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ACAMS CAMS Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Exam Practice Test

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Total 313 questions

Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Questions and Answers

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Question 1

When a financial institution (FI) is considering providing traditional banking services to a virtual asset service provider (VASP), consideration should be given to whether the FI: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

has a general understanding of virtual assets.

B.

consistently reviews transactions between fiat and virtual currencies.

C.

implements enhanced KYC measures.

D.

owns virtual currencies itself.

Question 2

As emphasized in the Basel Committee guidance for "Sound management of risks related to money laundering and financing of terrorism", the third line of defense, or audit function, should:

Options:

A.

Conduct AML audits no less often than every 12 months for consistency in annual reporting.

B.

Remain independent from expressing opinions on the sufficiency of remediation or action plans to address findings and recommendations.

C.

Be involved in the day-to-day operations of the AML program to immediately prevent control failures.

D.

Report to the audit committee of the board of directors to maintain independence.

Question 3

According to guidelines issued by Basel Committee on Banking Supervision relating to corporate governance principles for banks, what is the role of the board of directors in addressing an institution's AML oversight and governance?

Options:

A.

The board of directors should be responsible for overseeing the management of the bank's compliance risk but not involved in establishing a compliance policy that explains the processes by which compliance risks are to be identified and managed throughout the organization.

B.

The board of directors should establish a compliance function and approve the bank's policies for identifying, assessing, monitoring, reporting, and advising on compliance risk.

C.

The compliance function must have sufficient authority, stature, independence, and resources to be effective on its own and should not have access to the board of directors.

D.

The compliance function should report directly to the CEO concerning the bank's compliance with applicable laws, rules, and standards and only update the board of directors on the bank's efforts in managing compliance risk when required.

Question 4

Which of the following accurately describes the economic, reputational and social consequences of money laundering (ML) and the risks and consequences of violating AFC regulations? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

ML undermines the integrity and stability of financial systems and makes them vulnerable to illegal activity. This can erode investor confidence and hinder economic growth.

B.

When a financial institution (FI) is found to be promoting ML or violating AFC regulations, this can lead to a loss of confidence in the institution and a loss of customers. Interestingly, this scenario might sidestep any legal consequences for the Fl.

C.

When laundered funds flow into legitimate economies, they can be used for illegal purposes, such as funding terrorist activities or organized crime. This distorts resource allocation and undermines development.

D.

Jurisdictions perceived as having insufficient ML measures might be identified as uncooperative or high-risk, potentially facing restricted access to international markets, though economic sanctions by other countries are an unlikely outcome.

Question 5

When selecting an anti-financial crime (AFC) tool for an organization, the most important factor to consider is whether the tool:

Options:

A.

integrates seamlessly with existing systems and processes.

B.

meets budget and cost requirements.

C.

automates all regulatory reporting requirements.

D.

replaces manual compliance training for employees.

Question 6

The US Department of the Treasury notes that which of the following represent high money laundering risk when de-risked from traditional financial institutions (FIs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Money services business (MSB)

B.

Multinational corporations

C.

Individual foreign customers

D.

Non-profit organizations with international operations

Question 7

Which role within private banking has the best placement to identify and report money laundering risk?

Options:

A.

Investment advisor

B.

Relationship manager

C.

Operations manager

D.

Compliance officer

Question 8

An AML compliance officer is drafting plans to address deficiencies identified in an independent audit.

Which approach is the best option?

Options:

A.

Only commit to action plans that require no new investment to maximize shareholder value

B.

Draft action plans in consultation with the jurisdiction's FIU to remain aligned with other similar companies

C.

Only commit to action plans that can be implemented and closed within the three-month management reporting cycle

D.

Draft action plans to address the root cause of the deficiencies, regardless of how long they will take to fully implement

Question 9

Which customer actions are red flags for virtual currency peer-to-peer transactions? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A customer receives funds from a popular decentralized mixer

B.

A customer uses funds from their monthly income to purchase virtual currency

C.

A customer makes a transaction on the blockchain that their traditional financial institution is unaware of

D.

A customer receives multiple wires from different sources and uses those funds to purchase virtual currency

Question 10

Using artificial intelligence (Al) and machine learning-based techniques tn adverse media screening can: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

ensure that all adverse media sources are comprehensively analyzed without the need for human review.

B.

significantly reduce human errors arising from repetitive tasks by delivering consistent and highly accurate analysis.

C.

instantly identify intent behind media articles, allowing for more effective risk scoring.

D.

automate the process of identifying new information and distinguishing it from previously encountered data.

E.

cover multiple languages and scripts, surpassing the limitations of human linguistics.

Question 11

An institution is looking to alter an existing threshold-based monitoring scenario because it is generating too many alerts that do not yield suspicious activity reports.

Documentation submitted to the relevant committee for supporting this proposal should include details on: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

evidence that the increased residual risk arising from the change is within the bank's risk appetite.

B.

approval by money-laundering reporting officer for the proposal.

C.

how many resources are spent on the less productive lower threshold and the associated costs.

D.

the number of cases that will not be filed and the resources that can be freed up for other tasks.

E.

minutes of meeting held with the regulator where agreement was obtained that the higher threshold was justified.

F.

historical analysis proving that the current scenario generates a disproportionate number of false positives.

Question 12

What areas of laws and regulations have the greatest impact on AML/CFT applications? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Information security, data privacy, and cybersecurity

B.

Foreign exchange control, and precious gemstone and metal dealing

C.

Ombudsman and anti-competition authority

D.

Electronic contract and biological signature acceptance

E.

Consumer protection, financial inclusion, and environmental, social and governance

Question 13

Which benefits are most commonly associated with transitioning from a rules-based approach to artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning-based tools in transaction monitoring? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Reduction in the number of false positives in long term

B.

Complete automation of compliance processes

C.

Elimination of the need for human oversight

D.

Increased flexibility in adapting to changing financial crime risks

E.

Enhanced ability to detect emerging patterns and anomalies

Question 14

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) report on terrorism financing, charities and nonprofit organizations are often vulnerable to terrorist financing because they: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Collect donations from various sources, and their primary objective is philanthropy and social wellbeing

B.

Are usually legitimate establishments and will not use the funds collected through donation for the profit of individuals or entities

C.

Have a global presence that provides a framework for national and international operations and financial transactions that are often in or near areas most exposed to terrorist activity

D.

Enjoy the public trust and have access to considerable sources of funds, and their activities are often cash intensive

Question 15

Which of the following serves as an example of a successful public-private partnership (PPP)?

Options:

A.

The Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

B.

The AUSTRAC Fintel Alliance

C.

The Egmont Group

D.

The Wolfsberg Group

Question 16

A law enforcement agency submits several requests to a financial institution.

Which request is legitimate and requires the bank to respond?

Options:

A.

Keep an account open upon verbal request

B.

Produce documents and testimony without a subpoena

C.

Seize privileged documents upon written request

D.

Freeze an account in terms of a court order

Question 17

Which of the following best describes the use of fuzzy logic in customer screening systems?

Options:

A.

It produces outputs that include a range of intermediate possibilities between "Yes" and "No"

B.

It is an advanced analytics tool widely used to implement AFC controls

C.

It allows for a greater number of exact matches, reducing the need for manual review

D.

It is a new technique for enhancing the quality of alerts for review

Question 18

Which is a key goal of the EU's Directives on money laundering?

Options:

A.

Address control of payments in EU countries to reduce money laundering.

B.

Build a network of financial institutions that work together to prevent money laundering across the EU.

C.

Establish a consistent regulatory environment across the EU to prevent money laundering.

D.

Allow member states to discuss the draft legislation with the cooperation of the EU financial intelligence units.

Question 19

Which of the following scenarios describe common risk indicators of money laundering faced by operators of legitimate money services businesses (MSBs)? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

A customer changes multiple high-denomination notes to low-denomination notes.

B.

A customer conducts cash transactions using multiple branches of the MSB on the same day.

C.

A customer has a family link to the destination of a money transfer

D.

A customer sends and receives money transfers in equal amounts at or about the same time.

E.

A customer only wants to deal with a particular employee in the MSB.

Question 20

Risks associated with real estate transactions include (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

cross-border purchases.

B.

purchases in the name of a natural person.

C.

paying true market price for a property.

D.

non-financed purchases.

Question 21

Which of the following can be considered a reliable, independent source document, data, or information?

Options:

A.

Information provided by a prospective customer

B.

Photocopy of a copy of a government-issued identity document

C.

Information obtained from an open-source database

D.

Information obtained directly from a government-managed registry

Question 22

A trust and company services provider that offers a variety of services to businesses is approached by a client interested in establishing a new company. The client requests assistance with the incorporation process, a local business address, annual maintenance services, and the designation of individuals to serve in official capacities for the new company.

Which of the following services involves a higher money laundering risk?

Options:

A.

Appointing individuals to serve in official capacities of the company

B.

Annual maintenance services

C.

Provision of a local business address

D.

Company incorporation services

Question 23

Public-private partnerships (PPPs) that involve the sharing of information between law enforcement authorities. Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs), and the private sector are established to: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

create a common database of key information and share analysis of suspicious activities with FATF

B.

exchange strategic information between FlUs and obliged entities

C.

exchange strategic information between financial institutions

D.

exchange operational information between public authorities and obliged entities

Question 24

An AML compliance officer receives an independent audit report with a number of findings.

An appropriate response to the report would include:

Options:

A.

Drafting detailed action plans for the audit team to execute to close the findings

B.

Reperforming the testing for the controls mentioned in the findings to confirm the results of the audit

C.

Defining remedial actions based on the findings' root cause analysis

D.

Assigning responsibility for reviewing the action plan to the board of directors

Question 25

A compliance manager at a virtual asset service provider (VASP) is evaluating its business and its impact on AML policies. Which of the following features of the VASP's business would be of greatest concern? (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

Allowing clients lo transact anonymity-enhanced tokens

B.

Onboardlng of clients who are residents abroad. Including those with politically exposed person (PEP) status

C.

Enabling transfer of tokens from one blockchain to another

D.

Offering services to VASPs established in jurisdictions that are not FATF compliant

E.

Operating a network of crypto ATMs charging high fees

F.

Lack of adequate IP address tracking capabilities

Question 26

Which of the following laws or regulations can impact the application of AML/CFT programs and require financial institutions (r" Is) to balance multiple compliance requirements?

Options:

A.

Consumer protection laws may intersect will) AML/CFT requirements when handling customer complaints or disputes, potentially affecting how FIs implement their compliance programs.

B.

AML/CFT laws are the primary focus for FIs, and other regulations like data privacy and consumer protection may only indirectly influence their compliance obligations

C.

Environmental, social, and governance (ESG) frameworks can influence a Fl's risk management strategies but are generally considered separate from core AML/CFT compliance requirements

D.

Data privacy laws can restrict the sharing of customer information, while financial inclusion initiatives require FIs to avoid excessive de-risking that could exclude vulnerable populations.

Question 27

When a multinational organization develops its anti-financial crime (AFC) program, what is the most important consideration for ensuring compliance across different jurisdictions?

Options:

A.

Ensuring sanctions coy on international bodies like the UN because there is no requirement to adhere to local laws.

B.

Ensuring group policies and procedures prioritize adherence to US regulations because they are the most influential worldwide.

C.

Applying global AFC and sanctions policies to ensure consistency without the need to adapt to local regulations.

D.

Ensuring group policies cater to compliance with each country's specific AML and sanctions regulations.

Question 28

From an international standards perspective both the EU and Financial Action Task Force (FATF) consider data sharing a crucial component of effective anti-money laundenng measures because data sharing:

Options:

A.

allows Financial Intelligence Units (FlUs) to enact sanctions against perpetrators of financial crime

B.

promotes financial transparency and protects the integrity of the financial systems

C.

needs to be approved by the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) before sharing between financial institutions

D.

helps financial institutions to be more effective in fighting crime with data analysis

Question 29

Which risks are specifically associated with the misuse of gaming accounts in financial crime? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Using gaming accounts to transfer illicit funds between players undetected

B.

Structuring transactions to avoid reporting thresholds by keeping them under certain limits

C.

Providing false personal information to evade regulatory oversight

D.

Ensuring identity verification is completed prior to the onboarding of new customers

E.

Investing all gaming winnings into high-risk stocks to conceal funds

Question 30

The owner of a real estate investment company deposits multiple cashier's checks that were bought using cash over a three-month period, from the sale of two apartments. This account also receives several electronic transfers from other financial institutions for US$10,000 each.

What activity is considered suspicious of money laundering?

Options:

A.

Receiving electronic transfers for US$10,000 amounts from other financial institutions

B.

Using cash to buy multiple cashier's checks over a period of time

C.

Performing operations with real estate investment companies

D.

Using cashier's checks in the transactions with the real estate investment company's account

Question 31

A compliance officer is developing management reporting information to provide leadership with insights into the financial crime risk related to an institution's customer population.

Which of the following is a key risk indicator to include in the reporting to allow leadership to monitor whether there are any key changes to the inherent risk of the customer population? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Percentage of regulatory reports for high-risk customers not completed within the required regulatory deadlines

B.

Percentage change of transaction monitoring alerts escalated for investigation compared to the previous quarter

C.

Percentage of customers for whom onboarding verification was not completed within KYC policy service-level agreement (SLA) requirements

D.

Number and percentage of senior politically exposed persons (PEPs) who were onboarded in the past quarter compared to all active customers

Question 32

How does the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) measure the effectiveness of a country's efforts to combat money laundering and terrorist financing?

Options:

A.

FATF Evaluation Committee

B.

Series of internal audits followed by reporting to FATF

C.

Basel Committee

D.

Mutual evaluation

Question 33

An employee at a financial institution (FI) suspects that one of their co-workers is involved in a financial investment scam syndicate.

Which step should be taken next by the employee who has the suspicion?

Options:

A.

Conduct an open-source intelligence investigation using artificial intelligence tools to gain more information on the activities of the suspected employee

B.

Use the FI's whistleblowing channel to report the suspected employee

C.

Question their co-worker to determine if their suspicions are correct before reporting to the FI's Human Resources department

D.

Warn colleagues and customers of the FI that the employee's suspicious financial investment proposals could be a scam

E.

Report the suspected employee to the line manager of the FI to take the required action

Question 34

Which of the following are part of a risk-based approach? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Determining detailed risk profiles for customers based on their activities and relationships

B.

Focusing monitoring primarily on previously flagged customers while using standard controls for others

C.

Choosing and applying effective controls that align with the identified risk levels

D.

Performing a comprehensive risk assessment to identify customer, transaction, and geographic risks

E.

Allocating resources equally across all customer segments to ensure fairness

Question 35

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendation regarding "tipping off," which of the following statements accurately describes the obligations of reporting entities?

Options:

A.

Reporting entities are prohibited from disclosing to clients or third parties that a suspicious activity report (SAR) has been filed or that an investigation is ongoing

B.

Reporting entities can share general information about suspicious activities internally within the organization without compromising confidentiality

C.

Reporting entities must inform their clients if a suspicious activity report (SAR) has been filed, as part of maintaining transparency in customer relations

D.

Reporting entities are allowed to discuss suspicious activities with clients if it helps clarify a situation before submitting a suspicious activity report

Question 36

Which of the following are considered best practices regarding senior management involvement in a financial crime compliance program? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Setting tone from the top

B.

Mandatory participation in all regulatory inspections

C.

Mandatory attendance and review of all financial crime trainings

D.

Setting clear criteria for escalations to senior management

Question 37

Which activities would be considered money laundering red flags when reviewing the business operations of a money services business (MSB)? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

A customer being hesitant to provide beneficiary name or address information when sending international wire transfers

B.

Cash-intensive businesses, such as convenience stores or restaurants, making large cash deposits

C.

A customer exchanging foreign currency from a higher-risk jurisdiction for domestic currency under the reporting threshold

D.

A customer using multiple accounts under different names to conduct transactions

E.

A customer completing frequent small-dollar international money transfers to their native country

Question 38

A recruitment manager in the human resources department of a bank has shortlisted a candidate for the position of relationship manager in its private banking division. The compliance policy of the bank stipulates that proper background checks on new employees

must be completed by the recruiting team to protect the bank against potential risks, including fraud and money laundering.

Which resources would be most useful for identifying any potential negative information regarding the shortlisted candidate? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Criminal history searches

B.

Personal resume

C.

Internet and public media searches

D.

Past employment records

E.

Personal references from close associates

Question 39

Which section of the USA PATRIOT Act permits the US government to seize funds deposited in a US correspondent account of a foreign bank, creating extraterritorial impact?

Options:

A.

Section 314(a)

B.

Section 314(b)

C.

Section 319(b)

D.

Section 319(a)

Question 40

Which control would be most effective as part of a risk-based approach (RBA) to managing AML/CFT risk for a bank established in the EU that also has a branch in a high-risk third country outside of the EU?

Options:

A.

Fully rely on central beneficial owner registry records in the high-risk third country to determine the ultimate beneficial owners of all customers

B.

Apply tailored due diligence measures, based on the level of risk posed by each customer following risk assessment

C.

Monitor every cross-border transaction in real time, flagging all for enhanced scrutiny due to the country risk level

D.

Automatically apply enhanced customer due diligence measures to all customers in the high-risk third-country branch regardless of risk level

Question 41

In a large US bank, an individual leads a team in charge of overseeing the governance and effectiveness of the bank's transaction monitoring approach.

Which strategies should the team implement? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries

B.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank's internal policies and procedures

C.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected

Question 42

When deciding on the fuzzy matching threshold for sanctions screening, consideration should be given to:

Options:

A.

the operational burden of dealing with potential matches.

B.

the value of fines for non-compliance.

C.

the experience of the team dealing with potential matches.

D.

whether the data to be screened is reliable and verified.

Question 43

Which persons must always comply with all Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) regulations? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Permanent US resident aliens regardless of location

B.

Merchants that offer US-origin goods for sale regardless of location

C.

Non-US financial institutions that offer accounts in USD regardless of location

D.

US citizens regardless of location

E.

US incorporated entities and their foreign branches

Question 44

The primary objectives of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) are to: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

evaluate and monitor compliance with the FATF standards and provide recommendations for improvement.

B.

assist countries in implementing EU, UN, and regional sanctions regimes.

C.

develop and promote international standards to prevent money laundering and terrorist financing.

D.

conduct investigations on countries legislations and laws to prevent them from being used for money laundering and terrorist financing.

E.

ensure that countries follow its laws to maintain financial stability.

Question 45

Which of the following is a primary objective of public sector groups in the fight against money laundering?

Options:

A.

Advising private financial institutions on how to enhance their profitability through AML efforts

B.

Establishing and enforcing legal frameworks to detect, prevent, and punish money laundering and related financial crimes

C.

Providing funding to private and non-governmental organizations (NGOs) for the development of advanced compliance technologies

D.

Acting as intermediaries between private sector firms and non-governmental organizations (NGOs) to streamline AML compliance programs

Question 46

Which of the following statements describe the strengths associated with public-private partnerships (PPPs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Public organizations can belter understand what the private sector experiences and inform policy and the enactment of laws

B.

Data-protection privacy policies provide an opportunity to develop information sharing protocols to prevent unauthorized access to information

C.

Data-protection privacy policies prohibit the evolution of PPPs due to restrictions based on legacy government legislation

D.

Small business owners can choose third-party providers or financial institutions to keep their private data safe which can easily be shared within a PPP

Question 47

Which of the following risk factors are commonly associated with money laundering in insurance products? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Surrendering a policy early to liquidate funds

B.

Focusing excessively on the investment performance of an insurance product

C.

Using a credit card to purchase an insurance policy

D.

Using cryptocurrencies or other non-fiat currencies to fund an insurance policy

Question 48

Cryptocurrency-related technologies that can be exploited by money launderers include: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

generative copilots.

B.

small language models.

C.

privacy coins.

D.

crypto-mixers.

Question 49

Which ancillary departments or operational areas can play an essential role in supporting a larger organization's Anti-Money Laundering and Economic Sanctions compliance program? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Model risk management

C.

Technology solutions and IT security

D.

Marketing

E.

Fraud risk management

Question 50

The supply of goods and services can be vulnerable to corruption within a company, particularly the solicitation and receipt of bribes and kickbacks, because: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

certain contractors may receive preferential treatment, allowing them opportunities to inflate margins during the tender process

B.

unsuccessful bidders are informed of decisions and provided detailed justifications for awarding the contracts

C.

procurement and contracting processes involve the management of the tender process, which may lack sufficient oversight

D.

bids are solicited and disseminated to a wide audience through advertising and other channels.

Question 51

Which payment type presents the highest financial crime risk?

Options:

A.

A check returning a mortgage overpayment made in error

B.

A payment made to a mixer platform

C.

A regular standing order to a high-interest savings account

D.

A bill payment made to a friend after splitting a dinner bill

Question 52

Challenges in the implementation of new technologies for AML/CFT include: (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

data privacy.

B.

enhanced due diligence (EDD) policies.

C.

the Travel Rule.

D.

data quality.

E.

complexity.

F.

regulatory.

Question 53

The law enforcement agency (LEA) of a foreign jurisdiction contacts a financial institution (FI) regarding one of the FI's clients. The LEA advises that the client is currently wanted for prosecution as a result of a series of human trafficking charges.

What should the FI do? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inform local LEA and regulator of the request for awareness

B.

Close the client's accounts immediately to avoid any undue risk

C.

Review the client's activity, determine if suspicious activity exists, and report accordingly

D.

Advise the LEA that the government needs to be contacted for extradition

E.

Comply immediately with the foreign jurisdiction and turn over all client information

Question 54

Financial crime risk related to the use of "hawalas" can stem from: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

difficulty in tracking the originator, recipient, and source of transactions.

B.

remote verification of identity by third-party program managers.

C.

heavy usage by senior political figures.

D.

informal networks used for cross-border transactions outside of the formal banking system.

E.

heightened risks of returned transactions.

Question 55

Unusual wire transfer transactions can include: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

wire transfers in different currencies between accounts held at different banks for the same client.

B.

an incoming third-party wire transfer followed by the purchase of real estate in the client's name.

C.

an incoming wire transfer followed by the loan payment to a third party that is a business associate of the client.

D.

multiple wire transfers sent to counterparties associated with the client as per KYC documentation.

Question 56

The goal of the Egmont Group of Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) is to provide a forum for FIUs to: (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Securely share sensitive information in the fight against money laundering and the financing of terrorism

B.

Establish an environment to foster trust amongst countries

C.

Sign memoranda of cooperation that recognize and allow room for case-by-case solutions to specific problems

D.

Improve global cooperation between FIUs

E.

Propose legislation to combat financial crime, including money laundering and the financing of terrorism

Question 57

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF). potential risk indicators related to money laundering proceeds from environmental crimes include. (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

waste management sector companies based in high-risk jurisdictions with payments or trade invoices tor types of waste aligned with those they are authorized to process.

B.

frequent payments from companies in the logging. milling, or waste trade sectors to individuals or beneficiaries unrelated to the legal parson activity or business.

C.

unexplained wealth and cash transfers involving senior officials or politically exposed persons for their family members) with a position of responsibility related to the management or preservation of natural resources.

D.

small cash transfers from cash-Intensive businesses to beneficiaries in areas known as a source of gold mining, illegal logging, and Illegal land clearing.

Question 58

In a standard customer due diligence (CDD) process focused on financial inclusion, the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations require: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

identification of the customer's occupation.

B.

identification and verification of the customer's identity.

C.

identification of the customer's work address.

D.

identification of the beneficial owner.

E.

verification of the customer's credit history.

F.

[verification of the customer's income sources.

Question 59

Which techniques would be most efficient for a complex investigation of unusual patterns of activity involving multiple businesses, triggered by an automated monitoring system alert? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Perform a control and ownership assessment of the businesses involved, using the information available in the client files

B.

Contact local law enforcement and request that they assist in the analysis and investigation

C.

Review the information presented in the automated monitoring system's alert description and decline any future transactions

D.

Contact the account manager and ask for the reasons behind the patterns of activity highlighted in the AML alerts

E.

Use social media platforms to connect with the businesses and request details about the account activity

Question 60

Which of the following are common indicators of possible money laundering within the securities industry? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Receiving securities into an existing brokerage account following the death of a spouse

B.

Allowing fixed income securities to mature

C.

Using brokerage accounts like deposit accounts

D.

Engaging in transactions involving nominees or third parties

Question 61

A financial institution is conducting an enterprise-wide risk assessment (EWRA) and has identified a high inherent risk of money laundering associated with its private banking division due to the clientele's high net worth and complex financial structures. However, the institution has implemented robust customer due diligence (CDD) and enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures, along with sophisticated transaction monitoring systems.

How would these controls impact the assessment of residual risk?

Options:

A.

The residual risk would be significantly reduced due to the effectiveness of the controls in place

B.

The residual risk would be moderately reduced, but further controls may be necessary to achieve an acceptable level

C.

The residual risk would remain high due to the inherent nature of the private banking business

D.

The residual risk would be eliminated entirely because the controls are sufficient to mitigate all potential risks

Question 62

A bank has joined a public-private partnership (PPP) to work with law enforcement and regulators on combating financial crime. However, the bank's data protection officer is concerned about sharing sensitive customer data, and the compliance officer is worried about potential delays in receiving useful information from the government.

Which of the following best describes a benefit of PPPs in fighting financial crime?

Options:

A.

PPPs improve financial crime detection and prevention by sharing intelligence between banks and law enforcement.

B.

PPPs help banks reduce compliance costs by automating information sharing.

C.

PPPs allow banks to manage their own suspicious activity report (SAR) filing process without the need to involve the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU).

D.

PPPs maximize the efficiency of the bank's compliance program by providing real-time intelligence from law enforcement.

Question 63

In the process of mutual evaluations and subsequent follow-ups used by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) to assess the quality of various jurisdictions' AML controls, the FATF:

Options:

A.

imposes economic sanctions on jurisdictions with lax AML controls to force them to strengthen their controls.

B.

conducts on-site inspections of financial institutions in jurisdictions with lax AML controls to identify deficiencies and recommend improvements.

C.

publishes annual reports ranking all member jurisdictions based on their self-assessment of AML controls.

D.

conducts a peer review process whereby member countries assess the AML controls of other jurisdictions and provide recommendations for improvement.

Question 64

Non-compliance with relevant anti-money laundering laws and regulations can result in: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

increased reputation risk.

B.

inclusion on the UN Consolidated List.

C.

civil and criminal penalties

D.

delisting of public filing status.

Question 65

In which of the following cases can a financial institution disclose a suspicious activity report (SAR)?

Options:

A.

A court order requests the bank to disclose the SAR subject to obtaining agreement from the legal team

B.

A customer asks about potential reporting to the local Financial Intelligence Unit (Fill)

C.

An external consultant inquires about the details of the SAR

D.

A third-country police directly inquires about the customer.

Question 66

It is essential to identify any "family members" or "close associates" of politically exposed persons (PEPs) as part of the KYC/CDD process because they could be:

Options:

A.

executing cross-border transactions for their own business which is not commensurate to the PEP's wealth.

B.

in a position to provide more information regarding the PEP's whereabouts and hidden properties.

C.

travelling to offshore jurisdictions often on holiday which exposes them to higher risks for AML.

D.

used as intermediaries to facilitate bribery or corruption or to conceal the illicit wealth of the PEP.

Question 67

A large financial institution (FI) is considering expanding business to an area of the world with weak AML laws. The risk-based assessment indicates that the location will increase the FI's risk appetite beyond the stated acceptable amount.

Which risk factors should be used to identify the priority of the FI?

Options:

A.

Cash-intensive businesses risks

B.

Unknown third-party risks

C.

Geographic risks

D.

Anonymous transactions risks

Question 68

Having a risk-based approach is central to a financial institution understanding the money laundering and terrorist financing risk to which they are exposed. The development of a money laundering and terrorist financing risk assessment is a key starting point.

Commonly used risk factors include. (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

product risk.

B.

credit risk.

C.

geographic risk.

D.

customer risk.

E.

liquidity risk.

Question 69

A financial institution is conducting an enterprise-wide risk assessment (EWRA) and has identified a high inherent risk of money laundering associated with its private banking division due to the clientele’s high net worth and complex financial structures. However, the institution has implemented robust customer due diligence (CDD) and enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures, along with sophisticated transaction monitoring systems.

How would these controls impact the assessment of residual risk?

Options:

A.

The residual risk would be eliminated entirely because the controls are sufficient to mitigate all potential risks

B.

The residual risk would be significantly reduced due to the effectiveness of the controls in place

C.

The residual risk would remain high due to the inherent nature of the private banking business

D.

The residual risk would be moderately reduced, but further controls may be necessary to achieve an acceptable level

Question 70

Which statement about the extraterritorial reach of US laws and legislation is accurate?

Options:

A.

The Bank Secrecy Act (BSA) extraterritorial reach requires that the Travel Rule be applied to all financial institutions globally, including all USD transactions

B.

The Anti-Money Laundering Act of 2020 (AML Act) extraterritorial reach covers all USD transactions throughout the global economy

C.

The Office of Foreign Assets Control's (OFAC's) economic and trade sanctions may pose extraterritorial risks for financial institutions and businesses outside of the US

D.

Section 319(b) of the USA PATRIOT Act extraterritorial reach permits the seizure of funds from a correspondent bank account in the US that have been opened and maintained for the foreign bank

Question 71

A national risk assessment (NRA) can impact the risk-based approach (RBA) within an organization's anti-financial crime (AFC) compliance program by: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

helping to identify high-risk sectors that require enhanced due diligence (EDO),

B.

eliminating the need for sectoral risk assessments within the organization

C.

guiding the allocation of resources for mitigating financial crime risks

D.

requiring all organizations to apply standardized measures

E.

automatically reducing the organization's responsibility for conducting its own risk assessment

Question 72

Which of the below would be relevant money laundering red flags for life insurance companies? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Paying premium several years in advance and terminating early for a refund

B.

Natural persons having more than one insurance policy

C.

High-premium life insurances that provide high payouts

D.

Regularly switching policies and accepting penalties

E.

Beneficiary payouts to elderly people

Question 73

A bank has been fined for failing to take reasonable care to establish and maintain effective systems and controls for high-risk customers, including politically exposed persons (PEPs).

Which typical financial crime risks should the bank have addressed? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Gathering sufficient information to establish the source of funds and source of wealth

B.

Assessing the level of money laundering risk posed by prospective and existing high-risk customers

C.

Assessing and reviewing the minutes of the relevant committee responsible for onboarding customers

D.

Ensuring an employee is responsible for liaison with the authorities on matters related to countering the finance of terrorism

E.

Ensuring that resources in its compliance and AML areas kept pace with the bank's growth

Question 74

Which risk factors are associated with acquiring and servicing the banking activities of customers considered higher risk for financial crime activities? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Reputational risk

B.

Operational risk

C.

Sanctions risk

D.

Compliance risk

E.

Lending risk

Question 75

A compliance officer is reviewing an institutional banking prospect proposal for a new foreign entity that is a multinational business but headquartered in a country where most businesses are state-owned.

Which risks should be prioritized in the review? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Politically exposed persons (PEPs)

B.

Capital flight risk

C.

Anti-bribery and corruption risk

D.

Tax evasion

Question 76

What is the relationship between the EU Anti-money Laundering Directives (AMLD) and local anti-money laundering (AML) regulations in European Union (EU) member states, in terms of their relevance for, applicability to, and impact on EU banks? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The EU AMLD and local AML regulations are separate and unrelated legal frameworks.

B.

The EU AMLD and local AML regulations must have identical requirements.

C.

Local AML regulations may impose additional or more stringent requirements than the EU AMLD.

D.

The EU AMLD take precedence over local AML regulations.

E.

Local AML laws and regulations override the requirements of the EU AMLD.

F.

The EU AMLD provide a framework that member countries must implement through local AML regulations.

Question 77

Which key metric would provide the most valuable data to the senior management of a financial institution about the effectiveness of its AML controls?

Options:

A.

The ratio of true positives to false positives generated by the automated monitoring system

B.

The number of money laundering alerts generated by the watchlist screening system

C.

The number of high-risk customers onboarded each month

D.

The number of clients exited for commercial reasons

Question 78

The Wolfsberg Group's 2012 "Principles (or Private Banking" established that.

Options:

A.

private banks agree that transparency of client beneficial ownership Is necessary and appropriate.

B.

due diligence requirements tor private banking customers are necessary to prevent predicate offenses.

C.

risk based approaches are insufficient to address the heightened risk presented through private banking

D.

private banks need to better coordinate and align their global AML control environment strategies.

Question 79

Which of the following is a red flag indicating potential money laundering or terrorism financing through dealers of precious metals or high-value items?

Options:

A.

A customer wants to purchase gold bars with a combination of cash and cryptocurrency

B.

A customer specifically requests to purchase a Kimberly Process-certified cut diamond

C.

A customer pays an antique dealer with a credit card for a high-value antique item

D.

A customer wants a hand-written receipt for a cash purchase of a high-end, limited-edition luxury watch

Question 80

Which of the following are key components of the Know Your Customer (KYC) process? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inquiring about the source of wealth and source of funds

B.

Asking to provide a list of immediate family members

C.

Verifying the financial crime awareness of the client

D.

Collecting necessary documents to verify the veracity of information

Question 81

A bank organized under foreign law and located outside of the US maintains a correspondent banking relationship with a US-based bank to handle financial transactions in US dollars for its clients. In compliance with the USA PATRIOT Act of 2001, all US banks and broker-dealers in securities must obtain a signed certification from all non-US foreign bank clients conducting business with them.

What information does the USA PATRIOT Act of 2001 require the foreign bank to certify to the US bank? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

The foreign bank will not allow indirect use of the correspondent bank accounts by Politically Exposed Persons (PEPs)

B.

The jurisdictions in which the foreign bank maintains a physical presence

C.

The foreign bank's operations will be limited to the country of incorporation

D.

The ownership details of the foreign bank

E.

The foreign bank will not allow indirect use of the correspondent bank accounts by shell banks

Question 82

Which characteristic of accountants is most attractive to those looking to launder funds using an accountant or accountancy firm?

Options:

A.

Accountants can prepare ledgers and spreadsheets, draft annual returns and make payments to government offices

B.

Accountants can advise on the structuring of companies as well as ensure compliance with local tax regulations

C.

Accountants are knowledgeable about financial management, including what to record over the course of the accounting year

D.

Accountants are able to create and structure companies, falsify accounts and manipulate financial statements

Question 83

The UN Security Council's primary role in imposing sanctions is that it has the authority to:

Options:

A.

impose sanctions lo maintain of restore international peace and security

B.

impose sanctions on countries that lack AML/CFT controls.

C.

conduct research on and analyze the impacts of sanctions to improve the effectiveness of sanctions regimes.

D.

impose sanctions on economic targets to maintain or restore financial stability within a country.

Question 84

Which line of defense would be tasked with interpreting new AML regulations and revising training for client-facing relationship managers?

Options:

A.

The first line

B.

The second line

C.

Senior management

D.

The third line

Question 85

A financial institution plans to implement adverse media screening with Artificial Intelligence (AI)/Machine Learning (ML) capabilities During testing, the system produces high volumes of irrelevant news articles for review.

What is the best way to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Narrow the media sources to avoid unrelated articles

B.

Rely on manual filtering by investigators

C.

Increase the frequency of updates to media sources

D.

Adjust AI/ML models to focus on high-risk keywords/phrases from reputable media sources

Question 86

The new KYC lead at a bank is particularly focused on enhancing the risk management component of its KYC program and refers to the Basel Committee's customer due diligence (CDD) principles.

Which of the following describe key improvements to a KYC program established in the Basel Committee's CDD principles? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Implementation of a blacklist of correspondent customers with previously detected and investigated suspicious activity

B.

Enhancement of a customer acceptance policy to more clearly identify high-risk customers

C.

Increased frequency of training provided to front office employees

D.

Enhancement of customer identification procedures to appropriately identify trust, nominee, and fiduciary accounts

Question 87

Which of the following statements is true regarding the 2012 Financial Action Task Force (FATF) 40 Recommendations and'or 11 Immediate Outcomes?

Options:

A.

The 40 Recommendations have not been updated to reflect the impact of new technology

B.

Each jurisdiction can reach out to the FATF for private access to the interpretive notes to the 40 Recommendations

C.

The 11 Immediate Outcomes are recommendations specific to high-risk jurisdictions requiring enhanced monitoring.

D.

The cornerstone of the 40 Recommendations is the adoption of a risk-based approach by each jurisdiction

Question 88

Who bears the ultimate responsibility for approving a financial institution's relationship with a politically exposed person?

Options:

A.

KYC analyst

B.

Senior management

C.

Relationship manager

D.

Enhanced due diligence compliance officer

Question 89

According to Basel Committee guidelines, which level of the organization should determine whether or not to enter business relationships with higher risk customers?

Options:

A.

Account opening staff

B.

Middle management

C.

Senior management

D.

First-level management

Question 90

The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) routinely publishes a catalogue of jurisdictions requiring enhanced monitoring which is commonly called the:

Options:

A.

red notice

B.

white list

C.

yellow notice

D.

grey list

Question 91

Red flags for potential money laundering in real estate include completing luxury real estate purchases. (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

using shell companies or trusts for privacy, lax planning, or asset protection.

B.

in the names of unrelated thud patties.

C.

using the proceeds from selling a prior property or liquidating investments to make an all-cash purchase

D.

using legal entities and intermediaries to protect the privacy of the purchasers.

E.

using loans backed by cash or certificates of deposit.

Question 92

An oil exploration company based in France does business with oil refineries in Iran, which is subject to comprehensive Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions.

What type of OFAC sanctions should be imposed against the French company?

Options:

A.

List-based

B.

Secondary

C.

Country-based

D.

Sectoral

Question 93

A real estate buyer purchases multiple high-value properties in cash through a series of transactions in a short period of time and without any clear economic justification.

Which of the following is the most likely money laundering risk associated with this behavior in the real estate sector?

Options:

A.

The buyer is using high-value real estate transactions to obscure the origin of the funds.

B.

The buyer is quickly diversifying their investment portfolio through structuring payments in order to take advantage of the liquidity of cash transactions in real estate.

C.

The buyer is capitalizing on favorable market conditions and using cash purchases to outbid competitors in a competitive real estate market using insider information.

D.

The buyer is a real estate developer acquiring multiple properties for a potential redevelopment project with a business partner located in a high-risk jurisdiction.

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Total 313 questions