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ACFE CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence Certified Fraud Examiner - Fraud Prevention and Deterrence Exam Exam Practice Test

Certified Fraud Examiner - Fraud Prevention and Deterrence Exam Questions and Answers

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Question 1

The availability of suitable targets, absence of capable guardians, and presence of motivated offenders are the three most important elements that influence crime according to which of the following criminological theories?

Options:

A.

Conditioning theory

B.

Routine activities theory

C.

Rational choice theory

D.

Social control theory

Question 2

During a fraud risk assessment, the assessment team determines that it would like to observe the interactions among several employees as they collectively discuss the organization's current fraud awareness training. Which of the following techniques would be MOST HELPFUL for the team to use in gathering this information?

Options:

A.

Focus groups

B.

Surveys

C.

Anonymous feedback mechanisms

D.

Interviews

Question 3

According to the 2020 Report to the Nations.___________schemes ate the MOST COMMON form of occupational fraud,

while_________schemes are the MOST COSTLY form of occupational fraud.

Options:

A.

Asset misappropriation; corruption

B.

Corruption, asset misappropriation

C.

Financial statement fraud: corruption

D.

Asset misappropriation: financial statement fraud

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT one of the three general approaches used to control corporate crime?

Options:

A.

Strong intervention of the government

B.

Voluntary changes in corporate attitudes and structure

C.

Consumer action to force change

D.

Media blacklisting of the organization

Question 5

A professional organization's code of conduct serves which of the following purposes?

Options:

A.

It functions as a reference and benchmark for ethical guidance.

B.

It offers fewer and less direct solutions to professional ethical dilemmas than might exist under general ethical principles.

C.

It acts as a substitute for legal and regulatory requirements that apply to the profession.

D.

It replaces the need for individuals to consult their own principles.

Question 6

During the course of a fraud examination. While, an employee of the ABC Corp.. approaches Blue, a Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE), and tells Blue that she wishes to furnish information in confidence. Blue also is employed by the ABC Corp. Blue should:

Options:

A.

Tell White that she will try to keep the information as confidential as possible

B.

Agree that the information will be held in confidence, even though Blue knows it will not be

C.

Take White's request straight to ABC Corp.'s management

D.

Not agree to the request for confidentiality

Question 7

Jody has been working at ABC Corp. for ten years. He steals funds from the company and tells himself that the company owes it to him for his "unrewarded hard work and loyalty" This situation BEST illustrates which leg of the Fraud Triangle?

Options:

A.

Perceived non-shareable financial need

B.

Rationalization

C.

Perceived opportunity

D.

Lack of personal Integrity

Question 8

Which of the following scenarios would MOST LIKELY be considered a violation of the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics?

Options:

A.

Riva, a CFE, uncovered material internal control deficiencies that were material but unrelated to the kickback scheme she was investigating. In her final report to management, Riva included information about the deficiencies despite their being unrelated to the situation she was hired to investigate.

B.

Dee, a CFE, accepted an assignment to conduct a fraud examination within a manufacturing company. Because she rushed to complete the investigation, she overlooked key items of evidence and failed to uncover a fraud scheme.

C.

Derrick, a CFE, was hired by a client to conduct a fraud examination but found nothing abnormal. A year later, he received a court order to provide the client's file to the court. Derrick complied with the court order despite not having the client's authorization to provide the file.

D.

All of the above are violations.

Question 9

According to ACFE research, which of the following is TRUE regarding prosecutions of white-collar criminals?

Options:

A.

The most common internal response to a substantiated fraud case is to terminate the employee.

B.

Only a small percentage of perpetrators are punished when an organization handles a fraud case internally.

C.

Most fraud cases are only handled internally and are not referred to law enforcement for prosecution.

D.

The primary reason that organizations decline to prosecute fraud cases is a lack of evidence.

Question 10

Which of the following Is NOT considered a conflict of Interest that Is prohibited under the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics?

Options:

A.

Undertaking an engagement that decreases the fraud examiner's ability to perform their duties for their full-time employer

B.

Accepting an assignment to assess red flags of fraud at an organization in which the fraud examiner is a partner, provided the fraud examiner's ownership interest is disclosed

C.

Undertaking engagements for both sides in a case of an alleged product substitution scheme

D.

Accepting an assignment to secretly infiltrate the fraud examiner's employing organization and transmit inside information to another party

Question 11

According to International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 31000:2018, an effective and efficient risk management program contains all of the following principles EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The program takes human and cultural factors into account.

B.

The program is static and consistent, even during times of organizational change.

C.

The program facilitates continuous improvement.

D.

The program is customized and proportionate to the organization's operations and objectives.

Question 12

Which of the following statements Is TRUE regarding how fraud examiners should exercise professional skepticism during a fraud examination engagement?

Options:

A.

Fraud examiners should not relax their skeptical attitudes under any circumstances.

B.

Professional skepticism involves maintaining a mindset that no fraud has occurred

C.

Fraud examiners should form the engagement hypothesis without regard to the nature of the assignment

D.

Professional skepticism can be dispelled only by evidence

Question 13

During a fraud risk assessment, the assessment team is seeking information on the ethical tone set by upper and middle managers. The team members determine that, for this task, they would like to get candid one-on-one feedback from employees away from their peers. Which of the following techniques would be most helpful for them to use in gathering this information?

Options:

A.

Interviews

B.

Focus groups

C.

Anonymous feedback mechanisms

D.

Surveys

Question 14

Fraud risks related to corruption include all of the following EXCEPT;

Options:

A.

Receipt of kickbacks

B.

Espionage by competitors

C.

Payment of bribes

D.

Aiding and abetting vendor fraud

Question 15

Cho, an internal auditor, and Pierre, a sales manager, have had several disagreements about the sales tactics used by Pierre's team. Cho has just been told that she will lead the company's fraud risk assessment. During the fraud risk assessment, Cho should:

Options:

A.

Automatically designate the sales function as a high-risk area.

B.

Include her disagreements with Pierre as a factor when assessing the risk of fraud in the sales function.

C.

Confront Pierre about the disagreements and discuss how they increase the company's risk of fraud.

D.

Request that someone else perform the fraud risk assessment work that is related to the sales function's activities.

Question 16

According to International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 31000:2018, an effective and efficient risk management program contains all of the following principles EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The program is structured and comprehensive.

B.

The program is based upon the best available information.

C.

The program is integrated into only high-risk organizational activities.

D.

The program is customized and proportionate to the organization's operations and objectives.

Question 17

Willow, Inc. has a complex organizational structure with many specialized departments. The structure of Willow, Inc. increases the likelihood that fraud will go undetected within the organization.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 18

Which of the following choices is an example of an anti-fraud control that is primarily preventive in nature?

Options:

A.

Continuous audit techniques

B.

Proactive data analysis techniques

C.

Employee background checks

D.

Whistleblower hotline

Question 19

Which of the following Is NOT a way that an organization's fraud risk assessment should be Incorporated Into the audit process?

Options:

A.

It should be used to assess whether there is a moderate-to-high risk of management overriding controls within the moderate-to-high fraud risk areas.

B.

It should be used to replace the auditor's own identification and assessment of fraud risks.

C.

it should be used to increase awareness in the development of audit programs for areas that have been identified as having a moderate-to-high risk of fraud.

D.

It should be used to design audit tests to evaluate whether the controls are operating effectively.

Question 20

Timothy, a new Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE), has been tasked with his first fraud examination engagement. To exercise appropriate professional skepticism as he conducts the engagement, Timothy should:

Options:

A.

Begin the engagement with the belief that no fraud has occurred.

B.

Maintain a skeptical attitude throughout the entire engagement even if the evidence shows no signs of fraudulent activity.

C.

Maintain professional skepticism that can only be dispelled by evidence.

D.

Form the engagement hypothesis without consideration for the nature of the assignment.

Question 21

According to Silk and Vogel's research, which of the following is one of the ways that businesses rationalize illegal conduct?

Options:

A.

Corporate violations that involve large sums of money are often spread among so many organizations that each gains very little individually.

B.

Violations are caused by innocent errors in judgment rather than economic necessity.

C.

Government regulations are justified because the additional costs of regulations and bureaucratic procedures increase government profits.

D.

Government regulation is unnecessary because the matters being regulated are unimportant.

Question 22

ArtisanWare, Inc. is a retailer of high-end kitchen supplies. The company receives a very large order from EFG Company, a new customer in a different country that wants to pay on credit. Which of the following is MOST ACCURATE regarding the due diligence procedures that ArtisanWare should perform on EFG before proceeding with this transaction?

Options:

A.

ArtisanWare only needs to undertake due diligence procedures if EFG conducts business in countries with known corruption risks.

B.

ArtisanWare does not need to take any specific procedures to verify EFG's identity before accepting the transaction.

C.

ArtisanWare should perform the same level of due diligence as it would for any other customer to avoid claims of discrimination.

D.

ArtisanWare should examine EFG's net worth as part of deciding whether to allow the purchase on credit.

Question 23

Which of the following choices is an example of an anti-fraud control that is primarily detective in nature?

Options:

A.

Continuous audit techniques

B.

Separation of employee duties

C.

Employee background checks

D.

Hiring policies and procedures

Question 24

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the G20/OECD Principles of Corporate Governance?

Options:

A.

They assert that a corporate governance framework should ensure the equitable treatment of all the organization’s shareholders.

B.

They are intended to be applicable in developed economies but not in emerging markets.

C.

They are required to be implemented by all corporations in the jurisdictions that have officially adopted them.

D.

They state that a corporate governance framework should require disclosure of all financial information to the organization’s investors.

Question 25

Which of the following is TRUE regarding International Standard on Auditing (ISA) 240?

Options:

A.

ISA 240 requires auditors to effectively educate the staff about the risk of fraud within the audited organization.

B.

ISA 240 establishes auditors as being primarily responsible for implementing anti-fraud internal controls within an organization.

C.

ISA 240 provides guidance regarding the auditor's responsibility to consider fraud in an audit of financial statements.

D.

ISA 240 creates requirements for the board of directors regarding the establishment of a holistic fraud risk management program.

Question 26

Which of the following statements regarding recommended vendor due diligence procedures is MOST ACCURATE?

Options:

A.

An organization should avoid revealing that it is seeking information about potential vendors prior to starting its relationship with them.

B.

An organization should perform audits of potential vendors before agreeing to conduct business with them.

C.

An organization should request that new vendors complete a questionnaire about their background immediately after signing a contract with them.

D.

An organization should ensure that vendors have their own ethics and compliance program before engaging in any transactions with them.

Question 27

Which of the following is a responsibility of an organization's board of directors?

Options:

A.

Serving as the intermediary between staff-level employees and management.

B.

Assessing the strategy and underlying purpose of management's decisions and actions.

C.

Electing the company shareholders and supervising their decisions and actions.

D.

Directing employees to organize and execute business activities.

Question 28

For its compliance program to be effective, an organization must promote the program through appropriate incentives for compliance.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 29

According to the routine activities theory, all of the following are important elements that influence crime EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The presence of motivated offenders

B.

The lack of accountability for misdeeds

C.

The absence of capable guardians

D.

The availability of suitable targets

Question 30

Which of the following is one of the four recommendations made by the National Commission on Fraudulent Financial Reporting (the Treadway Commission) to reduce the probability of fraud in financial reports?

Options:

A.

Provide adequate resources and authority to the internal audit function.

B.

Have a mandatory independent finance committee.

C.

Assign oversight of the hotline reporting program to company shareholders.

D.

Develop a written charter for the audit committee.

Question 31

A report by a fraud examiner is privileged from disclosure by anyone other than the client.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 32

A professional organization's code of conduct serves which of the following purposes?

Options:

A.

A code offers fewer and less direct solutions to professional ethical dilemmas than might exist under general ethical principles.

B.

A code acts as a substitute for legal and regulatory requirements that apply to the profession.

C.

A code provides answers to all ethical dilemmas that the organization's members might encounter.

D.

A code facilitates practical enforcement and internal discipline throughout a profession.

Question 33

The Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO) defines internal control as:

Options:

A.

A process implemented to review how well the organization’s risk management capabilities have increased value over time and how they will continue to drive value for the organization

B.

A process, effected by an entity’s board of directors, management, and other personnel,designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the achievement of objectives relating to operations, reporting, and compliance

C.

A process involving personnel at all levels of the organization that aims to eliminate all uncertainty and risk while also ensuring the achievement of organizational goals

D.

A process aimed at proactively identifying, evaluating, and addressing an organization's vulnerabilities to fraud by both internal and external sources

Question 34

Consistently punishing perpetrators can be an effective fraud prevention mechanism

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 35

Which of the following Is NOT Included In Ihe five fraud risk management principles described In Fraud Risk Management Guide, a joint publication by COSO and the ACFE?

Options:

A.

Communicating the expectations of those governing the fraud risk management program

B.

Performing comprehensive fraud risk assessments to identify specific fraud schemes

C.

Deploying preventive and detective fraud control activities to mitigate fraud risk

D.

Developing one-time evaluations for each fraud risk management principle

Question 36

According to behaviorists such as B. F. Skinner, which of the following scenarios is MOST LIKELY to occur when an undesired behavior is punished?

Options:

A.

The behavior will return when punishment ceases

B.

The behavior will be permanently suppressed

C.

The behavior will occur more frequently.

D.

The behavior will not be affected by the punishment

Question 37

During an external audit of an organization’s financial statements, Saskia, the external auditor, uncovers significant internal control deficiencies at the organization. She believes these deficiencies could result in a material misstatement of the financial statements. Which of the following should Saskia do regarding these findings?

Options:

A.

Saskia should communicate the deficiencies in writing to those charged with governance.

B.

Saskia should suspend the current audit engagement and begin a new audit focused on the internal control deficiencies.

C.

Saskia should provide a written communication about her findings to the relevant regulatory agencies.

D.

Saskia should withdraw from the audit engagement immediately and issue a disclaimer on any prior work performed.

Question 38

Which of the following factors increases an organization's inherent inclination toward committing crime according to Diane Vaughan's research?

Options:

A.

Management seeks diversity in attitudes and perspectives when hiring employees.

B.

Management separates employee performance goals from company performance goals.

C.

Management encourages employee loyalty through social functions.

D.

Management rewards employees who challenge how the company functions.

Question 39

Mario is charged with implementing a fraud reporting program on behalf of his organization. Which of the following is a best practice that Mario should follow to ensure that the program is successful?

Options:

A.

Inform employees that the names of all individuals who report misconduct will be shared with the organization's management and law enforcement.

B.

Inform employees that they will be held accountable for reporting any tips that cannot be verified.

C.

Inform employees that they are required to report any information about suspected fraud only to their direct supervisor.

D.

Inform employees that they can make their report anonymously (where permitted by law).

Question 40

Aaron, a government auditor, is conducting a financial statement audit of a public-sector entity in accordance with the International Standards of Supreme Audit Institutions. Which of the following is TRUE regarding Aaron’s consideration of fraud during this engagement?

Options:

A.

Aaron’s audit objectives are likely narrower than those of a private-sector financial statement audit.

B.

Aaron should remain alert for fraud but does not need to consider the potential for abuse or other misconduct during the audit engagement.

C.

Aaron likely does not have the ability to withdraw from the engagement, even if fraud is identified during the audit.

D.

Aaron does not need to comply with the requirements found in International Standard on Auditing 240, as they do not apply to the engagement.

Question 41

Which of the following statements regarding the objectives of a fraud risk management program is TRUE?

Options:

A.

A fraud risk management program should only focus on addressing fraud after it occurs.

B.

A fraud risk management program should incorporate policies and procedures designed to both prevent and detect fraud but should not address fraud responses.

C.

A fraud risk management program should include the formal procedures that management takes in response to a fraud, such as rebuilding stakeholders' confidence in the organization.

D.

A fraud risk management program should prioritize activities that proactively identify and assess fraud risks over activities that detect fraud while it is occurring.

Question 42

According to ACFE research, which of the following is TRUE regarding the three major categories of occupational fraud?

Options:

A.

Identity theft is both the most common and costliest category of occupational fraud.

B.

Asset misappropriation schemes are the most common category of occupational fraud.

C.

Corruption schemes are the costliest category of occupational fraud.

D.

Financial statement fraud schemes are the most common category of occupational fraud.

Question 43

Which of the following criminological theories states that individuals make a conscious decision to commit a crime and that crime can be deterred by reducing opportunities for criminal activity and increasing an individual's personal risk of being caught and punished?

Options:

A.

Routine activities theory

B.

Differential association theory

C.

Rational choice theory

D.

Social conflict theory

Question 44

Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding the role of a well-designed organizational structure as part of an anti-fraud program?

Options:

A.

A confused organizational structure makes it harder for a fraudster to perpetrate and conceal their misdeeds.

B.

Effectively documenting and communicating the organizational structure to all employees can help prevent fraud.

C.

Formally establishing and communicating the proper flow of information in an organization can hinder its fraud prevention initiatives.

D.

Displaying organizational and departmental hierarchies can help fraudsters select their targets.

Question 45

Which of the following principles of corporate governance pertains to the duty of the organization to act in the best interest of society?

Options:

A.

Transparency

B.

Responsibility

C.

Fairness

D.

Accountability

Question 46

Which of the following scenarios is LEAST LIKELY to be considered a conflict of interest that is prohibited under the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics?

Options:

A.

Lori accepts an assignment to infiltrate her employer and transmit inside information to a competitor.

B.

Ren undertakes an external engagement that requires him to work outside the normal work hours of his primary employer.

C.

DeVon undertakes engagements for both sides in a case of an alleged fraudulent warranty scheme.

D.

Karen accepts an assignment to search for fraud indicators at an organization in which she is an undisclosed partner.

Question 47

According to the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO), internal control is defined as:

Options:

A.

A process aimed at proactively identifying, assessing, and managing an organization's vulnerabilities to fraud by both internal and external sources.

B.

The system enacted to ensure effective oversight of the board of directors, management, and all other parties responsible for an organization's direction, operations, and performance.

C.

The system that is designed and implemented to eliminate all uncertainty and risk while also ensuring the achievement of organizational goals.

D.

A process, effected by an entity's board of directors, management, and other personnel, designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the achievement of objectives relating to operations, reporting, and compliance.

Question 48

The findings in the 2020 Report to the Nations include which of the following?

Options:

A.

The most commonly reported red flag displayed by fraud perpetrators prior to the detection of their crime is complaints about management.

B.

Mote occupational frauds are committed by men than by women

C.

The median losses caused by executives are lower than those caused by staff-level employees

D.

The majority of fraudsters have been previously punished by an employer for a fraud-related offense

Question 49

In response to a risk identified during a fraud risk assessment, management decides to implement additional internal control measures. This response is known as:

Options:

A.

Assuming the risk

B.

Mitigating the risk

C.

Avoiding the risk

D.

Transferring the risk

Question 50

Fraud risks related to regulatory and legal misconduct include all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Fraudulent customer payments

B.

Anti-competitive practices

C.

Insider trading

D.

Conflicts of interest

Question 51

Which of the following is one of the four recommendations made by the National Commission on Fraudulent Financial Reporting (the Treadway Commission) to reduce the probability of fraud in financial reports?

Options:

A.

Assign oversight of the hotline reporting program to company shareholders

B.

Have a mandatory independent finance committee

C.

Provide adequate resources and authority to the internal audit function

D.

Develop a written charter for the audit committee

Question 52

Which of the following would MOST LIKELY be a violation of the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics?

Options:

A.

Rodrigo. a CFE. uncovered several material Internal control deficiencies unrelated to the Kickback scheme he was Investigating. In his final report to management. Rodrigo included information about the deficiencies even though they were unrelated to the situation he was hired to investigate.

B.

Vivian, a CFE, accepted an assignment to conduct a fraud examination within a manufacturing company. Because she was in a hurry to complete the investigation, she overlooked key items of evidence and ended up failing to uncover a major fraud scheme.

C.

Tom, a CFE, was hired by a client to conduct a fraud examination but found nothing amiss. A year later, he received a court order to provide the client's file to the ordering court. Tom complied with the court order, even though he did not have the client's authorization to do so.

D.

All of the above are violations.

Question 53

Which of the following components of the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission’s (COSO) Enterprise Risk Management—Integrating with Strategy and Performance refers to an organization’s ability to continually assess how well its enterprise risk management (ERM) capabilities and practices have increased value over time and how they will continue to drive value for the organization?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Governance and culture

C.

Strategy and objective-setting

D.

Review and revision

Question 54

According to Diane Vaughan. which of the following factors increases an organization's inherent inclination toward committing crime?

Options:

A.

Rewards are given to employees who challenge the status quo

B.

Management encourages employee loyalty through social functions

C.

Management separates employee performance goals from company performance goals

D.

All of the above

Question 55

Which of the following is included in the G20/OECD Principles of Corporate Governance?

Options:

A.

A requirement for corporations to establish a legal, regulatory, and institutional framework to support good governance practices

B.

A call to support the equal treatment of all members of an organization's governing body

C.

Guidance regarding appropriate board structures, responsibilities, and procedures

D.

An examination of the importance of effectively designed and implemented internal control mechanisms within an organization

Question 56

Which of the following statements regarding recommended vendor due diligence procedures is MOST ACCURATE?

Options:

A.

An organization should subject vendors to an internal audit conducted by the organization's own auditors before agreeing to do business with them.

B.

An organization should avoid revealing that it is seeking information about potential vendors prior to starting a relationship with them.

C.

An organization should request that new vendors fill out a questionnaire about their background immediately after signing a contract with them.

D.

An organization should include a clause in the contract requiring the vendor to report any misconduct before entering into an agreement with them.

Question 57

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Controls are not effective in preventing theft and fraud If those at risk do not know of their presence

B.

Most experts agree that it is harder to detect frauds than to prevent them

C.

Educating employees about company hotlines and reporting programs increases their perception of detection

D.

Conducting covert audits is among the most effective fraud prevention methods

Question 58

Employee support programs are a fraud prevention mechanism that addresses which leg of the Fraud Triangle

Options:

A.

Rationalization

B.

Lack of integrity

C.

Opportunity

D.

Pressure

Question 59

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a factor that directors and management should consider when developing a corporate governance framework for an organization?

Options:

A.

The organization's cultural environment

B.

The organization's legal and regulatory environment

C.

The organization's physical operating environment

D.

The organization's ethical environment

Question 60

Which of the following is NOT considered a conflict of interest that is prohibited under the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics?

Options:

A.

Accepting an assignment to secretly infiltrate the fraud examiner's employing organization and transmit inside information to another party

B.

Undertaking an engagement that decreases the fraud examiner's ability to perform their duties for their full-time employer

C.

Accepting an assignment to evaluate the anti-fraud controls at an organization in which the fraud examiner is a shareholder, provided the fraud examiner's ownership interest is disclosed

D.

Undertaking engagements for both sides in a case of alleged vendor overbilling

Question 61

Based on research regarding the criminogenic nature of organizations, employees with strong personal values and ethics will always disobey a superior's direct order to engage in fraudulent behavior, despite an inherent desire to obey authority figures.

Options:

A.

True

B.

Flase

Question 62

Which of the following scenarios is the MOST ACCURATE representation of organizational crime?

Options:

A.

A retail clerk colluding with a friend to commit a scheme involving fraudulent returns.

B.

An inventory manager taking home the company's product to sell privately.

C.

An agreement between all the local floral companies to unnecessarily raise prices.

D.

An accountant uses company funds to pay personal credit card charges.

Question 63

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the organization's board of directors?

Options:

A.

Serving as the intermediaries between shareholders and management

B.

Acting as guardians of the organization's resources and assets

C.

Directing employees to execute business activities

D.

Assessing the strategy and underlying purpose of management's decisions and actions

Question 64

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding an organization's fraud risk management program?

Options:

A.

The program must include mechanisms to address breaches in compliance.

B.

The punishment for intentional noncompliance should be carried out in a consistent and firm manner.

C.

Formal sanctions for intentional noncompliance should be determined and enacted privately

D.

A specific individual or team should be designated as responsible for monitoring compliance with the program

Question 65

In Ihe context of fraud examination, integrity requires all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

An ability to analyze situations where no professional rules are specifically applicable and determine right from wrong

B.

Subordination of desires for personal gain to the interests of clients, employers, and the public

C.

Independence of mental attitude

D.

Avoidance of differences of opinion

Question 66

Warren wants to decrease the amount of cash register discrepancies among the cashiers at his small business. According to behaviorist theories, which of the following options would be the MOST EFFECTIVE way for Warren to encourage the cashiers to reduce their discrepancies and keep their cash drawers balanced?

Options:

A.

Demote employees who continue to have reconciliation discrepancies.

B.

Publicly praise employees every time their cash drawers are balanced.

C.

Deduct an hour's worth of pay for anyone whose cash drawer is not perfectly reconciled each day.

D.

Take away an hour of paid time off from an employee each time their cash drawer is not balanced.

Question 67

The internal auditor's fraud-related responsibilities include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Obtaining reasonable assurance that the organization's financial statements are free of material misstatements caused by fraud

B.

Overseeing management's actions to manage fraud risks

C.

Evaluating indicators of fraud and deciding whether any further action is necessary or whether an investigation should be recommended

D.

Establishing and maintaining effective anti-fraud controls at a reasonable cost

Question 68

The theory of differential association is used frequently lo explain white-collar criminality. Which of the following is NOT one of the assertions or principles of differential association?

Options:

A.

Criminal behavior is explained by an individual's general needs and values.

B.

Criminal behavior is acquired through participation with intimate personal groups.

C.

Criminal behavior is learned from other people in a process of communication.

D.

Criminal behavior is learned using the same mechanisms as other learning

Question 69

During an external audit, the audit team identifies evidence that management has intentionally omitted some expenses from the company's financial statements in order to conceal an asset misappropriation scheme. However, the amount of the resulting misstatement does not meet the quantitative materiality threshold for the audit. Which of the following is TRUE regarding this situation?

Options:

A.

The auditors should assume that all audit evidence collected previously is unreliable and withdraw from the audit engagement

B.

The auditors should assess the need to adjust the nature, timing, and extent of remaining audit procedures based on this evidence.

C.

The auditors can ignore the misstatement because the omitted amount is less than the quantitative materiality threshold and therefore immaterial to the audit.

D.

The auditors do not need to be concerned with this evidence, as asset misappropriation schemes are not considered relevant or material for external audit purposes.

Question 70

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding how fraud examiners should exercise professional skepticism during a fraud examination engagement?

Options:

A.

Professional skepticism means beginning all assignments with the belief that something is amiss.

B.

Professional skepticism involves maintaining a mindset that no fraud has occurred

C.

Fraud examiners should form the engagement hypothesis without regard to the available preliminary information.

D.

Fraud examiners should not relax their skeptical attitudes under any circumstances.

Question 71

To reinforce an anti-fraud culture, it is BEST for an organization's management to:

Options:

A.

Use a checklist of initiatives to ensure that all the elements of a strong corporate culture are in place.

B.

Demonstrate the same ethical behavior required of individuals at lower levels of the company.

C.

Discipline any employees who question their direct supervisor’s behavior or policies.

D.

Discourage employees from voicing concerns regarding senior leadership's actions or decisions.

Question 72

Rosie, a Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE), conducted a fraud examination for her company that led to a confession of guilt from Dean. Which of the following statements in Rosie's verbal report to management would violate the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics?

Options:

A.

"The evidence does not support Dean's confession."

B.

"Dean is guilty of embezzlement."

C.

"Dean's confession is supported by the evidence."

D.

"Dean confessed to embezzlement."

Question 73

According to ACFE research, which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Frauds committed by staff-level employees cause higher median losses than those committed by owners and executives.

B.

Men and women commit similar amounts of occupational frauds.

C.

Complaints about family problems is the most reported behavioral red flag displayed by fraud perpetrators.

D.

Most employees who commit occupational fraud are first-time offenders.

Question 74

According to Silk and Vogel's research, business leaders rationalize legal violations by asserting that compliance with government regulations is too costly and cuts too heavily into company profits.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 75

According to social control theory, which of the following questions are people MOST LIKELY to ask themselves when considering the possibility of violating the law?

Options:

A.

"How can I prevent someone from learning what I did?"

B.

"How likely am I to be punished for this crime?"

C.

"Will I lose my job if my actions are discovered?"

D.

"What will my parents think if they find out?"

Question 76

Aqua Corp.'s board of directors is meeting to discuss fraud risk management within the organization. Which of the following activities is among the board of directors' primary responsibilities related to fraud risk management for the company?

Options:

A.

Overseeing the organization's fraud risk management activities.

B.

Monitoring and proactively improving the fraud risk management program.

C.

Performing and regularly updating the fraud risk assessment.

D.

Implementing the fraud risk management program throughout the organization.