Summer Special Flat 65% Limited Time Discount offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: netdisc

APM APM-PFQ APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Exam Practice Test

Page: 1 / 41
Total 409 questions

APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Questions and Answers

Testing Engine

  • Product Type: Testing Engine
$43.75  $124.99

PDF Study Guide

  • Product Type: PDF Study Guide
$38.5  $109.99
Question 1

One difference between an issue and a risk is an issue:

Options:

A.

must be recorded but a risk does not.

B.

is an uncertain event but a risk is not.

C.

is a certain event but a risk is not.

D.

always affects scope but a risk does not

Question 2

What is an example of a project management office activity that would be most likely undertaken to support a project?

Options:

A.

Developing the project management plan.

B.

Developing the business case.

C.

Carrying out A. health check.

D Carrying out day-to-day resource management.

Question 3

In which phase of the project should the Procurement Strategy be written?

Options:

A.

Concept

B.

Definition

C.

Deployment

D.

Transition

Question 4

At which stage, in the Tuckman team development model, are team members clear and comfortable with their roles and responsibilities, and the project manager starts to see signs of the team working together?

Options:

A.

Storming.

B.

Forming.

C.

Norming.

D.

Performing

Question 5

Configuration management is best described as:

Options:

A.

control in the implementation of changes to project schedules.

B.

an organisation to review proposed changes to the project deliverables.

C.

quality control of project deliverables and documentation.

D.

creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.

Question 6

By carrying out a stakeholder analysis, project managers can assess whether or not stakeholders are:

Options:

A.

making unfair judgements.

B.

able to bring expertise to the project team.

C.

in a position to affect their careers.

D.

for or against the project outcomes.

Question 7

Which one of the following statements best describes resource scheduling?

Options:

A.

A. process which identifies activities that will need project resources.

B.

A. process to assign roles to project resources.

C.

A. process that identifies when resources are needed.

D.

A. process to estimate the project resources.

Question 8

Which one of the following best describes users?

Options:

A.

Providers of both strategic and tactical direction to the project.

B.

Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs.

C.

Facilitators of an appropriate issue resolution procedure.

D.

Those providing full-time commitment to the project.

Question 9

In developing a network the first task after listing the activities is to...

Options:

A.

Define activity durations

B.

Determine float

C.

Determine the interdependencies of activities

D.

Harmonise the activity to a calendar

Question 10

Which one of the following is not considered in resource management?

Options:

A.

Identifying resources.

B.

Influencing resources.

C.

Assigning resources to activities.

D.

Matching resources to the schedule.

Question 11

The combination of which two structures creates the responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)?

Options:

A.

OBS and CBS.

B.

OBS and WBS.

C.

PBS and CBS.

D.

WBS and CBS.

Question 12

Project team leaders can influence team performance by developing:

Options:

A.

a clear stakeholder management plan.

B.

respect, shared values and trust.

C.

detailed project management processes.

D.

important political alliances.

Question 13

Which Of the following might be a probable cause to consider early project closure?

Options:

A.

The cost to complete the project is greater than the value to be achieved.

B.

The project is on schedule but spent less than expected

C.

The is expected to yield greater value than stated in the business

D.

The project manager has resigned and an immediate replacement is unavailable

Question 14

Which of the following is included in a Procurement Strategy?

Options:

A.

Benefits

B.

Stakeholder list

C.

Contract pricing information

D.

Specification of works

Question 15

What is likely to be a benefit to a project of having a communication plan?

Options:

A.

The project is more likely to finish on time.

B.

There will be greater adherence to the organisation's governance and standards.

C.

The project will be less susceptible to uncontrolled change.

D.

There will be more focus on what benefits the project will be delivering.

Question 16

Which of the following actions would not help a team leader influence the performance of their team?

Options:

A.

Creating an exclusive environment.

B.

Providing clear roles and responsibilities.

C.

Promoting openness and honesty.

D.

Developing a trusting relationship.

Question 17

Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

Options:

A.

overall project duration.

B.

project cost.

C.

the project management plan.

D.

sub-contractor's responsibilities

Question 18

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager:

Options:

A.

to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.

B.

to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.

C.

to take ultimate accountability for the delivery of the business benefits.

D.

to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders

Question 19

Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?

Options:

A.

Staff appraisals.

B.

Management buy in.

C.

Milestone achievement.

D.

Master schedule.

Question 20

Which of the following descriptions particularly identifies a risk?

Options:

A.

An unplanned delay to the project.

B.

A. current problem that will result in the project going over budget.

C.

An uncertain event that if it occurs will have an effect on one or more of the project objectives,

D.

A. current problem that will result in the project being delayed.

Question 21

A project life cycle which combines approaches from the linear and iterative life cycles is known as _________ project life cycle.

Options:

A.

a hybrid.

B.

an extended.

C.

a reduced.

D.

a combined.

Question 22

Which of these statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Stakeholders may be for the change or against

B.

Stakeholders may have little influence or lots

C.

Stakeholders may be internal or external to your organisation

D.

Stakeholders with high influence always have high interest in the project

Question 23

Who would be typically described as the person or organisation best placed to deal with a risk?

Options:

A.

Risk manager.

B.

Sponsor.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Risk owner.

Question 24

Quality control consists of:

1) improvement

2) inspection

3) measurement

4) testing

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

2, 3 and 4

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

1, 2 and 3

Question 25

Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure.

B.

Organisational breakdown structure.

C.

Product breakdown structure.

D.

Responsibility assignment structure

Question 26

To ensure communication is most likely to be effective in the project, the project manager should:

Options:

A.

ensure that everyone is copied On all emails.

B.

insist on a lower level of paper documents.

C.

train project staff in the most up-to-date communication techniques

D.

develop a communication plan.

Question 27

Communication is said to be the means by which information or instructions are:

Options:

A.

exchanged.

B.

received.

C.

clarified.

D.

given.

Question 28

What is one of the main features of using analogous method of estimating?

Options:

A.

The individual group members use a statistical relationship between historic data and other variables to calculate an estimate.

B.

The task of producing the estimates will be delegated to those who are actually going to deliver the individual pieces of work or work packages.

C.

The individual group members, who are tasked with providing the estimates, do this in isolation from each other.

D.

The individual group members identify a previously delivered project of the same size. complexity and delivery method.

Question 29

What must happen when an issue is likely to result in a change of scope?

Options:

A.

The issue owner is consulted,

B.

A decision regarding the issue is deferred.

C.

The issue is rejected and the owner is informed.

D.

The issue needs to be progressed through change control.

Question 30

What aspect of the project will have greatest influence on the estimating method being used?

Options:

A.

The point in the life cycle where the estimate is being carried out.

B.

The overall budgeted value of the project being estimated.

C.

Whether the project is likely to proceed or not.

D.

The amount of acceptable estimating tolerance that exists.

Question 31

You have been asked to review the project's quality management plan and in particular the elements of the plan most relevant to quality control. Which one of the following will be your primary focus for consideration?

Options:

A.

The development of a. strategy for the management of quality in the project.

B.

Supplying the client with evidence of control to ISO 9000:2000.

C.

A. review of whether underlying processes and way of working are leading towards product deliverables of the right quality.

D.

The agreed methods of inspection, measurement and testing to verify that the project outputs meet acceptance criteria defined during quality planning.

Question 32

Which one of the following best describes project management?

Options:

A.

Using APM's Body of Knowledge 6th edition as a guide to all projects.

B.

Employing a project manager who has undertaken similar projects.

C.

Utilising team members who can work on a project full time.

D.

Application of processes and methods throughout the project life cycle.

Question 33

Which one of the following best describes a project issue?

Options:

A.

A major problem that requires formal escalation.

B.

A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.

C.

An uncertain event that may or may not occur.

D.

An opportunity that occurs through change control.

Question 34

Which one of the following statements BEST defines procurement?

Options:

A.

A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project

B.

A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs

C.

The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product

D.

The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired

Question 35

The prime purpose of configuration management is to:

Options:

A.

ensure the traceability and integrity of the delivered product or products

B.

minimise the impact of changes on the scope of the project

C.

ensure that the final product meets the needs of the business as defined by key stakeholders.

D.

maximise the impact of agreed enhancements to the project deliverables

Question 36

From the project sponsor's viewpoint, which of the following is not an important aspect of the project communication plan?

Options:

A.

How issues are to be escalated from project manager to project sponsor.

B.

Understanding stakeholders' power and influence.

C.

When project workshops are to be held.

D.

Reference to higher level corporate policies.

Question 37

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

An increase in project scope is likely to increase project cost.

B.

A decrease in the project time is likely to increase project quality.

C.

An increase in the project quality requirements is likely to decrease project cost.

D.

A decrease in the project cost is likely to decrease project time.

Question 38

Which one of the following statements best defines teamwork?

Options:

A.

People working collaboratively towards a common goal.

B.

Developing skills that will enhance project performance.

C.

Gathering the right people together to work on a project.

D.

Establishing vision and direction towards a common purpose.

Question 39

One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to:

Options:

A.

facilitate formal go/no-go decision making during the project.

B.

balance the costs of work in each phase of project development.

C.

mirror the major deployments of resources throughout the project.

D.

chunk work into time periods of similar durations.

Question 40

Which of the following is true regarding differences between linear and iterative life cycles?

Options:

A.

A linear life cycle is best for evolving projects whereas an iterative life cycle is better for more structured projects.

B.

A linear life cycle is sequential whereas an iterative life cycle repeats one or more phases.

C.

A linear life cycle is always longer in duration whereas an iterative life cycle is always shorter in its duration.

D.

A linear life cycle is formally managed by A. dedicated project manager whereas management responsibility is shared in an iterative life cycle

Question 41

Which one of the following best defines a benefit?

Options:

A.

A. positive result of stakeholder management.

B.

The successful management of a project.

C.

An improvement resulting from project deliverables.

D.

The successful delivery of project reports and updates.

Question 42

When managing the internal context, the project manager should especially be aware of:

Options:

A.

organisational strategy, policies and frameworks.

B.

competitive positioning.

C.

new legislation.

D business continuity.

Question 43

What is the most likely result of providing effective quality management in the project?

Options:

A.

The project outputs will have been delivered.

B.

Conformance of the outputs and processes to requirements will result in a product that is fit for purpose.

C.

The project management plan will have been followed

D.

Customer expectations will have been exceeded with both outputs and processes

Question 44

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the stages of a linear project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Deployment, Concept, Definition, Transition.

B.

Concept, Transition, Definition, Deployment.

C.

Concept, Definition, Deployment, Transition.

D.

Transition, Definition, Deployment, Concept

Question 45

Project risk management is best described as:

Options:

A.

managing responses to threats.

B.

identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities.

C.

planning responses to threats.

D.

minimising threats and maximising opportunities.

Question 46

Successful project communications will most likely occur when:

Options:

A.

the project sponsor takes responsibility for planning all stakeholder communication from the outset.

B.

email is the primary method used in order to get information to stakeholders in a speedy and efficient manner.

C.

A. standard project communication format for reports is used to provide feedback to stakeholders.

D.

the different communication needs of each stakeholder group are fully understood.

Question 47

To effectively manage the project the range of documentation may appear to be extensive; however, the document that captures the why, what, where, when, how, how much and who for the project is called:

Options:

A.

the project schedule.

B.

the project definition and delivery report.

C.

the project feasibility report.

D.

the project management plan.

Question 48

Critical path analysis places emphasis upon:

Options:

A.

risks

B.

resources

C.

milestones

D.

activities

Question 49

When managing risks, reducing the probability of a threat is considered to be am:

Options:

A.

proactive response.

B.

reactive response.

C.

proactive fallback.

D.

reactive fallback.

Question 50

What action can lead to more consistent communication in the project?

Options:

A.

Only transmitting information that stakeholders have requested, ensuring that any excess information is kept to a minimum.

B.

Communication is carried out en-masse ensuring that all stakeholders get all information.

C.

Communication is planned in advance and all messages delivered use the approved framework.

D.

Communicating information on a one-way basis reducing the need for stakeholders to waste their time providing feedback

Question 51

Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control process?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the change.

B.

Advise the sponsor.

C.

Update the change log.

D.

Update the project plan.

Question 52

Which one of these categories would best represent project issues?

Options:

A.

Uncertain events that may or may not occur.

B.

Opportunities that occur through change control.

C.

Problems that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.

D.

Threats to the project which cannot be resolved by the project manager.

Question 53

How does having a business case help an organisation?

Options:

A.

It provides a documented account of the decisions that have been made and by whom in the planning of the project's finances, ensuring the project's compliance with recognized governance standards

B.

It provides an overview of how the project will deliver the scheduled progress over the period agreed between the project manager, sponsor and other key stakeholders associated with the project.

C.

It provides a means by which the sponsor can monitor the project manager's performance in relation to the plans documented in the business case and highlight points at which a change of project manager may be necessary.

D.

It provides a recognized framework by which project spending proposals can be recorded, reviewed and audited to learn lessons about how efficiently the organisation is deploying funds to achieve its targeted returns.

Question 54

What is essential for ensuring the level of stakeholder engagement is maintained throughout the delivery of the project?

Options:

A.

Stakeholders communicate with each other.

B.

The project management plan is established.

C.

An effective communication plan is used.

D.

All stakeholders are treated equally.

Question 55

The justification for the investment to be made in a project is documented in the...

Options:

A.

Cost breakdown structure

B.

Procurement strategy

C.

Business case

D.

Project management plan

Question 56

What defining character from those listed below particularly typifies an issue?

Options:

A.

A major problem that was unexpected and now requires the attention Of the whole project team.

B.

A major problem that can only be addressed by the project sponsor.

C.

A major problem that may happen in the future.

D.

A major problem that requires A. formal process of escalation

Question 57

Which of the following is an activity in a typical risk management process?

Options:

A.

Verification.

B.

Request.

C.

Closure.

D.

Justification

Question 58

An example Of an external stakeholder group could be:

Options:

A.

users.

B.

A. governmental regulatory body.

C.

functional managers within the sponsoring organisation.

D.

the project team members.

Question 59

The main purpose of configuration management is to:

Options:

A.

minimise the impact of changes on the scope of the project.

B.

ensure that the final product meets the strategic needs of the business.

C.

provide control of the deliverables and avoid mistakes or misunderstandings.

D.

maximise the impact of agreed enhancements on the project deliverables.

Question 60

Which one of the following best describes the purpose of a project's business case?

Options:

A.

A statement of what the project will deliver in terms of products/deliverables and satisfaction.

B.

The reasons why the project sponsor wants their project to proceed.

C.

A statement on how the project fits into the long-term aims of the project sponsor.

D.

Provides justification for undertaking the project, in terms of evaluating the benefits, cost and risks

Question 61

Portfolio management involves:

1) selection

2) control

3) prioritisation

4) transition

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

2, 3 and 4

D.

1, 3 and 4

Question 62

Which of the following would be considered most important when carrying out A. detailed evaluation of a change?

Options:

A.

Impact of change on baseline, risks and business case.

B.

The number of extra people required to deliver the change.

C.

How the change will be reported when it is implemented into the project.

D.

The configuration requirements Of the change when implemented into the project,

Question 63

Which one of the following best describes the entire project reporting process?

Options:

A.

Producing an exception report to communicate A. project issue to the project board.

B.

Publicising the project benefits to the business organisation.

C.

Notifying team members of the project's progress at the weekly team meeting.

D.

Formally notifying the status of the project to the project's stakeholders.

Question 64

Who is best placed in the project to manage sponsor and user expectations?

Options:

A.

The senior management team.

B.

The project manager.

C.

The project management office.

D The project team.

Question 65

What is the estimating method that uses data from a similar project as the basis for the estimate?

Options:

A.

Evaluative estimating.

B.

Risk based estimating.

C.

Analogous estimating.

D.

Analytical estimating.

Question 66

Which of the following is not an essential activity to verify the configuration of an output?

Options:

A.

Plan configuration management process and activities.

B.

Create records and reports to demonstrate traceability.

C.

Verify integrity of configuration before use.

D.

Dissemination of each configuration item.

Question 67

Which of the following are typical estimating methods? 1) Analytical 2) Budgeting 3) Analogous 4) Parametric

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

Question 68

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.

B.

Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.

C.

Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.

D.

A project is always the starting point for operation refinement.

Question 69

As part of the risk management process the capture of threats and

opportunities to the project objectives are referred to as:

Options:

A.

risk assessment.

B.

risk avoidance.

C.

risk exposure.

D.

risk identification.

Question 70

A project manager requires a team member to focus on the team's objectives and draw out other team members. Which of the Belbin's team roles is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Shaper.

B.

Monitor evaluator.

C.

Specialist.

D.

Co-ordinator

Question 71

Which of the following aspects would best describe part of the project environment?

Options:

A.

The influence and interests of the key stakeholders of the project.

B.

The technical difficulties that are anticipated when undertaking the project.

C.

The circumstances within which the project is being undertaken.

D The relationship between the project manager and the project team.

Question 72

Which one of the following would be expected to form the main part of a risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Deciding on the approach to project risk management.

B.

Evaluating the risk in terms of severity and relative importance.

C.

Deciding on how to respond to the risk and who should implement the response.

D.

Deciding if the risk is a threat or opportunity.

Question 73

Why is environmental analysis the most important analysis for an organisation to undertake?

Options:

A.

It allows the detailed execution plans, to be defined, that are likely to be developed in order to deliver the project.

B.

It is the only way in which the scope of the project can be identified and detailed in plans.

C.

It identifies the problems, opportunities or business needs which may require some degree of response.

D It is the only form of detailed planning that can be carried out in the earliest phases of the project life cycle.

Question 74

What aspect is important to clarify when conducting scope definition?

Options:

A.

The number of products contained in the PBS,

B.

The boundaries and interfaces with adjacent projects.

C.

Who is going to perform the work.

D.

When the work is going to be performed.

Question 75

Understanding who stakeholders are and their needs is a key duty of

Options:

A.

the quality manager.

B.

the key users,

C.

the project manager.

D.

the business sponsor.

Question 76

Which of the following are phases in an iterative project life cycle? 1) Concept 2) Feasibility 3) Deployment 4) Development

Options:

A.

3 and 4 only

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

2, 3 and 4

Question 77

Which one of the following best describes project sponsorship?

Options:

A.

Project sponsorship is the customer's role responsible for identifying the business need.

B.

Project sponsorship is an active, senior management role responsible for identifying the business need, problem or opportunity.

C.

Project sponsorship is an active, senior management role managing the customer's needs subject to an agreed cost.

D.

Project sponsorship is the project manager's role responsible for delivering the business need and addressing any problems or opportunities.

Question 78

Resource smoothing is used when:

Options:

A.

quality is more important than cost.

B.

quality is more important than scope.

C.

scope is more important than time.

D.

time is more important than cost.

Question 79

Which of the following should happen as soon as a change has been approved?

Options:

A.

Update change log.

B.

Update the risk register.

C.

Update the issue log.

D.

Update lessons learned.

Question 80

Which of these is likely to occur if the scope is poorly defined?

1. Additional time spent in the concept phase

2. Scope creep

3. Budget over/under runs

4. Scheduling problems

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

Question 81

One benefit of a gate review process is:

Options:

A.

it allows learning from one phase of the project to be passed on to the next phase.

B.

it stops projects that no longer meet the organisation's needs.

C.

it allows procurement to be planned into the project life cycle.

D.

it allows the project team to plan delivery of the next phase

Question 82

How would a project manager use an estimating funnel?

Options:

A.

Describe the improvement in accuracy in estimations over time.

B.

Narrow down budgetary options.

C.

Eliminate unnecessary costs.

D.

Improve understanding of estimation methods over time.

Question 83

What is the main objective of A. RAM?

Options:

A.

To provide a clear and concise summary of tasks or deliverables and the specific. responsibilities defined.

B.

To provide an outline of the reporting structure to assist in day-to-day management of the project.

C.

To provide an outline of the scope of the project and the specific deliverables that have been agreed for the project.

D.

To provide an outline of the specific costs of the project and which key deliverables they are allocated to.

Question 84

Which of the following is a responsibility of the project sponsor?

Options:

A.

Creating a project cost breakdown structure.

B.

Authoring the project management plan.

C.

Creating a project work breakdown structure.

D.

Owning the project business case.

Question 85

A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) can be used to:

Options:

A.

define the terms of reference of the project manager.

B.

define the limits of the project sponsor's responsibilities.

C.

allocate risk management response activities to project personnel.

D.

allocate work packages to those responsible for project work.

Question 86

Which one of the following is a responsibility of the project steering group/board?

Options:

A.

To identify potential problems for the project team to solve.

B.

To provide strategic direction and guidance to the sponsor.

C.

To manage the project team in all daily activities.

D.

To receive and consider daily reports from team members.

Question 87

How is 'quality' best defined?

Options:

A.

The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

B.

The fitness for purpose or the degree of conformance of the outputs of a process or the process itself to requirements.

C.

A. discipline for ensuring the outputs, benefits and the processes by which they are delivered meet stakeholder requirements and are fit for purpose.

D.

The satisfaction of stakeholder needs measured by the success criteria as identified and agreed at the start of the project.

Question 88

Risk management should be initiated...

Options:

A.

when the Project Management Plan is initiated.

B.

at the time the Work Breakdown Structure is developed.

C.

at the start of the project.

D.

once the project concept is understood.

Question 89

Which one of the following is the best reason for splitting a project into phases?

Options:

A.

For team members to reflect on their performance during a phase.

B.

For the project manager to take a break between phases.

C.

It creates a decision point for continuing the project.

D.

In order for the plan to be updated regularly.

Question 90

What is the main benefit of using a risk register in the project?

Options:

A.

It records risks. their impact and the responses being adopted.

B.

It records risk ownership and how issues are being managed.

C.

It assesses the impact and probability of risks taking place.

D.

It directs the team in how the management of risk in the project should be conducted.

Question 91

What is a visual representation of a project's planned activity against a calendar called?

Options:

A.

A Gantt chart.

B.

A critical path network.

C.

A product flow diagram.

D.

A Pareto chart.

Question 92

Scope management in an iterative life cycle would ensure that:

Options:

A.

the must have' requirements are given the top priority for delivery.

B.

the scope is identified at a deeper level in the project.

C.

all stakeholders get what they want from the project.

D.

areas of the project that will be delivered are fully agreed

Question 93

What is the term given to the senior management team that set the strategic. direction for a project?

Options:

A.

Project management office.

B.

Change control board.

C.

Project steering group.

D.

Programme director.

Question 94

Which of these is a key aspect of Programme Management?

Options:

A.

Business as usual reporting

B.

Strategic direction

C.

Benefits management

D.

Managing the project schedules

Question 95

When are benefits usually realised when using an iterative life cycle?

Options:

A.

During the project

B.

Post project

C.

At project closure

D.

Both during and after the project

Question 96

What is a visual representation of a project's planned activities against a calendar called?

Options:

A.

a Gantt chart.

B.

a critical path network.

C.

a product flow diagram.

D.

a Pareto chart.

Question 97

Which one of the following is NOT a function of leadership?

Options:

A.

Reinforcing positive relationships.

B.

Inspiring the individual.

C.

Maintaining constant tight control.

D.

Promoting the project vision.

Question 98

Which of these is a correct definition of an Estimate?

Options:

A.

The use of a range of tools and techniques to produce forecasts of the probable time or cost of completing work

B.

An educated guess that improves over time

C.

A forecast of the probable time or cost of completing work

D.

An estimate is an approximation of project time and cost targets that forms the basis of the contract

Question 99

Implementation of plans and verification of performance is most likely to occur in:

Options:

A.

the deployment phase.

B.

the definition phase

C.

the concept phase.

D.

the adoption phase

Question 100

Quality control verifies that:

Options:

A.

the project follows appropriate processes.

B.

project outputs are delivered on time.

C.

the project follows appropriate governance.

D.

project outputs meet acceptance criteria.

Question 101

Which of the following is an activity in a typical change control process?

Options:

A.

Recommendation.

B.

Justification.

C.

Planning.

D.

Continuous improvement

Question 102

What aspects of benefits realisation would be considered as most important to note in the business case?

Options:

A.

Who is going to be responsible for carrying out each of the projects activities.

B.

How the benefits will be realised, measured and the stakeholders involved

C.

What type of contract is going to be used to procure delivery of the project.

D.

Which benefits should be realised first and then the subsequent order

Question 103

Which is one of the three key project constraints?

Options:

A.

Time

B.

Political

C.

Environmental

D.

Technical

Question 104

The main objective of stakeholder management is to establish stakeholder:

Options:

A.

interests.

B.

expectations.

C.

influence.

D.

engagement.

Question 105

What is the likely decision to arise from the response stage of the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Whether to proceed with the project or recommend termination.

B.

Whether the process being used is robust enough for the project being undertaken.

C.

Whether to proactively invest to bring the exposure to risk within tolerable levels.

D.

Whether to use brainstorming or a workshop to decide on the best response.

Question 106

Good teamwork helps to deliver a successful project because:

Options:

A.

team members have similar skill sets.

B.

project work can be distributed equally around the team.

C.

all team members have the same access to project information.

D.

people work collaboratively towards a common goal.

Question 107

Configuration management could best be described as:

Options:

A.

the process through which all requests to change the approved baseline of a project is captured. evaluated and then approved. rejected or deferred.

B.

the system that ensures that all changes to configuration items are controlled and the interrelationships between items are identified.

C.

the technical and administrative activities concerned with the creation, maintenance, controlled change and quality control of the scope of work.

D.

A report of the current status and history of all changes to the configuration, together with a complete record of what has happened to the configuration to date.

Question 108

One disadvantage of physical communication is:

Options:

A.

its significant environmental impact when compared to other forms of communication.

B.

that no audit trail is available for review at a later date by project team members.

C.

it is reliant on technology being available to all relevant members of the project.

D.

that your body language may not reflect what you're saying when passing on information

Question 109

Which one of the following best characterises a project?

Options:

A.

An ongoing activity to maintain the company plant.

B.

A. transient endeavour carried out to meet specificobjectives.

C.

Continuous improvement of the company procedures.

D.

Manufacturing components for a new technology.

Question 110

A work breakdown structure shows the levels of work required to produce the deliverables for the project in what type of diagram?

Options:

A.

Histogram.

B.

Hierarchical.

C.

Handover.

D.

Historical.

Question 111

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure the project manager delivers on time and to budget.

B.

Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will be exceeded.

C.

Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.

D.

Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer expectations and budget.

Question 112

Which of the following statements explain the importance of clearly defined success criteria at handover?

1) Deliverables are more likely to satisfy the client

2) The project can be effectively evaluated

3) Work can be effectively planned

4) Change can generally be avoided

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 113

Who in the project is responsible for benefits realisation?

Options:

A.

The senior management of the organisation.

B.

The project manager.

C.

The sponsor.

D The end users.

Question 114

What is the key benefit of having configuration management in the project?

Options:

A.

It allows a thorough assessment of the factors that are most likely to affect the change.

B.

It is A. means to justify to the customer variances from the original objectives.

C.

It ensures that the delivered product most closely meets the needs of the customer.

D.

It manages the impact of change to the project scope.

Question 115

Which one of the following is NOT part of the handover process during the final phase of a project lifecycle:

Options:

A.

the acceptance of pertinent documentation relative to project deliverables.

B.

the definition of acceptance criteria for project deliverables.

C.

the transfer of responsibility for project deliverables.

D.

the testing of project deliverables to demonstrate they work in their final operational mode.

Question 116

The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to:

Options:

A.

identify and determine the relative importance of the project risks.

B.

identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project.

C.

identify and determine the responses to the project risks.

D.

identify and describe risks that have occurred on previous projects

Question 117

The main purpose of the Project Management Plan is to:

Options:

A.

provide justification for undertaking the project in terms of evaluating the benefit, cost and risk of alternative options.

B.

ensure the project sponsor has tight control of the project manager's activity.

C.

document the outcomes of the planning process and provide the reference document for managing the project.

D.

document the outcome of the risk, change and configuration management processes.

Question 118

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.

B.

Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.

C.

Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.

D.

A. project is always the starting point for operational refinement.

Question 119

A portfolio can best be defined as:

Options:

A.

A group of projects and programmes carried out within an organisation.

B.

A group of programmes carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.

C.

A group of projects carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.

D.

A range of products and services offered by an organisation.

Question 120

Which of the following defines the term 'deployment baseline'?

Options:

A.

The starting point for creating a resource histogram.

B.

The basis for creating an organisational breakdown structure.

C.

The starting point for the monitoring of project risks.

D.

The basis for progress monitoring.

Question 121

The purpose of a decision gate is to decide whether:

Options:

A.

the response to a risk is valid.

B.

a project is viable in line with the business case.

C.

the project delivered against the success criteria.

D.

lessons were effectively learned during the project.

Question 122

When is an analysis of a project's environment most likely to be undertaken?

Options:

A.

In the Definition Phase

B.

In the Transition Phase

C.

In the Concept Phase

D.

In the Deployment Phase

Page: 1 / 41
Total 409 questions