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APMG-International AgilePM-Foundation Agile Project Management (AgilePM v3) Foundation Exam v3 update Exam Practice Test

Agile Project Management (AgilePM v3) Foundation Exam v3 update Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Which of the following support the DSDM philosophy and principles?

Options:

A.

Process, people, products and practices

B.

People, products, phase and plans

C.

Plans, projects, process and people

D.

Phases, productivity, power and process

Question 2

Which skill is MOST relevant to helping people through the change curve?

Options:

A.

Time management.

B.

Negotiation.

C.

Decision-making.

D.

Active listening.

Question 3

Which of the following statements about Scrum Theory is true?

    Scrum employs an iterative approach (correcting the typo “interactive” to “iterative” as requested)

    Decisions should be based on evidence

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true

B.

Only 2 is true

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true

D.

Neither 1 or 2 is true

Question 4

How does change management contribute to benefits?

Options:

A.

Encourages users to make the best use of the new situation.

B.

Ensures dis-benefits are avoided.

C.

Provides ultimate accountability for the benefits of a change.

D.

Produces all of the outcomes required to deliver benefits.

Question 5

What does DSDM refer to the Minimum Usable Subset?

Options:

A.

The Must, Should and Could have requirements

B.

All requirements in the functional specification

C.

The Must Have requirements

D.

Those requirements that have passed user acceptance testing

Question 6

According to Tuckman, in what stage of the team development model are team members likely to want to test and challenge assumptions?

Options:

A.

Forming.

B.

Storming.

C.

Performing.

D.

Adjourning.

Question 7

Why do Line Leaders make effective Change Agents?

Options:

A.

They have local decision-making authority.

B.

As leaders, they are unaffected by the change.

C.

They can support and influence local staff.

D.

They have the time to dedicate to the change.

Question 8

Which of the following statements, about effective communication and engagement approaches that appeal to hearts and minds, are true?

    Actively responding to contributions makes people feel valued.

    Decisions are based solely on rational reasoning.

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true.

B.

Only 2 is true.

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 is true.

Question 9

While the definition of a Must Have requirement is clearly defined, the definition of Could Have and Should Have requirements can be less clear.

When, ideally, should the project team discuss and agree some objective criteria for how these requirements will be prioritized?

Options:

A.

During the pre-project phase

B.

During the Feasibility phase

C.

During the Foundations phase

D.

During the Development Phase

Question 10

Which should always be the first step in the Continuous Change Management Cycle?

Options:

A.

Ideas.

B.

Prioritization.

C.

Discovery.

D.

Action.

Question 11

In what phase is it first established whether further investigation of the project is justified?

Options:

A.

Pre-Project

B.

Feasibility

C.

Foundations

D.

Evolutionary Development

Question 12

Which of the following statements about diverse teams are true?

    Increased creativity and innovation.

    Thorough problem-solving and decision-making.

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true.

B.

Only 2 is true.

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 is true.

Question 13

Which of the phases in the AgilePM project lifecycle is optional?

Options:

A.

Feasibility

B.

Foundations

C.

Realization

D.

None

Question 14

Considering the value statements in the Agile Manifesto which of the following

    Documents should only be created where they add value to the project

    Documents can be created but should never be used to form a contract

    It is vital that any documents created are visible to, and understood by, [stakeholders/team]

    High-level documents can be created early in a project to help support planning and understanding.

Options:

A.

1, 2, 3

B.

1, 2, 4

C.

1, 3, 4

D.

2, 3, 4

Question 15

Which of the following statements about data analytics are true?

    The more data you have, the better the results.

    Obtaining new data from external sources is beneficial and removes bias.

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true.

B.

Only 2 is true.

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 is true.

Question 16

Which of the following statements about neuroscience research, relevant to helping people learn and embrace change, are true?

    Following moments of insight, offer supportive feedback.

    Positive informative talks from experts.

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true.

B.

Only 2 is true.

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 is true.

Question 17

Which competence is NOT required within the Solution Development team?

Options:

A.

All members to be multi-skilled experts

B.

Business knowledge

C.

Technical expertise

D.

Willingness to work with other

Question 18

Which is a factor used in the 'change formula' (Beckhard and Harris)?

Options:

A.

Level of dissatisfaction with the status quo.

B.

Expected return on investment and benefits.

C.

The quality of the leadership.

D.

Elapsed time it will take to achieve the change.

Question 19

In the context of AgilePM, what two types of Increment are associated with what is delivered?

Options:

A.

Solution and Product

B.

Timebound and Freeform

C.

Product and Process

D.

Team and Individual

Question 20

When is a Product Backlog Item considered ‘ready’ to be brought into a Sprint?

Options:

A.

It has been added to the Product Backlog prioritized list

B.

It is small enough to become ‘done’ within a given timeframe

C.

It is selected by Developers during a Sprint Planning event

D.

It is documented as a User Story on a physical card

Question 21

Which of the following describes the role of the Scrum Master?

Options:

A.

Accountable for establishing Scrum, both within the Scrum Team and the wider organization, and for helping everyone understand and enact Scrum theory, practices, rules, and values.

B.

Accountable for maximizing the value of the product or service resulting from the work of their scrum teams.

C.

Responsible for monitoring progress against the baselined Delivery Plan

D.

Responsible for approving the solution as technically fit for purpose prior to deployment.

Question 22

Which responsibility relates to the role of the Business Ambassador?

Options:

A.

Provide the team with strategic direction.

B.

Responsible for the Business Case and project budget.

C.

Resolve business issues and make financial decisions

D.

Provide day-to-day detail of the requirements during timeboxes

Question 23

How does DSDM differ from most other Agile approaches?

Options:

A.

It focuses on the entire project lifecycle

B.

It focuses on the development of products

C.

It focuses on the delivery of products

D.

It focuses on the collaborative working of teams

Question 24

During what DSDM phase is it established how quality to be assured?

Options:

A.

During Feasibility

B.

As part of Foundations

C.

At the start of Evolutionary Development

D.

During each timebox during Evolutionary Development

Question 25

In combination with Scrum, what does AgilePM provide for Scrum Masters?

Options:

A.

An opportunity to serve the organization by leading, training, and coaching the organization in its Scrum adoption

B.

A set of practices, tools, techniques, and methods to enhance the use of Scrum

C.

A framework that helps teams generate value through adaptive solutions for complex problems

D.

An incremental and evolutionary approach to product development that evolves with time

Question 26

Which phase in the DSDM process aims to understand the scope of work and, in broad terms, how it will carried out, by whom, when and where?

Options:

A.

Foundations

B.

Feasibility

C.

Pre-Project

D.

Evolutionary Development

Question 27

In which of the following circumstances should processes and tools be prioritized over individuals and interactions?

Options:

A.

Need to demonstrate formal control over processes

B.

Requirement to create and approve documentation

C.

Contractual obligations

D.

None of the above

Question 28

According to the Cynefin framework, what type of change situation is stable and well understood, where the relationship between cause and effect is clear?

Options:

A.

Simple.

B.

Multifaceted.

C.

Complex.

D.

Chaotic.

Question 29

Which approach is recommended for helping people through the 'change curve'?

Options:

A.

Actively involve line managers in listening and providing support.

B.

Recognize negative emotions as a sign that the change is being managed badly.

C.

Advise people not to discuss their problems with colleagues.

D.

Assume that everyone will eventually move on in time to deal with the change.

Question 30

Who is responsible for the application of Principle 8, Demonstrate Control?

Options:

A.

Collectively applied by the whole team

B.

The project-level roles

C.

Team Leader

D.

Project Manager

Question 31

Identify the missing words in the following sentence.

"It is unrealistic to expect that all four variables of time, cost, quality, and features can be fixed and controlled. It is necessary to allow for flexibility (contingency) in [ ? ]."

Options:

A.

the ‘variables’ of Time and Cost

B.

the ‘variables’ of Features and Quality

C.

the ‘variables’ of Individuals and Interactions

D.

at least one of these variables

Question 32

Which of the following statements are true?

    The 'change curve' describes a normal human reaction to change.

    The 'change curve' only applies to changes that are perceived as negative.

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true.

B.

Only 2 is true.

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 is true.

Question 33

Which of the following statements about the technical Coordinator role is true?

The technical Coordination provides the same function from a technical perspective as the Business Ambassador does from a business perspective.

The technical Coordinator is responsible for ensuring that the solution confirm to the requested technical standards.

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true

B.

Only 2 is true

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true

D.

Neither 1 or 2 is true

Question 34

To show the change is on track, Change Managers must define and agree on a set of measures that reflect the desired outcomes. What are these often called?

Options:

A.

Islands of stability.

B.

Key performance indicators.

C.

Incremental milestones.

D.

Transition tranches.

Question 35

Which of the following is a stated benefit of using DSDM?

1. The business is better able to direct development

2. Designs are based on predicted

3. The risk of building the wrong solution Is reduced

4. Deployment is more likely to go smoothly

Options:

A.

1, 2, 3

B.

2, 3, 4

C.

1, 3, 4

D.

1, 2, 4

Question 36

Which of the following is NOT a Project Artifact relevant to Financial Governance?

Options:

A.

Project Review Report

B.

Sprint Review Record

C.

Foundation Summary

D.

Feasibility Assessment

Question 37

Which is NOT a Scrum Value?

Options:

A.

Focus

B.

Openness

C.

Drive

D.

Commitment

Question 38

Which of the following statements about diverse teams are true?

    Quicker to make decisions than teams of 'similars.'

    Members understand each other immediately.

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true.

B.

Only 2 is true.

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 is true.

Question 39

What DSDM product is identified as a governance product because if may be used for purposes such as prioritization of a project within a portfolio?

Options:

A.

Terms of Reference

B.

Business Case

C.

Prioritized Requirements List

D.

Feasibility Assessment

Question 40

During which of the project lifecycle phases should deployment activities be added to the plan?

Options:

A.

Planning phase

B.

Development phase

C.

Delivery phase

D.

Deployment phase

Question 41

How does AgilePM address risk management in the context of a project environment?

Options:

A.

By integrating risk management into the day-to-day project approach and relying on collaboration and transparency.

B.

By following a rigid, rule-based approach to ensure all risks are documented and tracked.

C.

By separating risk management from other project activities to ensure that it is treated independently.

D.

By emphasizing only contract negotiation over customer collaboration to ensure risk control.

Question 42

Both numerical and subjective methods can build a picture of how effective your change interventions are. Which type of measure can help us to understand why, how, or what happened behind certain behaviors?

Options:

A.

Qualitative.

B.

Quantitative.

C.

Leading.

D.

Lagging.

Question 43

Which of the following is NOT an interest into which each DSDM role is grouped?

Options:

A.

Business

B.

Solution/Technical

C.

Management

D.

Maintenance

Question 44

Which of the following statements about the Project Approach Questionnaire (PAQ) are true?

    Should be revisited at the end of Foundations.

    Should be revisited each time Foundations is revisited.

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true

B.

Only 2 is true

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true

D.

Neither 1 or 2 is true

Question 45

Which statement about change is correct for DSDM?

Options:

A.

Change is a symptom of an inability to define requirements properly

B.

Avoid change whenever possible

C.

Change is inevitable and males estimating very difficult

D.

Project operate with a changing world