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Checkpoint 156-215.80 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R80 Exam Practice Test

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Total 525 questions

Check Point Certified Security Administrator R80 Questions and Answers

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Question 1

What must a Security Administrator do to comply with a management requirement to log all traffic accepted through the perimeter Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

In Global Properties > Reporting Tools check the box Enable tracking all rules (including rules marked as None in the Track column). Send these logs to a secondary log server for a complete logging history. Use your normal log server for standard logging for troubleshooting.

B.

Install the View Implicit Rules package using SmartUpdate.

C.

Define two log servers on the R77 Gateway object. Lof Implied Rules on the first log server. Enable Log Rule Base on the second log server. Use SmartReporter to merge the two log server records into the same database for HIPPA log audits.

D.

Check the Log Implied Rules Globally box on the R77 Gateway object.

Question 2

You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your suspicious?

Options:

A.

SmartDashboard

B.

SmartUpdate

C.

SmartView Status

D.

SmartView Tracker

Question 3

When using GAiA, it might be necessary to temporarily change the MAC address of the interface eth 0 to 00:0C:29:12:34:56. After restarting the network the old MAC address should be active. How do you configure this change?

Options:

A.

As expert user, issue these commands:# IP link set eth0 down# IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56# IP link set eth0 up

B.

Edit the file /etc/sysconfig/netconf.C and put the new MAC address in the field(conf:(conns:(conn:hwaddr (“00:0C:29?:12:34:56”)

C.

As expert user, issue the command:# IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56

D.

Open the WebUI, select Network > Connections > eth0. Place the new MAC address in the field Physical Address, and press Apply to save the settings.

Question 4

An internal router is sending UDP keep-alive packets that are being encapsulated with GRE and sent through your R77 Security Gateway to a partner site. A rule for GRE traffic is configured for ACCEPT/LOG. Although the keep-alive packets are being sent every minute, a search through the SmartView Tracker logs for GRE traffic only shows one entry for the whole day (early in the morning after a Policy install).

Your partner site indicates they are successfully receiving the GRE encapsulated keep-alive packets on the 1-minute interval.

If GRE encapsulation is turned off on the router, SmartView Tracker shows a log entry for the UDP keep-alive packet every minute.

Which of the following is the BEST explanation for this behavior?

Options:

A.

The setting Log does not capture this level of detail for GRE. Set the rule tracking action to Audit since certain types of traffic can only be tracked this way.

B.

The log unification process is using a LUUID (Log Unification Unique Identification) that has become corrupt. Because it is encrypted, the R77 Security Gateway cannot distinguish between GRE sessions. This is a known issue with GRE. Use IPSEC instead of the non-standard GRE protocol for encapsulation.

C.

The Log Server log unification process unifies all log entries from the Security Gateway on a specific connection into only one log entry in the SmartView Tracker. GRE traffic has a 10 minute session timeout, thus each keep-alive packet is considered part of the original logged connection at the beginning of the day.

D.

The Log Server is failing to log GRE traffic properly because it is VPN traffic. Disable all VPN configuration to the partner site to enable proper logging.

Question 5

Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.

Blocks or limits usage of web applications

B.

Prevents or controls access to web sites based on category

C.

Prevents Cloud vulnerability exploits

D.

A worldwide collaborative security network

Question 6

Which of the following actions do NOT take place in IKE Phase 1?

Options:

A.

Peers agree on encryption method.

B.

Diffie-Hellman key is combined with the key material to produce the symmetrical IPsec key.

C.

Peers agree on integrity method.

D.

Each side generates a session key from its private key and peer's public key.

Question 7

Your users are defined in a Windows 2008 R2 Active Directory server. You must add LDAP users to a Client Authentication rule. Which kind of user group do you need in the Client Authentication rule in R77?

Options:

A.

External-user group

B.

LDAP group

C.

A group with a genetic user

D.

All Users

Question 8

Which limitation of CoreXL is overcome by using (mitigated by) Multi-Queue?

Options:

A.

There is no traffic queue to be handled

B.

Several NICs can use one traffic queue by one CPU

C.

Each NIC has several traffic queues that are handled by multiple CPU cores

D.

Each NIC has one traffic queue that is handled by one CPU

Question 9

John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimize malware infection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address 10.0.0.19.

John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but that limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his desktop with a static IP (10.0.0.19). He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server.

To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:

1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources installs the policy.

2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location.

3) Changes from static IP address to DHCP for the client PC.

What should John request when he cannot access the web server from his laptop?

Options:

A.

John should lock and unlock his computer

B.

Investigate this as a network connectivity issue

C.

The access should be changed to authenticate the user instead of the PC

D.

John should install the Identity Awareness Agent

Question 10

You are about to integrate RSA SecurID users into the Check Point infrastructure. What kind of users are to be defined via SmartDashboard?

Options:

A.

A group with generic user

B.

All users

C.

LDAP Account Unit Group

D.

Internal user Group

Question 11

As a Security Administrator, you must refresh the Client Authentication authorized time-out every time a new user connection is authorized. How do you do this? Enable the Refreshable Timeout setting:

Options:

A.

in the user object's Authentication screen.

B.

in the Gateway object's Authentication screen.

C.

in the Limit tab of the Client Authentication Action Properties screen.

D.

in the Global Properties Authentication screen.

Question 12

You have just installed your Gateway and want to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic with SmartView Monitor.

Unfortunately, you get the message:

“There are no machines that contain Firewall Blade and SmartView Monitor”.

What should you do to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic? Give the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Management Server.

B.

Enable Monitoring on your Security Management Server.

C.

Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Gateway.

D.

Enable Monitoring on your Security Gateway.

Question 13

Where does the security administrator activate Identity Awareness within SmartDashboard?

Options:

A.

Gateway Object > General Properties

B.

Security Management Server > Identity Awareness

C.

Policy > Global Properties > Identity Awareness

D.

LDAP Server Object > General Properties

Question 14

According to Check Point Best Practice, when adding a 3rd party gateway to a Check Point security solution what object SHOULD be added? A(n):

Options:

A.

Interoperable Device

B.

Network Node

C.

Externally managed gateway

D.

Gateway

Question 15

What is the appropriate default Gaia Portal address?

Options:

A.

HTTP://[IPADDRESS]

B.

HTTPS://[IPADDRESS]:8080

C.

HTTPS://[IPADDRESS]:4434

D.

HTTPS://[IPADDRESS]

Question 16

You have two rules, ten users, and two user groups in a Security Policy. You create database version 1 for this configuration. You then delete two existing users and add a new user group. You modify one rule and add two new rules to the Rule Base. You save the Security Policy and create database version 2. After a while, you decide to roll back to version 1 to use the Rule Base, but you want to keep your user database. How can you do this?

Options:

A.

Run fwm dbexport -1 filename. Restore the database. Then, run fwm dbimport -1 filename to import the users.

B.

Run fwm_dbexport to export the user database. Select restore the entire database in the Database Revision screen. Then, run fwm_dbimport.

C.

Restore the entire database, except the user database, and then create the new user and user group.

D.

Restore the entire database, except the user database.

Question 17

When defining QoS global properties, which option below is not valid?

Options:

A.

Weight

B.

Authenticated timeout

C.

Schedule

D.

Rate

Question 18

What is the purpose of Priority Delta in VRRP?

Options:

A.

When a box is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

B.

When an Interface is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

C.

When an Interface fails, Effective Priority = Priority - Priority Delta

D.

When a box fails, Effective Priority = Priority - Priority Delta

Question 19

What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

Options:

A.

This is a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack against its sender

B.

This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it prior to sending it to the intended recipient

C.

This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and to put it into the SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring).

D.

Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast

Question 20

The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The traffic is allowed according to the rule base and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated. What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?

Options:

A.

There is a virus found. Traffic is still allowed but not accelerated

B.

The connection required a Security server

C.

Acceleration is not enabled

D.

The traffic is originating from the gateway itself

Question 21

In order to modify Security Policies the administrator can use which of the following tools? Select the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

Command line of the Security Management Server or mgmt_cli.exe on any Windows computer.

B.

SmartConsole and WebUI on the Security Management Server.

C.

mgmt_cli or WebUI on Security Gateway and SmartConsole on the Security Management Server.

D.

SmartConsole or mgmt_cli on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.

Question 22

You installed Security Management Server on a computer using GAiA in the MegaCorp home office. You use IP address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the Security Gateway on a second GAiA computer, which you plan to ship to another Administrator at a MegaCorp hub office. What is the correct order for pushing SIC certificates to the Gateway before shipping it?

1. Run cpconfig on the Gateway, select Secure Internal Communication, enter the activation key, and reconfirm.

2. Initialize Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) on the Security Management Server.

3. Configure the Gateway object with the host name and IP addresses for the remote site.

4. Click the Communication button in the Gateway object's General screen, enter the activation key, and click Initialize and OK.

5. Install the Security Policy.

Options:

A.

2, 3, 4, 1, 5

B.

2, 1, 3, 4, 5

C.

1, 3, 2, 4, 5

D.

2, 3, 4, 5, 1

Question 23

You are going to upgrade from R77 to R80. Before the upgrade, you want to back up the system so that, if there are any problems, you can easily restore to the old version with all configuration and management files intact. What is the BEST backup method in this scenario?

Options:

A.

backup

B.

Database Revision

C.

snapshot

D.

migrate export

Question 24

On the following picture an administrator configures Identity Awareness:

After clicking “Next” the above configuration is supported by:

Options:

A.

Kerberos SSO which will be working for Active Directory integration

B.

Based on Active Directory integration which allows the Security Gateway to correlate Active Directory users and machines to IP addresses in a method that is completely transparent to the user

C.

Obligatory usage of Captive Portal

D.

The ports 443 or 80 what will be used by Browser-Based and configured Authentication

Question 25

Your manager requires you to setup a VPN to a new business partner site. The administrator from the partner site gives you his VPN settings and you notice that he setup AES 128 for IKE phase 1 and AES 256 for IKE phase 2. Why is this a problematic setup?

Options:

A.

The two algorithms do not have the same key length and so don't work together. You will get the error … No proposal chosen…

B.

All is fine as the longest key length has been chosen for encrypting the data and a shorter key length for higher performance for setting up the tunnel.

C.

Only 128 bit keys are used for phase 1 keys which are protecting phase 2, so the longer key length in phase 2 only costs performance and does not add security due to a shorter key in phase 1.

D.

All is fine and can be used as is.

Question 26

What statement is true regarding Visitor Mode?

Options:

A.

VPN authentication and encrypted traffic are tunneled through port TCP 443.

B.

Only ESP traffic is tunneled through port TCP 443.

C.

Only Main mode and Quick mode traffic are tunneled on TCP port 443.

D.

All VPN traffic is tunneled through UDP port 4500.

Question 27

MyCorp has the following NAT rules. You need to disable the NAT function when Alpha-internal networks try to reach the Google DNS (8.8.8.8) server.

What can you do in this case?

Options:

A.

Use manual NAT rule to make an exception

B.

Use the NAT settings in the Global Properties

C.

Disable NAT inside the VPN community

D.

Use network exception in the Alpha-internal network object

Question 28

Which command is used to obtain the configuration lock in Gaia?

Options:

A.

Lock database override

B.

Unlock database override

C.

Unlock database lock

D.

Lock database user

Question 29

Which of the following is NOT defined by an Access Role object?

Options:

A.

Source Network

B.

Source Machine

C.

Source User

D.

Source Server

Question 30

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

Options:

A.

Monitor

B.

CLI.sh

C.

Read-only

D.

Bash

Question 31

What port is used for delivering logs from the gateway to the management server?

Options:

A.

Port 258

B.

Port 18209

C.

Port 257

D.

Port 981

Question 32

Which authentication scheme requires a user to possess a token?

Options:

A.

TACACS

B.

SecurID

C.

Check Point password

D.

RADIUS

Question 33

When using LDAP as an authentication method for Identity Awareness, the query:

Options:

A.

Requires client and server side software.

B.

Prompts the user to enter credentials.

C.

Requires administrators to specifically allow LDAP traffic to and from the LDAP Server and the Security Gateway.

D.

Is transparent, requiring no client or server side software, or client intervention.

Question 34

Your bank's distributed R77 installation has Security Gateways up for renewal. Which SmartConsole application will tell you which Security Gateways have licenses that will expire within the next 30 days?

Options:

A.

SmartView Tracker

B.

SmartPortal

C.

SmartUpdate

D.

SmartDashboard

Question 35

R80 Security Management Server can be installed on which of the following operating systems?

Options:

A.

Gaia only

B.

Gaia, SPLAT, Windows Server only

C.

Gaia, SPLAT, Windows Server and IPSO only

D.

Gaia and SPLAT only

Question 36

Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using multiple LDAP servers?

Options:

A.

You achieve a faster access time by placing LDAP servers containing the database at remote sites

B.

Information on a user is hidden, yet distributed across several servers

C.

You achieve compartmentalization by allowing a large number of users to be distributed across several servers

D.

You gain High Availability by replicating the same information on several servers

Question 37

Administrator wishes to update IPS from SmartConsole by clicking on the option “update now” under the IPS tab. Which device requires internet access for the update to work?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Device where SmartConsole is installed

C.

SMS

D.

SmartEvent

Question 38

You want to define a selected administrator's permission to edit a layer. However, when you click the + sign in the “Select additional profile that will be able edit this layer” you do not see anything. What is the most likely cause of this problem? Select the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

“Edit layers by Software Blades” is unselected in the Permission Profile

B.

There are no permission profiles available and you need to create one first.

C.

All permission profiles are in use.

D.

“Edit layers by selected profiles in a layer editor” is unselected in the Permission profile.

Question 39

Provide very wide coverage for all products and protocols, with noticeable performance impact.

How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level? Select the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

Set High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive.

B.

Set the Performance Impact to Medium or lower.

C.

The problem is not with the Threat Prevention Profile. Consider adding more memory to the appliance.

D.

Set the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent.

Question 40

Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Application Control

D.

Threat Extraction

Question 41

You are the administrator for Alpha Corp. You have logged into your R80 Management server. You are making some changes in the Rule Base and notice that rule No.6 has a pencil icon next to it.

What does this mean?

Options:

A.

The rule No.6 has been marked for deletion in your Management session.

B.

The rule No.6 has been marked for deletion in another Management session.

C.

The rule No.6 has been marked for editing in your Management session.

D.

The rule No.6 has been marked for editing in another Management session.

Question 42

Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensive against malicious and unwanted network traffic, focusing on application and server vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Anti-Virus

B.

IPS

C.

Anti-Spam

D.

Anti-bot

Question 43

Fill in the blank: To build an effective Security Policy, use a ________ and _______ rule.

Options:

A.

Cleanup; stealth

B.

Stealth; implicit

C.

Cleanup; default

D.

Implicit; explicit

Question 44

By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?

Options:

A.

80

B.

4434

C.

443

D.

8080

Question 45

Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model? Select the Best answer.

Options:

A.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the gateway and has no dependency of the Security Management Server.

B.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the Security Management Server and has no dependency of the gateway.

C.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the gateway management interface and has no Security Management Server dependency.

D.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the Security Management Server Mgmt-interface and has no dependency of the gateway.

Question 46

Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R80 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he does NOT include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?

Options:

A.

One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes.

B.

One machine

C.

Two machines

D.

Three machines

Question 47

Which options are given on features, when editing a Role on Gaia Platform?

Options:

A.

Read/Write, Read Only

B.

Read/Write, Read only, None

C.

Read/Write, None

D.

Read Only, None

Question 48

Fill in the blank: The __________ is used to obtain identification and security information about network users.

Options:

A.

User Directory

B.

User server

C.

UserCheck

D.

User index

Question 49

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

Options:

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

Security Gateway

Question 50

Which type of Check Point license is tied to the IP address of a specific Security Gateway and cannot be transferred to a gateway that has a different IP address?

Options:

A.

Central

B.

Corporate

C.

Formal

D.

Local

Question 51

What are the three essential components of the Check Point Security Management Architecture?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateway

B.

SmartConsole, SmartUpdate, Security Gateway

C.

Security Management Server, Security Gateway, Command Line Interface

D.

WebUI, SmartConsole, Security Gateway

Question 52

Web Control Layer has been set up using the settings in the following dialogue:

Consider the following policy and select the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

Traffic that does not match any rule in the subpolicy is dropped.

B.

All employees can access only Youtube and Vimeo.

C.

Access to Youtube and Vimeo is allowed only once a day.

D.

Anyone from internal network can access the internet, expect the traffic defined in drop rules 5.2, 5.5 and 5.6.

Question 53

Which of the following Automatically Generated Rules NAT rules have the lowest implementation priority?

Options:

A.

Machine Hide NAT

B.

Address Range Hide NAT

C.

Network Hide NAT

D.

Machine Static NAT

Question 54

Which of the following ClusterXL modes uses a non-unicast MAC address for the cluster IP address?

Options:

A.

High Availability

B.

Load Sharing Multicast

C.

Load Sharing Pivot

D.

Master/Backup

Question 55

While enabling the Identity Awareness blade the Identity Awareness wizard does not automatically detect the windows domain. Why does it not detect the windows domain?

Options:

A.

Security Gateways is not part of the Domain

B.

SmartConsole machine is not part of the domain

C.

SMS is not part of the domain

D.

Identity Awareness is not enabled on Global properties

Question 56

On the following graphic, you will find layers of policies.

What is a precedence of traffic inspection for the defined polices?

Options:

A.

A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in the networks policy layer and then if implicit Drop Rule drops the packet, it comes next to IPS layer and then after accepting the packet it passes to Threat Prevention layer.

B.

A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in the networks policy layer and then if there is any rule which accepts the packet, it comes next to IPS layer and then after accepting the packet it passes to Threat Prevention layer

C.

A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in the networks policy layer and then if there is any rule which accepts the packet, it comes next to Threat Prevention layer and then after accepting the packet it passes to IPS layer.

D.

A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in IPS policy layer and then it comes next to the Network policy layer and then after accepting the packet it passes to Threat Prevention layer.

Question 57

Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?

Options:

A.

Application Dictionary

B.

AppWiki

C.

Application Library

D.

CPApp

Question 58

When a packet arrives at the gateway, the gateway checks it against the rules in the top Policy Layer, sequentially from top to bottom, and enforces the first rule that matches a packet. Which of the following statements about the order of rule enforcement is true?

Options:

A.

If the Action is Accept, the gateway allows the packet to pass through the gateway.

B.

If the Action is Drop, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down.

C.

If the Action is Accept, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down.

D.

If the Action is Drop, the gateway applies the Implicit Clean-up Rule for that Policy Layer.

Question 59

Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

Options:

A.

Organization Unit

B.

Country

C.

Common name

D.

User container

Question 60

Joey wants to configure NTP on R80 Security Management Server. He decided to do this via WebUI. What is the correct address to access the Web UI for Gaia platform via browser?

Options:

A.

https://

B.

https:// :443

C.

https:// :10000

D.

https:// :4434

Question 61

If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:

Options:

A.

Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.

B.

Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.

C.

Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.

D.

Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.

Question 62

What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?

Options:

A.

Application Control, DLP

B.

Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, Application Layer Firewall.

C.

ACL, SandBlast, MPT

D.

IPS, Mobile Threat Protection

Question 63

Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens on by default?

Options:

A.

259, 900

B.

256, 257

C.

8080, 529

D.

80, 256

Question 64

How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

Options:

A.

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications

B.

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application

C.

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation

D.

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client

Question 65

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Options:

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

Question 66

Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

Options:

A.

SmartManager

B.

SmartConsole

C.

Security Gateway

D.

Security Management Server

Question 67

Which of the following are types of VPN communities?

Options:

A.

Pentagon, star, and combination

B.

Star, octagon, and combination

C.

Combined and star

D.

Meshed, star, and combination

Question 68

What is the BEST command to view configuration details of all interfaces in Gaia CLISH?

Options:

A.

ifconfig -a

B.

show interfaces

C.

show interfaces detail

D.

show configuration interface

Question 69

Which of the following is NOT a policy type available for each policy package?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Access Control

C.

Desktop Security

D.

Threat Prevention

Question 70

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

Options:

A.

No, only one can be connected

B.

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators

D.

Yes, but only one has the right to write

Question 71

What Check Point tool is used to automatically update Check Point products for the Gaia OS?

Options:

A.

Check Point INSPECT Engine

B.

Check Point Upgrade Service Engine

C.

Check Point Update Engine

D.

Check Point Upgrade Installation Service

Question 72

What is the purpose of the Clean-up Rule?

Options:

A.

To log all traffic that is not explicitly allowed or denied in the Rule Base

B.

To clean up policies found inconsistent with the compliance blade reports

C.

To remove all rules that could have a conflict with other rules in the database

D.

To eliminate duplicate log entries in the Security Gateway

Question 73

Which one of the following is a way that the objects can be manipulated using the new API integration in R80 Management?

Options:

A.

Microsoft Publisher

B.

JSON

C.

Microsoft Word

D.

RC4 Encryption

Question 74

Which message indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successfully?

Options:

A.

Quick Mode Complete

B.

Aggressive Mode Complete

C.

Main Mode Complete

D.

IKE Mode Complete

Question 75

When a Security Gateways sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

Options:

A.

Distributed

B.

Standalone

C.

Bridge

Question 76

True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway

Options:

A.

True, CLI is the prefer method for Licensing

B.

False, Central License are handled via Security Management Server

C.

False, Central License are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways

D.

True, Central License can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway

Question 77

Which deployment adds a Security Gateway to an existing environment without changing IP routing?

Options:

A.

Distributed

B.

Bridge Mode

C.

Remote

D.

Standalone

Question 78

What are the two types of NAT supported by the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Destination and Hide

B.

Hide and Static

C.

Static and Source

D.

Source and Destination

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Total 525 questions