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CFA Institute Sustainable-Investing Sustainable Investing Certificate (CFA-SIC) Exam Exam Practice Test

Sustainable Investing Certificate (CFA-SIC) Exam Questions and Answers

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Question 1

In recent decades, advanced economies have most likely seen working hours per person:

Options:

A.

Decrease, due to increased part-time employment.

B.

Remain the same, due to a range of offsetting factors.

C.

Increase, due to remote working.

Question 2

Which of the following statements regarding natural resources is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Economic downturns increase pressure on natural resources.

B.

Green economy refers to the sustainable use of ocean resources.

C.

Companies with exposure to deforestation in their supply chains may face cost volatility.

Question 3

Which of the following statements regarding ESG screening is most accurate?

Options:

A.

There is limited availability of sustainability ratings for collective funds.

B.

ESG screening does not include stewardship and engagement activities.

C.

Only collective funds with a high level of ESG integration have a high sustainability rating.

Question 4

Which of the following statements about assessing engagement is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Shareholders implement ESG strategies for reputation management only.

B.

The effectiveness of engagement is largely invisible for the engager.

C.

An investor can usually trace back the causation of ESG changes at companies with certainty.

Question 5

Scope 2 emissions are best described as:

Options:

A.

Indirect emissions from upstream activities only.

B.

Indirect emissions from downstream activities only.

C.

Indirect emissions from purchased energy (upstream and downstream indirectly included).

Question 6

The EU Paris-Aligned Benchmarks:

Options:

A.

Have at least an equal green-to-brown investment ratio.

B.

Permit fossil fuel investment as part of a transition process.

C.

Require a reduction of carbon emission intensity by at least 50% in their starting years.

Question 7

Which of the following best protects minority shareholders when a company raises additional capital?

Options:

A.

Dual-class share structures

B.

General mandate resolutions

C.

Pre-emption rights

Question 8

The datasets used by index-based ESG approaches most likely:

Options:

A.

offer comparability and regional breadth.

B.

lack history across multiple economic cycles.

C.

are derived from mandatory ESG disclosures.

Question 9

Stewardship codes initially focused on which of the following asset classes?

Options:

A.

Fixed income

B.

Private equity

C.

Public equities

Question 10

In addition to an audit committee, almost all major companies have:

Options:

A.

sustainability and risk committees.

B.

remuneration and risk committees.

C.

nomination and remuneration committees.

Question 11

Green bonds:

Options:

A.

fund projects with environmental benefits.

B.

have to be certified in line with the Green Bond Principles.

C.

are issued by publicly traded firms to exit polluting businesses.

Question 12

According to the International Corporate Governance Network (ICGN) Model Mandate:

Options:

A.

Stewardship engagement disclosure should follow a set or agreed format.

B.

Stewardship engagement and voting activity should be two separate disclosures.

C.

Stewardship engagement disclosure is voluntary, while voting activity disclosure is required.

Question 13

The OECD Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises:

Options:

A.

Focus on the impact social factors can have on investments.

B.

Focus on the responsibility investors have for the adverse impacts of investments on society.

C.

Provide mandatory standards for responsible business conduct in areas such as human rights.

Question 14

ESG performance attribution:

Options:

A.

Is simple to apply within fixed-income portfolios.

B.

Can be measured using commercially available tools.

C.

Can be decomposed using Brinson and risk factor attribution.

Question 15

Which of the following statements about ESG integration in fixed income is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Municipal bonds cannot be used for ESG integration.

B.

Credit rating agencies attempt to capture the risk of contingent liabilities in their sovereign credit ratings.

C.

Equity investors typically place greater emphasis on ESG factors that affect balance sheet strength compared to fixed-income investors.

Question 16

Information for use in ESG tools can be collected directly via:

Options:

A.

News articles

B.

Third-party reports

C.

Company communications

Question 17

An analyst gathers the following information about an investment in a portfolio:

    Current investment value in Company A: $100 million

    Total portfolio value (including Company A): $500 million

    Company A's scope 1 and scope 2 GHG emissions: 6,000 tons CO₂e

    Company A's annual revenue: $60 million

What is theweighted average carbon intensityof Company A in the portfolio?

Options:

A.

20 tons of CO₂e per million of revenue

B.

100 tons of CO₂e per million of revenue

C.

1,200 tons of CO₂e per million of revenue

Question 18

Which of the following best describes the challenge of identifying material ESG factors?

Options:

A.

ESG analysis occurs independently of financial analysis.

B.

Issues arising from ESG factors are not likely to occur in the near future.

C.

Companies in the same sector might be judged to have different material ESG factors.

Question 19

ESG indices are best characterized by:

Options:

A.

Standardized methodology for ESG performance.

B.

Increased risk of investing in assets with negative ESG impacts.

C.

Difficulty of back-testing performance across multiple market cycles.

Question 20

Two-tier boards with non-executive supervisory boards overseeing management boards are most commonly found in:

Options:

A.

Japan

B.

The Netherlands

C.

The United States

Question 21

The risk-return dynamic of ESG portfolio optimization most likely:

Options:

A.

applies a fixed decision to specific securities.

B.

accepts lower active risk for multiple factor optimization.

C.

organizes the securities by their individual ESG profile to solve a specific optimization.

Question 22

According to a study by McKinsey & Company, which of the following industries has the lowest share of profits at risk from state intervention?

Options:

A.

Banking

B.

Automotive

C.

Pharmaceuticals

Question 23

Which of the following investors has the most pronounced risk mindset of loss aversion?

Options:

A.

Foundations

B.

Individual investors

C.

Sovereign wealth funds

Question 24

Which of the following economists used the dismal theorem to argue that a standard cost–benefit analysis is inadequate to deal with the potential downside losses from climate change?

Options:

A.

Kate Raworth

B.

Nicholas Stern

C.

Martin Weitzman

Question 25

A retailer facing a consumer boycott due to its poor working conditions will most likely face:

Options:

A.

Significant liabilities.

B.

Greater operating costs.

C.

An adverse impact on revenues.

Question 26

Compared to developed markets, a challenge of ESG investing in emerging markets is less:

Options:

A.

data disclosure.

B.

data variability between countries.

C.

data variability between companies.

Question 27

A private debt fund manager is most likely to engage with borrowers on material ESG risks through:

Options:

A.

Voting.

B.

Board seats.

C.

Ongoing dialogue.

Question 28

Which of the following statements is most accurate? Assessments of the ESG capabilities of fund managers:

Options:

A.

Are transparent.

B.

Use similar data sources.

C.

Are performed using different methodologies.

Question 29

When integrating governance factors into decision-making, a fund manager with a simple level of confidence in the valuation range is most likely using:

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Threshold assessment

C.

Stewardship dialogue

Question 30

A quantitative ESG long–short equity strategy most likely involves long exposure to top decile ESG-rated stocks and short exposure to:

Options:

A.

Non-ESG-rated stocks

B.

Bottom decile ESG-rated stocks

C.

Bottom decile ESG-rated sectors

Question 31

A challenge for asset managers integrating ESG issues is most likely a lack of:

Options:

A.

suitable benchmarks.

B.

options outside equities.

C.

options provided by consultants and advisers.

Question 32

A situation in which a company making good strides toward more sustainable practices but is unwilling to reveal as much for fear of retribution or misinterpretation is best described as:

Options:

A.

greenhushing.

B.

scopewashing.

C.

competence greenwashing.

Question 33

Insurers face risk from climate change impacting:

Options:

A.

Their assets only.

B.

Their liabilities only.

C.

Both their assets and their liabilities.

Question 34

Which of the following is a minimum requirement for Principles for Responsible Investment (PRI) membership?

Options:

A.

Participation in a shareholder engagement platform

B.

The establishment of accountability mechanisms for responsible investment implementation

C.

Implementation of Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures (TCFD) recommendations

Question 35

A pension fund concerned about climate change will most likely:

Options:

A.

Accept long-term returns below the benchmark.

B.

Use screens to exclude fossil fuel investments.

C.

Increase investments in sovereign debt of countries where the physical impacts of climate change are likely to be most acute.

Question 36

An investment in a fund developing low-cost community housing is best categorized as:

Options:

A.

impact investing.

B.

positive alignment.

C.

thematic investing.

Question 37

An ESG-contingent asset for a healthcare company may result from:

Options:

A.

Acting as custodians of its customers' medical details.

B.

Employee recruiting strategies that trail best practices.

C.

Its data analytics business allowing the company to create cheaper healthcare options for governments.

Question 38

Which of the following statements regarding corporate governance is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Board appraisals are most effective when led by an internal facilitator.

B.

A board should be independent of the decisions of the previous boards.

C.

Gender is the most important type of diversity needed for a board to be successful.

Question 39

If an index excludes companies that earn revenues from gambling, the index is most likely using:

Options:

A.

Faith-based exclusions.

B.

Idiosyncratic exclusions.

C.

Conduct-related exclusions.

Question 40

Which of the following is most likely an example of quantitative ESG analysis? Analyzing:

Options:

A.

Issuer-reported carbon emissions

B.

Executive compensation policies linked to progress on ESG-related goals

C.

The presence and credibility of investments, policies, and commitments to ESG-related goals

Question 41

Which of the following statements regarding the UK Stewardship Code is accurate? The Code:

Options:

A.

Requires signatories to report quarterly on their stewardship activities.

B.

Includes principles for asset owners, asset managers, and service providers.

C.

Allows signatories to fulfill its demands solely by publishing policy statements.

Question 42

The low correlation between the ratings from different ESG rating agencies:

Options:

A.

Makes it less difficult for companies to improve their ESG performance

B.

Has no effect on the ambition of companies to improve their ESG performance

C.

Makes it more difficult for companies to improve their ESG performance

Question 43

A meat-processing company does not sell its pork products in predominantly Muslim countries. Investing in the company on this basis would be considered an example of:

Options:

A.

faith-based investing.

B.

norms-based exclusion.

C.

considering religion as a social factor.

Question 44

Green investment is a broad sub-category of:

Options:

A.

Philanthropy.

B.

Ethical investment.

C.

Thematic investment.

Question 45

Which of the following best describes a fund manager’s actions regarding specific assets to preserve or enhance their value?

Options:

A.

Monitoring

B.

Engagement

C.

Corporate sustainability

Question 46

A company's Scope 2 emissions are:

Options:

A.

emissions from purchased energy.

B.

direct emissions from core operations.

C.

emissions produced by suppliers and customers.

Question 47

Which of the following asset classes is most sensitive to climate-related transition risk?

Options:

A.

Equity

B.

Fixed income

C.

Alternative investments

Question 48

Engagement teams with a history of governance-led engagement are most likely to be organized:

Options:

A.

by sector.

B.

by asset class.

C.

geographically.

Question 49

Climate sensitivity aims to describe:

Options:

A.

Human activity that alters the composition of CO₂ concentrations in the global atmosphere.

B.

The ability to meet the needs and aspirations of the present without compromising the ability to meet those of the future.

C.

The impact on global temperatures if CO₂ concentrations in the atmosphere double relative to the pre-industrial average.

Question 50

According to the International Corporate Governance Network (ICGN) Model Mandate:

Options:

A.

Disclosure of voting activity is sufficient to satisfy the requirement of engagement disclosure.

B.

An investment manager should disclose an assessment of ESG risks that are embedded in the portfolio.

C.

An investment manager should disclose the long-term secular trends and themes that have influenced portfolio construction.

Question 51

A fund focused on investing in the best ESG performers relative to industry peers across a range of different criteria is most likely engaged in:

Options:

A.

positive screening only.

B.

norms-based screening only.

C.

both positive screening and norms-based screening.

Question 52

According to the "Shades of Green" methodology developed by the Center for International Climate Research (CICERO), which of the following best categorizes a green bond where accurate assessment of the contribution of the project or solution to a low-carbon, climate-resilient future is not possible with the information available?

Options:

A.

Yellow.

B.

Light Green.

C.

Medium Green.

Question 53

A fund focused on avoiding the worst ESG performers relative to industry peers is most likely engaged in:

Options:

A.

Negative screening only

B.

Norms-based screening only

C.

Both negative screening and norms-based screening

Question 54

An investor uses relative screening for 20 sustainable funds. In the sequence of steps outlined by the Principles for Responsible Investment (PRI), which step immediately follows publicizing clear screening criteria?

Options:

A.

Introducing oversight

B.

Reviewing portfolio implications

C.

Adapting the investment process

Question 55

Growing income inequality most likely leads to:

Options:

A.

Less social mobility.

B.

More educational opportunities.

C.

Higher purchasing power among the middle class.

Question 56

Human rights violations most likely occur:

Options:

A.

Among the first-tier suppliers of publicly traded companies.

B.

Deep within the supply chains of publicly traded companies.

C.

Among the second-tier suppliers of publicly traded companies.

Question 57

What did Semite, Bhagwat, and Yankee's 2018 study conclude about board diversity and governance?

Options:

A.

Diverse boards invest less in research and development.

B.

Diversity in the board of directors reduces stock return volatility.

C.

Greater homogeneity among directors leads to higher profitability.

Question 58

To address conflicts of interest and maintain the independence of audit firms, EU law requires firms to abide by:

Options:

A.

A list of allowable non-audit services only.

B.

A monetary limit on the overall value of non-audit services only.

C.

Both a list of allowable non-audit services and a monetary limit on the overall value of non-audit services.

Question 59

Which issue was most similar in the governance challenges faced by Enron and WeWork?

Options:

A.

Auditor lapses

B.

Related-party deals

C.

Dominance of the chief executive officer (CEO)

Question 60

Which of the following statements regarding the impact of social issues on potential investment opportunities is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Social trends impact sectors differently.

B.

Companies within a sector are exposed to social factors in the same way.

C.

Analyzing which social topics are material from an investment point of view starts with understanding materiality at the company level.

Question 61

Which of the following would credit rating agencies (CRAs) most likely focus on in order to test how ESG factors affect an issuer’s ability to convert assets into cash?

Options:

A.

Capital structure analysis

B.

Interest coverage ratio analysis

C.

Profitability and cash flow analysis

Question 62

A portfolio manager may need to adopt a more appropriate ESG benchmark rather than a broad market benchmark if the degree of exclusions results in:

Options:

A.

low active share and low tracking error

B.

low active share and high tracking error.

C.

high active share and high tracking error.

Question 63

In ESG integration, model adjustments are typically performed at the:

Options:

A.

research stage

B.

valuation stage.

C.

portfolio construction stage

Question 64

What order should investors follow when implementing social factors in their investment decisions?

Process 1: Assess the critical social factors in the supply chain

Process 2: Assess how exposed companies are to sector-specific social factors

Process 3: Assess which social factors are most financially material in a particular industry

Options:

A.

Process 1, followed by Process 2, and then Process 3

B.

Process 2, followed by Process 1, and then Process 3

C.

Process 3, followed by Process 2, and then Process 1

Question 65

Which of the following greenhouse gases (GHGs) has the longest lifetime in the atmosphere?

Options:

A.

Methane

B.

Carbon dioxide

C.

Fluorinated gas

Question 66

The triple bottom line accounting theory considers people, profit, and:

Options:

A.

planet

B.

efficiency.

C.

licence to operate

Question 67

Formal corporate governance codes are most likely to

Options:

A.

be found in all major world markets

B.

call for serious consequences for non-comphant organizations.

C.

be interpreted by proxy advisory firms when corporate compliance is assessed

Question 68

Which of the following is best described as a risk management framework for assessing environmental and social risk in project finance?

Options:

A.

The Equator Principles

B.

The Helsinki Principles

C.

The Net Zero Asset Managers initiative

Question 69

The divergence of ratings among ESG providers most likely.

Options:

A.

enhances the credibility of empirical research

B.

ensures that ESG performance is reflected in asset prices.

C.

hampers the ambition of companies to improve their ESG performance

Question 70

To produce a rating, an ESG rating provider will most likely apply a weighting system to

Options:

A.

qualitative data only

B.

quantitative data only

C.

both qualitative data and quantitative data

Question 71

The concept of double-agency in society refers to the conflict of interest between

Options:

A.

corporate CEOs and shareholders

B.

money managers and asset owners.

C.

corporate CEOs and money managers

Question 72

Scores used to construct ESG index benchmarks can be

Options:

A.

data based, but not rating based

B.

rating based, but not data based.

C.

both data based and rating based

Question 73

Which of the following countries is most likely to use a two-tier board structure?

Options:

A.

USA

B.

Japan

C.

Germany

Question 74

low risk exposure to this factor in the short run

Options:

A.

With reference to data security and customer privacy issues a technology company in the research and development stage with no commercially marketed products is most likely to have:

B.

medium risk exposure to this factor in the short run.

C.

high risk exposure to this factor in the short run.

Question 75

Which of the following climate risks are systemic risks to the financial system?

Options:

A.

Policy and legal risks

B.

Technology and stability risks

C.

Physical and transitional risks

Question 76

An asset manager considering environmental risks would most likely use:

Options:

A.

qualitative analysis only

B.

quantitative analysis only

C.

both qualitative and quantitative analyses

Question 77

Which of the following sectors has the highest percentage of corporate profits at risk from state intervention?

Options:

A.

Banking

B.

Consumer goods

C.

Pharmaceuticals and healthcare

Question 78

A company reduces water usage and increases usage of more expensive resources after regulations become more stringent. This most likely impacts:

Options:

A.

revenues

B.

provisions

C.

operating expenditure

Question 79

When incorporating ESG factors into valuation inputs, which of the following would most likely require the lowest discount rate?

Options:

A.

A company with strong ESG practices

B.

A high-growth technology company operating in emerging markets

C.

A company that is judged to have a negative environmental impact

Question 80

Regarding ESG issues, which of the following sets the tone for the investment value chain?

Options:

A.

Asset owners

B.

Asset managers

C.

Investment consultants

Question 81

According to the Active Ownership study, which of the following statements regarding ESG engagement is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Unsuccessful engagements often have adverse impacts on returns

B.

Success is typically achieved within 12 months of the initial engagement

C.

Successful engagement activity was followed by positive abnormal financial returns

Question 82

ESG factors that relate to future growth opportunities are most relevant to:

Options:

A.

equity investors.

B.

sovereign debt investors.

C.

corporate bond investors.

Question 83

Jurisdictions are most likely to impose extraterritorial laws in relation to:

Options:

A.

bribery and corruption

B.

paying suppliers appropriately and promptly.

C.

upholding high standards in health and safety

Question 84

Which of the following statements about social trends is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Companies within a sector are equally exposed to social trends

B.

Social trends have a similar impact across sectors in developed countries

C.

The importance of a social trend depends on a country’s regulatory framework

Question 85

Compared to an optimal portfolio that does not have any ESG restrictions a portfolio that optimizes for multiple ESG factors will most likely experience

Options:

A.

lower active risk

B.

higher active risk.

C.

lower tracking error

Question 86

The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are particularly aimed at

Options:

A.

investors

B.

corporations.

C.

governments

Question 87

Which of the following would most likely be the initial step when drafting a client's investment mandate?

Options:

A.

Clarifying the client's ESG investment beliefs

B.

Defining how ESG performance will be measured

C.

Reflecting the client's investment beliefs operationally in the fund manager’s investment approach

Question 88

In which country is the proposal of shareholder resolutions most common?

Options:

A.

UK

B.

US

C.

Australia

Question 89

Which of the following is an environmental megatrend that has a severe social impact?

Options:

A.

Urbanization

B.

Globalization

C.

Mass migration

Question 90

The UK’s Green Finance Strategy identifies the policy lever of financing green as

Options:

A.

strengthening the role of the UK financial sector in driving green finance

B.

directing private sector financial flows to economic activities that support an environmentally sustainable and resilient growth.

C.

ensuring that the financial sector systematically considers environmental and climate factors in its lending and investment activities.

Question 91

Which of the following ESG-related services is most likely designed to represent ESG criteria relevant to some aspect of the total market?

Options:

A.

ESG ratings

B.

ESG screening

C.

ESG benchmarks and indexes

Question 92

ESG offerings by asset managers generally began with:

Options:

A.

fixed income funds.

B.

infrastructure funds.

C.

active-listed equities.

Question 93

Which of the following actors most likely engage with investee companies to improve their ESG performance?

Options:

A.

Fund labellers

B.

Asset managers

C.

Investment platforms

Question 94

When establishing asset allocation strategies, which of the following is the most material ESG factor for institutional investors?

Options:

A.

Social

B.

Governance

C.

Environmental

Question 95

Which of the following types of issuers typically shows the highest degree of engagement with investors?

Options:

A.

Corporate bond issuers

B.

Sovereign bond issuers

C.

US municipal bond issuers

Question 96

Companies active in private debt markets are most likely to be receptive to investors’ requests for conditions and disclosures around ESG issues:

Options:

A.

prior to debt issuances.

B.

in periods of lower interest rates.

C.

when there is an ample supply of funds.

Question 97

Which of the following represents the majority of the largest asset owners?

Options:

A.

Pension funds

B.

Insurance companies

C.

Sovereign wealth funds

Question 98

Competition and corruption within the general business environment is most likely a material governance factor for investments in:

Options:

A.

infrastructure.

B.

private equity.

C.

sovereign debt.

Question 99

Investor engagement:

Options:

A.

can be used as a cover for investment decision making.

B.

is typically a one-way dialogue, with investors seeking insights.

C.

creates conflicts of interest for investors in the execution of their fiduciary duty.

Question 100

Which type of return(s) would most likely be expected from an impact investment approach?

Options:

A.

Social return only

B.

Financial market return focused on long-term value

C.

Social return along with an adequate financial market return

Question 101

When assessing environmental risks, asset managers should use:

Options:

A.

qualitative approaches only.

B.

quantitative approaches only.

C.

both qualitative approaches and quantitative approaches.

Question 102

Stewardship teams with a governance heritage tend to:

Options:

A.

be organized by sector.

B.

focus first on individual companies.

C.

start the dialogue with investor relations and then escalate upward.

Question 103

Which of the following is least likely to require early reporting under the International Corporate Governance Network (ICGN) Model Mandate?

Options:

A.

Regulatory investigation against the asset manager

B.

Change in the asset manager's investment approach

C.

Short-term underperformance of the portfolio against the benchmark

Question 104

Conduct-related exclusionary screening will most likely involve the exclusion of companies involved in:

Options:

A.

gambling.

B.

alcohol sales.

C.

child labor infractions.

Question 105

According to the Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Protocol Standards, daily employee commuting to and from work is an example of:

Options:

A.

Scope 1 emissions.

B.

Scope 2 emissions.

C.

Scope 3 emissions.

Question 106

The first step in the effective design of a client ESG investment mandate is to:

Options:

A.

tailor the ESG investment approach to client expectations.

B.

clarify client needs and set them out in a clear statement of ESG investment beliefs.

C.

ensure client ESG investment beliefs are reflected in the fund manager's investment approach.

Question 107

Which of the following does not explain why the attribution of returns of ESG factors is challenging?

Options:

A.

It is difficult to demonstrate the value added by a program of engagement

B.

It is difficult to assess the performance drag or enhancement from excluding a single sector

C.

There is significant range of investment approaches included within the realm of ESG investing

Question 108

The credit team of an asset manager develops its own quantitative score to measure ESG risk. Which of the following factors might lead to an improvement in their ESG score for an oil producer?

Options:

A.

A decrease in water reuse

B.

An increase in cash flow projections

C.

A decrease in injury frequency per million man-hours

Question 109

In most global markets, supervisory boards consist of:

Options:

A.

executives only.

B.

non-executives only.

C.

both executives and non-executives.

Question 110

Single-tier boards are typical in:

Options:

A.

China.

B.

the UK.

C.

Germany.

Question 111

The World Bank's Worldwide Governance Indicators include:

Options:

A.

climate change.

B.

voice and accountability.

C.

a financial stability score.

Question 112

Which of the following reporting practices by an investee company is most likely a red flag for an investor?

Options:

A.

Limited disclosure of ESG information due to cost constraints in reporting

B.

Non-disclosure of ESG data which management deems commercially sensitive

C.

Non-disclosure of detailed information regarding the basis of long-term incentive plans for a new chief executive officer (CEO)

Question 113

ESG disclosure among listed companies can be required by:

Options:

A.

stock exchanges only.

B.

security regulators only.

C.

both stock exchanges and security regulators.

Question 114

With regard to screening, exclusionary preferences are usually adopted by:

Options:

A.

asset owners.

B.

asset managers.

C.

sell‑side practitioners.

Question 115

For consistency purposes, the International Sustainability Standards Board (ISSB) requires sustainability disclosures to be:

Options:

A.

audited.

B.

published at the same time as financial statements.

C.

enforced through security regulations and laws in each jurisdiction.

Question 116

The concept of a carbon budget quantifies the:

Options:

A.

point in time when net zero CO2 emissions are achieved.

B.

CO2 levels that lead to crossing the Earth’s planetary boundaries.

C.

amount of CO2 to maintain the possibility of temperatures not exceeding a given level.

Question 117

The world’s first formal corporate governance code emerged in the:

Options:

A.

Netherlands.

B.

United States.

C.

United Kingdom.

Question 118

An analyst evaluates the following statements about investor engagement:

Statement 1: Investor engagement focuses on preserving and enhancing short-term value on behalf of an asset owner

Statement 2: Investor engagement can encompass lobbying as part of industry groups

Which of the statements is accurate?

Options:

A.

Statement 1 only.

B.

Statement 2 only.

C.

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2.

Question 119

Brown divestment:

Options:

A.

screens out fossil fuels from portfolios.

B.

invests only in companies with a positive environmental impact.

C.

involves publicly traded firms exiting polluting businesses by sales to third parties.

Question 120

For a defined benefit pension plan, the primary driver for ESG investment is most likely:

Options:

A.

fiduciary duty.

B.

reputational risk.

C.

personal ethics and perspectives of its members.

Question 121

With respect to the current state of ESG disclosure globally, issuer reporting frameworks for ESG information are:

Options:

A.

mandatory

B.

fragmented

C.

harmonized

Question 122

The process of ESG portfolio optimization requires:

Options:

A.

targeting sustainability-aligned themes as means to construct a portfolio

B.

applying a fixed decision on specific securities based on the ESG variable chosen

C.

defining an upper and lower bound for a given ESG variable and applying it on an absolute or benchmark relative basis

Question 123

Which of the following is one of the six environmental factors in the “Materiality Map" by Sustainability Accounting Standards Board (SASB)?

Options:

A.

Transition risk

B.

Ecological impacts

C.

Green infrastructure

Question 124

The Cadbury Committee was created because of perceived problems in:

Options:

A.

Employment rights

B.

Climate change and transition risks

C.

Accounting and corporate governance

Question 125

Scope 3 carbon emissions are accounted for under:

Options:

A.

The UK Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures (TCFD) only

B.

The European Union's (EU) Sustainable Finance Disclosure Regulation (SFDR) only

C.

Both the UK Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures (TCFD) and the European Union's (EU) Sustainable Finance Disclosure Regulation (SFDR)

Question 126

Which of the following is one of the four realms of nature described by the Taskforce on Nature-related Financial Disclosures (TNFD)?

Options:

A.

People

B.

Oceans

C.

Biodiversity

Question 127

Based on the Sustainability Accounting Standards Board's (SASB) materiality map, which of the following is a material ESG risk for healthcare companies?

Options:

A.

Customer welfare

B.

Competitive behavior

C.

Greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions

Question 128

Which of the following is a form of individual engagement?

Options:

A.

Follow-on dialogue

B.

Informal discussions

C.

Active public engagement

Question 129

Compared to developed markets, ESG investing in emerging markets is most likely characterized by:

Options:

A.

more data and less variability between countries and companies

B.

lower transferability of approaches and principles methods from developed markets

C.

fewer opportunities for investors to engage with companies and improve ESG performance

Question 130

Commodity price volatility resulting in profits vulnerability for companies is most likely an example of financial risk transmission by:

Options:

A.

micro-channel

B.

macro-channel

C.

company actions

Question 131

Material ESG risks that could be managed by a company but which are not yet managed best describe:

Options:

A.

Manageable risks

B.

Unmanageable risks

C.

The management gap

Question 132

A drawback of ESG index-based investment strategies is that they:

Options:

A.

focus only on environmental factors

B.

cannot accommodate factor-based investing styles

C.

rely on established datasets for construction that lack historical data

Question 133

The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) aims to:

Options:

A.

operationalize the Paris Agreement for the business world

B.

promote material climate change disclosures in mainstream reporting

C.

stabilize greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions to limit man-made climate change

Question 134

According to the Stockholm Resilience Centre, which of the following planetary boundaries have already been crossed as a result of human activity?

Options:

A.

Climate change only

B.

Loss of biosphere integrity only

C.

Both climate change and loss of biosphere integrity

Question 135

Which of the following investor types most likely prefers exclusions as an ESG approach?

Options:

A.

Life insurers

B.

Foundations

C.

General insurers

Question 136

According to the Stockholm Resilience Centre, how many of the nine planetary boundaries have already been crossed as a result of human activity?

Options:

A.

None

B.

Some

C.

All

Question 137

ESG integration is most likely enforced by regulating:

Options:

A.

Stewardship

B.

Asset owners

C.

Corporate disclosure

Question 138

According to the Global Sustainable Investment Alliance (GSIA), as of 2020, the largest sustainable investment strategy globally is:

Options:

A.

ESG integration

B.

exclusionary screening

C.

corporate engagement and shareholder action

Question 139

Credit-rating agencies are most likely classified as:

Options:

A.

algorithm-driven ESG research providers

B.

“traditional” ESG data and research providers

C.

“nontraditional” ESG data and research providers

Question 140

Which of the following most likely outlines an investment firm's ESG integration approach?

Options:

A.

ESG policy

B.

Statement of Investment Principles

C.

Corporate social responsibility report

Question 141

Which of the following steps in the ESG rating process is most likely the earliest source of the dispersal of opinions between different ESG rating agencies?

Options:

A.

Identification of ESG factors

B.

Determination of weighting and scoring methodologies

C.

Gathering of a set of data points for the identified ESG indicators

Question 142

With regards to the climate, financial materiality:

Options:

A.

only considers impacts of a company on the climate

B.

only considers climate-related impacts on a company

C.

considers both impacts of a company on the climate and climate-related impacts on a company

Question 143

Which of the following best characterizes a climate mitigation strategy rather than a climate adaptation strategy?

Options:

A.

Developing drought-resilient crops

B.

Implementing carbon reduction policies

C.

Planning more efficiently for scarce water resources

Question 144

A challenge to ESG integration at the asset allocation level when using mean-variance optimization is that it:

Options:

A.

is highly sensitive to baseline assumptions

B.

requires specialist knowledge to make informed judgments about future risk

C.

could introduce an additional source of estimation errors due to the need for dynamic rebalancing

Question 145

The debate around regulating the social media industry is based on risks associated with:

Options:

A.

big data

B.

digital disruption

C.

embedded systems

Question 146

Using the “shades of green" methodology developed by the Center for International Climate Research (CICERO), a project that does not explicitly contribute to the transition to a low carbon and climate resilient future is given the shading of:

Options:

A.

red

B.

yellow

C.

light green

Question 147

ESG factors impacting balance sheet strength rather than growth opportunities are most material to:

Options:

A.

Equity investors

B.

Sovereign debt investors

C.

Corporate bond investors

Question 148

Pension funds are most likely classified as:

Options:

A.

asset owners

B.

fund promoters

C.

asset managers

Question 149

A difficulty of integrating ESG into sovereign debt analysis is most likely the:

Options:

A.

shrinking pool of sovereign investment research available

B.

low correlation among credit ratings compared to ESG ratings

C.

smaller number of issuers compared to corporate debt or equities

Question 150

In the European Union, publicly listed firms are obliged to change auditors at least every:

Options:

A.

5 years

B.

10 years

C.

20 years

Question 151

Mass migration from developing countries to developed countries are most likely caused by:

Options:

A.

desertification only.

B.

scarcity of fresh water only.

C.

both desertification and scarcity of fresh water.

Question 152

Which of the following ESG investment approaches is most likely applicable when investing in sovereign debt?

Options:

A.

ESG tilting

B.

Collaborative engagement

C.

Active private engagement

Question 153

An analyst reads the following statements about wastewater treatment plants:

Statement I: Wastewater treatment plants are capital intensive.

Statement II: Wastewater treatment plants are difficult to maintain.

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

Statement I only

B.

Statement II only

C.

Both Statement I and Statement II

Question 154

Which of the following encourages institutional investors to work together on human rights and social issues?

Options:

A.

Human Rights 100+

B.

OECD Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises

C.

United Nations Guiding Principles on Business and Human Rights

Question 155

Anti-corruption laws are a relevant governance factor for which of the following investments?

Options:

A.

Private equity

B.

Sovereign debt

C.

Infrastructure assets

Question 156

Which of the following is most likely a secondary source of ESG information?

Options:

A.

Annual reports

B.

ESG rating reports

C.

Corporate sustainability reports

Question 157

Which of the following is most likely to cast doubt on a director’s independence?

Options:

A.

Holding cross-directorships

B.

Receipt of director's fees from the company

C.

Serving as a director for a relatively short period of time

Question 158

Avoiding long-term transition risk can most likely be achieved by:

Options:

A.

investing in companies with stranded assets.

B.

divesting highly carbon-intensive investments in the energy sector.

C.

reducing exposure to companies exposed to extreme weather events.

Question 159

A company is accused of surveying employees to prevent them from forming a union. The decision of an asset manager to divest from holding shares in the company is an example of:

Options:

A.

universal exclusion.

B.

idiosyncratic exclusion.

C.

conduct-related exclusion.

Question 160

Natural language processing (NLP) is employed as a tool in ESG investing to:

Options:

A.

backtest short time series of ESG data.

B.

quantify online text relating to ESG risk areas.

C.

interpret satellite imagery to assess deforestation.

Question 161

When integrating ESG analysis into the investment process, deriving correlations on how ESG factors might impact financial performance over time is an example of a:

Options:

A.

passive approach.

B.

thematic approach.

C.

systematic approach.

Question 162

Which of the following initiatives is most closely associated with the increased prevalence of antimicrobial resistance?

Options:

A.

The Bangladesh Accord

B.

Access to Medicine Index

C.

Farm Animal Investment Risk and Return

Question 163

The EU Paris-Aligned Benchmarks and EU Climate Transition Benchmarks both:

Options:

A.

prohibit investments in fossil fuels

B.

impose green-to-brown ratios to restrict “brown" investments

C.

use a relative approach by comparing a company's performance to its sector average

Question 164

Impact investment funds most likely align their portfolios with:

Options:

A.

Sustainable Development Goals.

B.

ESG frameworks that are norms-based.

C.

OECD Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises.

Question 165

What type of provider of ESG-related products and services is CDP (formerly known as Carbon Disclosure Project)?

Options:

A.

nonprofit

B.

large for-profit

C.

boutique for-profit

Question 166

A materiality assessment to identify ESG issues impacting a company's financial performance is most likely measured in terms of:

Options:

A.

likelihood only.

B.

magnitude of impact only.

C.

both likelihood and magnitude of impact.

Question 167

An investor requires a social return and will tolerate a sub-market financial return. This best characterizes:

Options:

A.

social investing.

B.

impact investing.

C.

sustainable and responsible investing.

Question 168

A bond issued to finance construction of a solar farm is an example of a:

Options:

A.

blue bond

B.

green bond

C.

transition bond

Question 169

Which of the following would most likely be the initial step when drafting a client’s investment mandate?

Options:

A.

Defining how to measure ESG performance

B.

Clarifying the client's ESG investment beliefs

C.

Defining how to measure financial performance

Question 170

Which of the following is the main driver of stewardship efforts?

Options:

A.

Creating long-term shareholder value

B.

Minimizing the ESG tilt in the investment process

C.

Providing investors and corporates with a comprehensive corporate reporting framework

Question 171

Which of the following statements is least accurate? Compared to social and environmental factors, governance has a:

Options:

A.

greater link to financial performance.

B.

greater consideration in traditional investment analysis.

C.

greater materiality for private companies than for public companies.

Question 172

Increased investment crowding into more ESG-friendly sectors is most likely to increase:

Options:

A.

valuations.

B.

expected returns.

C.

materiality thresholds.

Question 173

Corporate governance in the UK is notable for:

Options:

A.

its requirement for joint auditors.

B.

the existence of double voting rights for some shareholders.

C.

the prominence of board behavior guidelines in its Corporate Governance Code.

Question 174

Which of the following would most likely see its estimate of intrinsic value increased by analysts?

Options:

A.

A company with high climate-related risk

B.

A company facing significant environmental regulations

C.

A company having launched a service that reduces customers’ electricity usage

Question 175

In which of the following circumstances is Free, Prior, and Informed Consent (FPIC) most applicable?

Options:

A.

Members agreeing to a social media platform’s privacy policy

B.

Company constructing a fish farm next to a native waterfront community

C.

Governments passing international standards against forced labor practices

Question 176

Measuring a portfolio's carbon intensity using the European Union's Sustainable Finance Disclosure Regulation (SFDR) accounts for:

Options:

A.

Scope 1 emissions only.

B.

Scope 1 and Scope 2 emissions only.

C.

Scope 1, Scope 2, and Scope 3 emissions.

Question 177

Which of the following projects are most likely to be financed in the green bond market?

Options:

A.

Real estate projects

B.

Manufacturing projects

C.

Communications technology projects

Question 178

Which of the following UK Stewardship Code principles is not addressed in the European Fund and Asset Management Association (EFAMA) Code? The principle that institutional investors should:

Options:

A.

monitor their investee companies

B.

report periodically on their stewardship and voting activities

C.

have a robust policy on managing conflicts of interest in relation to stewardship

Question 179

With respect to ESG integration in private equity, which of the following is most likely a challenge an investor may face?

Options:

A.

Lack of strategy and long-term orientation from private equity managers

B.

Lack of capacity within the investee company to fulfill ESG reporting requirements

C.

Reporting frameworks that do not account for the relative lack of transparency found in private markets relative to public markets

Question 180

When using a threshold assessment to integrate governance factors into the investment decision-making process, fund managers most likely focus on the:

Options:

A.

cost of capital

B.

quality of management

C.

level of confidence about future earnings

Question 181

An ESG scorecard is best categorized as:

Options:

A.

Purely qualitative analysis

B.

Purely quantitative analysis

C.

A hybrid of qualitative and quantitative analysis

Question 182

The rules that can be used to construct ESG exchange-traded funds (ETFs) include:

Options:

A.

Thematic investing, only

B.

Tilting weightings based on ESG scores, only

C.

Both thematic investing and tilting weightings based on ESG scores

Question 183

Which of the following statements about the materiality of social factors is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Population aging is more important to emerging markets than developed markets

B.

The importance of a specific social issue depends on the regional or country context

C.

The difference between rural and urban areas is greater in the developed world than in emerging markets

Question 184

Which of the following statements about good corporate governance is most accurate?

Options:

A.

No one model of corporate governance is better than another

B.

A single-tier board structure is preferred over a two-tier board structure

C.

A two-tier board structure is preferred over a single-tier board structure

Question 185

Determining which ESG issues are material:

Options:

A.

involves judgment.

B.

excludes impacts on short-term financial performance.

C.

is a process that is independent of a company’s industry and business model.

Question 186

Which of the following is best described as a form of engagement that requires institutions to have a formal agreement with concrete objectives and agreed steps?

Options:

A.

Concert party

B.

Soliciting support

C.

Collaborative campaigns

Question 187

Engagement is least appropriate for which of the following investment types?

Options:

A.

Private debt

B.

Infrastructure

C.

Sovereign debt

Question 188

The LEAP assessment framework developed by the Taskforce on Nature-Related Financial Disclosure (TNFD) stands for:

Options:

A.

learn, engage, adapt, protect.

B.

locate, evaluate, assess, prepare.

C.

listen, estimate, advocate, preserve.

Question 189

Which of the following is a challenge in ESG integration?

Options:

A.

ESG disclosures that lack comparability across companies

B.

Excessive company-level ESG reporting that overwhelms investors

C.

Standardized disclosures in audited financial statements that hinder differentiated analysis

Question 190

According to the United Nations Principles for Responsible Investment (PRI), modern fiduciary duty would require investment managers to:

Options:

A.

Support the stability and resilience of the financial system

B.

Incorporate their own sustainability preferences into decision-making

C.

Encourage high standards of ESG performance across the entire investment universe

Question 191

According to the consulting firm McKinsey & Company, which of the following is a dimension of sustainable investing applied by fund managers?

Options:

A.

Public reporting

B.

Security valuation

C.

Strategic asset allocation

Question 192

Determining which ESG issues are material:

Options:

A.

Involves judgment

B.

Excludes impacts on short-term financial performance

C.

Is a process that is independent of a company's industry and business model

Question 193

Bonds that fund projects that provide access to essential services, infrastructure, and social programs to underserved people and communities are best described as:

Options:

A.

green bonds.

B.

social bonds.

C.

transition bonds.

Question 194

Which of the following is responsible for ensuring the composition of a company's board is balanced and effective?

Options:

A.

Audit Committee

B.

Nominations Committee

C.

Remuneration Committee

Question 195

Which of the following is a challenge of integrating ESG analysis into investment processes?

Options:

A.

Cultural challenges and biases within investment management firms

B.

Issuer disclosures are standardized across industries without issuer-specific adjustments

C.

ESG analysis is objective by nature, which makes it challenging to find investment opportunities

Question 196

Which of the following challenges do asset managers face in integrating ESG issues?

Options:

A.

Decreasing amount of ESG regulation

B.

A lack of methodologies to integrate ESG considerations for non-corporate issuers

C.

Consultants and advisers base their advice for owners on a narrow interpretation of investment objectives

Question 197

Which of the following would most likely be the initial step when drafting a client’s investment mandate?

Options:

A.

Clarifying the client's ESG investment beliefs

B.

Defining how ESG performance will be measured

C.

Reflecting the client's investment beliefs operationally in the fund manager’s investment approach

Question 198

Companies subject to the EU Taxonomy are required to:

Options:

A.

do no significant harm to any of the environmental objectives.

B.

contribute substantially to at least two of the environmental objectives.

C.

comply with the highest standards of social and governance safeguards.

Question 199

Negative screening of tobacco-related companies is best grouped into which of the following basic categories?

Options:

A.

Universal exclusion

B.

Idiosyncratic exclusion

C.

Conduct-related exclusion

Question 200

Will including additional ESG constraints in a portfolio optimization model most likely affect tracking error?

Options:

A.

No

B.

Yes, it will reduce tracking error

C.

Yes, it will increase tracking error

Question 201

When considering material ESG factors in real estate, which of the following is classified as an environmental factor?

Options:

A.

Local job creation

B.

Community engagement

C.

Use of renewable energy

Question 202

Which of the following pension fund actors are most likely exposed to fiduciary legal risks from financial losses caused by climate change?

Options:

A.

Trustees

B.

Members

C.

Executives

Question 203

A family office is best categorized as an:

Options:

A.

asset owner.

B.

intermediary.

C.

asset manager.

Question 204

With respect to ESG reporting:

Options:

A.

management has little discretion over ESG disclosures.

B.

larger companies face more resource constraints than smaller companies.

C.

business customers may receive ESG information that is not publicly available to investors.

Question 205

A globally aging population has resulted in the ratio between the active and inactive parts of the workforce to:

Options:

A.

decrease.

B.

remain about the same.

C.

increase.

Question 206

Alignment of an investment manager's performance against a long-term ESG investor’s objectives is best achieved by which of the following?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking against the market

B.

Engaging in a monitoring dialogue frequently

C.

Early reporting of deviations from the expected investment process or style

Question 207

Which of the following is an example of a social factor affecting external stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Human rights

B.

Animal welfare

C.

Workers' health and safety

Question 208

An advantage of the carbon footprinting approach to environmental risk analysis is that it allows for:

Options:

A.

comparisons to global benchmarks.

B.

measuring and valuing nature's role in decision-making.

C.

measuring potential investment risks related to the physical impacts of climate change.

Question 209

According to market reviews conducted by the Global Sustainable Investment Alliance at the start of 2020, sustainable investing assets in the five major markets stood at approximately:

Options:

A.

USD 20 trillion.

B.

USD 35 trillion.

C.

USD 60 trillion.

Question 210

Compared to other ESG strategies, fully integrated ESG strategies tend to feature:

Options:

A.

less concentrated positions.

B.

similarly concentrated positions.

C.

more concentrated positions.

Question 211

According to the Taskforce on Nature-Related Financial Disclosures (TNFD), which of the following drivers of nature change can directly translate into a positive impact on circular economy principles?

Options:

A.

Pollution

B.

Resource use

C.

Climate change

Question 212

When considering strategic asset allocation, would stranded asset risk most likely be a similar concern for fixed income and equity investors?

Options:

A.

No, it would most likely be a greater concern for equity investors

B.

No, it would most likely be a greater concern for fixed income investors

Question 213

A framework for assessing environmental risk in project finance is set out by the:

Options:

A.

Helsinki Principles

B.

Equator Principles

C.

International Sustainability Standards Board (ISSB)

Question 214

Which of the following is an example of competence greenwashing?

Options:

A.

A company's board overstating their ESG expertise

B.

A company that is unwilling to reveal its strides toward more sustainable practices for fear of misinterpretation

C.

A company providing an incomplete picture of its environmental impact by overemphasizing carbon emissions while ignoring other factors such as toxicity

Question 215

Compared to traditional index-based funds, ESG index-based funds typically have:

Options:

A.

A lower fee structure

B.

The same fee structure

C.

A higher fee structure

Question 216

ESG indices that exclude economically meaningful sectors will most likely:

Options:

A.

Have a lower cost structure than conventional index-based strategies

B.

Generate a higher tracking error than conventional index-based strategies

C.

Have stronger stewardship activities than actively managed ESG strategies

Question 217

For engagement strategies to deliver results in a cost-effective and time-effective manner, an investor needs to:

Options:

A.

Raise every possible concern with a company in its portfolio that is most in need of engagement

B.

Frame the engagement topic into a broader discussion around strategy and not the financial performance of the company

C.

Have clear escalation measures in case engagement fails

Question 218

A regulatory framework designed to support ESG integration in corporate disclosures is:

Options:

A.

The EU Sustainable Finance Disclosure Regulation (SFDR)

B.

The EU General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

C.

The US Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA)

Question 219

Poor corporate governance in the form of weak accountability and alignment increases the risk of value erosion for:

Options:

A.

Public finance initiatives only

B.

Private equity investments only

C.

Both public finance initiatives and private equity investments

Question 220

Which of the following best describes Weitzman's dismal theorem?

Options:

A.

Relative improvements in efficiency may be offset by increased consumption of a given product

B.

Economic asset value should be assigned to biodiversity to reverse its treatment as a free resource

C.

Standard cost-benefit analysis is insufficient to address the potential downside losses from climate change

Question 221

The quality of a company's ESG disclosures is most likely affected by:

Options:

A.

Its size only

B.

Its location only

C.

Both its size and its location

Question 222

Scorecards to assess ESG factors:

Options:

A.

Cannot be used to compare a performance with industry averages

B.

Can be adapted to analyze sovereign bonds

C.

Are usually developed based on ESG scores from third-party providers

Question 223

Which of the following statements about social trends is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Social trends have similar impacts on different sectors

B.

The importance of a social trend for a country is independent of the level of its economic development

C.

The impact of a social trend on companies within the same sector may differ based on each company's culture

Question 224

For which of the following environmental megatrends are ordinary workers most likely to bear the cost?

Options:

A.

Pollution

B.

Water scarcity

C.

Climate change transition

Question 225

According to the UK Pensions and Lifetime Savings Association Stewardship Checklist, during the RFP process pension fund trustees considering active fixed income managers should:

Options:

A.

Exclusively invest in green bonds

B.

Consider the potential for ESG risks to impact credit ratings

C.

Ensure that the managers engage with borrowers after issuance

Question 226

Index-based ESG strategies are typically optimized to:

Options:

A.

Minimize tracking error while keeping ESG improvement within an acceptable range

B.

Maximize ESG improvement while keeping tracking error within an acceptable range

C.

Maximize return while keeping both ESG improvement and tracking error within acceptable ranges

Question 227

According to an OECD Centre for Opportunity and Equality (COPE) 2015 report, the average income of the richest 10% of the population is about:

Options:

A.

4 times that of the poorest 10% across the OECD

B.

9 times that of the poorest 10% across the OECD

C.

14 times that of the poorest 10% across the OECD

Question 228

Which of the following is most likely an effect of an aging population?

Options:

A.

Reduced healthcare expenditures

B.

Increased business risk for the consumer goods sector

C.

Increased ratio between the active and inactive part of the workforce

Question 229

Collective engagements:

Options:

A.

Often are resource-inefficient methods of engagement

B.

Are a preliminary step in launching a takeover bid for a company

C.

Are sometimes constrained by regulations regarding investors acting in concert

Question 230

The Jevons paradox refers to:

Options:

A.

Standard cost-benefit analysis being inadequate to quantify the downside losses from climate change

B.

Relative improvement in natural resource efficiency being offset by increasing natural resource consumption

C.

Reduction in snow and ice cover being responsible for lowering the amount of sunlight that is reflected back into space

Question 231

The European Union (EU) Ecolabel:

Options:

A.

Is a mandatory label for companies that apply sustainability labels on their products

B.

Certifies products that have a guaranteed, independently verified, low environmental impact

C.

Contains a list of six key principles designed to prevent businesses from making misleading environmental claims

Question 232

Which of the following is a global agreement to phase out the manufacture of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)?

Options:

A.

Nagoya Protocol

B.

Basel Convention

C.

The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol

Question 233

An organization conducts assessments that highlight events, behaviors, and practices that may lead to reputational and business risks and opportunities. This organization is best classified as a provider of:

Options:

A.

Advisory services

B.

Integrated research

C.

ESG news and alerts

Question 234

The management gap best describes a risk that:

Options:

A.

Cannot be managed

B.

Part of a credit portfolio’s positions are unrated

C.

Can be managed, but is not yet being addressed

Question 235

In ESG ratings, there is a size bias in favor of:

Options:

A.

Small companies

B.

Mid-sized companies

C.

Large companies

Question 236

According to the fundamental conventions of the International Labour Organization (ILO), which of the following should not be supported as a labor right by companies?

Options:

A.

Forced labor

B.

Minimum age

C.

Freedom of association

Question 237

A benefit of carbon footprinting is that:

Options:

A.

It is forward-looking

B.

It uses standardized methodologies

C.

It can aggregate emissions across geographies

Question 238

Which of the following ESG risks is most likely to impact sovereign debt?

Options:

A.

Cybersecurity risks

B.

Political stability and governance risks

C.

Executive compensation structures

Question 239

Which of the following most likely protects minority shareholders?

Options:

A.

Dual-class shares

B.

Pre-emption rights

C.

Double voting rights

Question 240

Brown divestment:

Options:

A.

Screens out fossil fuels from portfolios

B.

Invests only in companies with a positive environmental impact

C.

Involves publicly traded firms exiting polluting businesses by sales to third parties