. Rather than manually logging in to all your firewalls and modifying the settings individually, you decide to purchase and enable SmartProvisioning. Assuming all your firewalls are on SPLAT, what is the minimum version required to update the firewalls' DNS and backup settings via SmartProvisioning?

Options:

A.

R62

B.

R60 HFA 02

C.

R65 HFA 40

D.

R71

Question 99

What happens in relation to the CRL cache after a cpstop;spstart has been initiated?

Options:

A.

The gateway continues to use the old CRL even if it is not valid, until a new CRL is cached

B.

The gateway continues to use the old CRL, as long as it is valid.

C.

The gateway issues a crl_zap on startup, which empties the cache and forces Certificate retrieval.

D.

The gateway retrieves a new CRL on startup, then discards the old CRL as invalid.

Question 100

A user attempts to initialize a network application using SSL Network Extender.

The application fails to start. What is the MOST LIKELY solution?

Options:

A.

Select the option Auto-detect client capabilities.

B.

Select the option Enable SSL Network Extender Application Mode only.

C.

Select the option Turn off all SSL tunneling clients.

D.

Select the option Enable SSL Network Extender Network Mode only.

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