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ACAMS CAMS Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Exam Practice Test

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Total 229 questions

Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Questions and Answers

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Question 1

During which process must a country demonstrate to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) that it has an effective framework to protect the financial system from abuse?

Options:

A.

Formal assessment

B.

Regulatory overview

C.

Technical analysis

D.

Mutual evaluation

Question 2

What are the primary sources of reference besides AML laws and regulations when developing and maintaining the AML policies, standards, and procedures of a bank? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

National Risk Assessment

B.

Regulatory guidance or publications

C.

Government or state-run newspapers

D.

Guidance issued by international bodies

E.

Policies and procedures developed by other banks

Question 3

Ateam overseeing the governance and effectiveness of a bank’s transaction monitoring approachshould implement which strategies? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn.

B.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries.

C.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank’s internal policies and procedures.

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected.

Question 4

Which line of defense would be tasked with interpreting new AML regulations and revising training for client-facing relationship managers?

Options:

A.

The first line

B.

The second line

C.

Senior management

D.

The third line

Question 5

Which of the following are common indicators of possible money laundering within the securities industry? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Using brokerage accounts like deposit accounts

B.

Receiving securities into an existing brokerage account following the death of a spouse

C.

Allowing fixed income securities to mature

D.

Engaging in transactions involving nominees or third parties

Question 6

Which of the following attributes would enhance an AML program's effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Providing basic AML training to all employees

B.

An AML officer being appointed to the board as a working member of management with increased authority

C.

Auditors providing prescriptive guidance and support to the program following a less than satisfactory audit

D.

Providing effective challenge with AML staff and continuous cross-training

Question 7

To provide aid in investigating a cross-border money laundering case, a Financial Intelligence Unit (PIU) that is a member of the Egmont Group can:

Options:

A.

directly contact financial institutions in another country and share information pertinent to the investigation.

B.

directly contact other FlUs in another country and share information pertinent to the investigation.

C.

deputize its law enforcement investigators to assist in a material ongoing investigation in another country

D.

assist law enforcement in another country with a material ongoing investigation.

Question 8

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendation regarding "tipping off," which of the following statements accurately describes the obligations of reporting entities?

Options:

A.

Reporting entities are prohibited from disclosing to clients or third parties that a suspicious activity report (SAR) has been filed or that an investigation is ongoing

B.

Reporting entities can share general information about suspicious activities internally within the organization without compromising confidentiality

C.

Reporting entities must inform their clients if a suspicious activity report (SAR) has been filed, as part of maintaining transparency in customer relations

D.

Reporting entities are allowed to discuss suspicious activities with clients if it helps clarify a situation before submitting a suspicious activity report

Question 9

Which of the following is a key consideration for a global organization when managing AFC and sanctions compliance across multiple jurisdictions?

Options:

A.

Ensuring sanctions compliance by relying solely on international bodies like the UN because there is no requirement to adhere to local laws

B.

Ensuring group policies and procedures prioritize adherence to US regulations because they are the most influential worldwide

C.

Applying global AFC and sanctions policies to ensure consistency without the need to adapt to local regulations

D.

Ensuring group policies cater to compliance with each country's specific AML and sanctions regulations

Question 10

Which statement best describes a key money laundering risk associated with virtual asset service providers (VASPs), cryptoassets, and related products?

Options:

A.

Cryptoassets can be transferred across borders quickly, but the volatility of their value still makes them less attractive for money laundering compared to traditional assets

B.

Mandatory reporting requirements have been implemented for certain types of crypto transactions, but gaps in regulation and enforcement still leave room for money laundering activities.

C.

The transparency of blockchain technology helps law enforcement trace transactions, but it can also provide criminals with ways to obscure their financial activities through complex layering techniques.

D.

The pseudonymous nature of transactions allows criminals to hide their identities while transferring large sums of money globally, making it difficult to trace the ultimate beneficial owner.

Question 11

Which of the following are key components of the Know Your Customer (KYC) process? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inquiring about the source of wealth and source of funds

B.

Asking to provide a list of immediate family members

C.

Verifying the financial crime awareness of the client

D.

Collecting necessary documents to verify the veracity of information

Question 12

A key advantage of privacy enhancing technologies (PETs) in anti-money laundering is that they offer:

Options:

A.

simultaneous encryption and decryption for underlying data.

B.

full access to underlying data with full and uninterrupted calculations made on the data.

C.

secure processing of data while it remains encrypted.

D.

transfer, decryption and storage of data by the data processor.

Question 13

Financial crime risk related to the use of "hawalas" can stem from: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

difficulty in tracking the originator, recipient, and source of transactions.

B.

remote verification of identity by third-party program managers.

C.

heavy usage by senior political figures.

D.

informal networks used for cross-border transactions outside of the formal banking system.

E.

heightened risks of returned transactions.

Question 14

Which statement best describes an organizational challenge for law enforcement agencies and Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) when conducting cross-border money laundering (ML) investigations?

Options:

A.

Defining a common communication approach and language between all involved parties.

B.

Delays in the investigation due to a foreign FIU awaiting the results of queries performed by third parties.

C.

Conducting an investigation in all countries through which ML funds were transferred when one or more of the countries do not have an FIU.

D.

Investigations which involve high-ranking politicians, who often have influence over the local FIU.

Question 15

During a routine periodic KYC refresh of a policyholder and client of an insurance company, updated business registry documentation has highlighted that the policyholder's business has changed addresses five times during the last year and that the ultimate beneficial owner (UBO) changed two weeks ago.

What actions should be taken immediately?

Options:

A.

Investigate the changes of address and change of UBO and in the meantime decline payment and withdrawal instructions from the policy until completion of the investigation and next steps are agreed upon

B.

Request the relationship manager set up a meeting with the policyholder to update their address and submit details of the new UBO in the name of good customer service

C.

Investigate the changes of address and change of UBO and in the meantime freeze the client's policy

D.

File a suspicious transaction report because the insurance company was not made aware of the business' change of UBO

Question 16

Which of the services provided by Trust and Company Service Providers (TCSPs) present the greatest financial crime risks? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Providing clear procedures to ensure compliance with local tax regulations

B.

Using trusts to obscure the identity of beneficial owners

C.

Promoting the use of complex corporate structures

D.

Maintaining accurate and updated beneficial ownership details for all customers registered for their services

E.

Establishing shell companies for holding financial assets

Question 17

The primary objectives of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) are to: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

evaluate and monitor compliance with the FATF standards and provide recommendations for improvement.

B.

assist countries in implementing EU, UN, and regional sanctions regimes.

C.

develop and promote international standards to prevent money laundering and terrorist financing.

D.

conduct investigations on countries legislations and laws to prevent them from being used for money laundering and terrorist financing.

E.

ensure that countries follow its laws to maintain financial stability.

Question 18

A legal instrument executed between two nations that governs cross-border information sharing is known as a:

Options:

A.

Memorandum of Agreement.

B.

Declaration of Understanding.

C.

Memorandum of Understanding.

D.

Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty.

E.

Request for Urgent Information.

Question 19

The primary roles of a Country's Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) include: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

collaborating with law enforcement agencies, financial institutions, and other stakeholders to detect and prevent Illicit financial activities.

B.

conducting examinations of financial institutions to ensure compliance with anti-money laundering regulations.

C.

engaging in providing financial services, including banking and investment activities, to the public and private sectors

D.

facilitating the exchange of information between the public and private sectors.

E.

enacting legislation regarding the operations of financial institutions.

Question 20

Which of the following statements best describes the financial crime risk associated with gatekeepers?

Options:

A.

Gatekeepers have specialized knowledge that can be abused to facilitate the movement of illicit funds and conceal the Involvement of their clients in illicit schemes.

B.

Gatekeeper positions ate of a secretive nature, often making it difficult to verify (heir source of wealth.

C.

Gatekeepers have unique relationship structures, making it difficult to determine beneficial ownership

D.

Gatekeepers are entrusted with prominent functions and code of conduct that can assist laundering Illicit funds.

Question 21

The transaction monitoring system of a bank generated an alert for a car wash client. After making large cash deposits, the client orders international wire transfers.

Which additional circumstances would make the case more suspicious?

Options:

A.

The beneficiary of the wire transfers is a foreign company whose shareholders and director are other companies

B.

The wire transfers are for different amounts but with the same beneficiary

C.

The beneficiary of the wire transfer is a resident of a grey-list country

D.

The beneficiary of the wire transfers is a resident of a foreign country bearing the same family name as the business owner

Question 22

Which of the following best describes the use of fuzzy logic in customer screening systems?

Options:

A.

It produces outputs that include a range of intermediate possibilities between "Yes" and "No"

B.

It is an advanced analytics tool widely used to implement AFC controls

C.

It allows for a greater number of exact matches, reducing the need for manual review

D.

It is a new technique for enhancing the quality of alerts for review

Question 23

According to the Egmont Group, which benefits do public-private partnerships (PPPs) provide to Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs)? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Helping overcome data protection and information sharing limitations

B.

Enhancing the quality of reporting and additional informational input

C.

Helping to alleviate the financial cost burden on law enforcement

D.

Helping to design common approaches and identify desired deliverables

E.

Offering flexibility, agility, and opportunities to adjust to the ML/TF threat environment

Question 24

Which activities are part of adverse media screening for negative news and reputational risks? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Analyzing customer sentiment through feedback and surveys

B.

Identifying individuals or entities linked to criminal activities or sanctions

C.

Periodically monitoring regulatory updates and enforcement actions for associated entities

D.

Scanning publicly available news articles and regulatory alerts

E.

Monitoring changes in credit scores of individuals or entities

Question 25

An organization is developing a comprehensive anti-money laundering (AML) framework.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between AML policies and procedures?

Options:

A.

Policies are broad guidelines. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes. Only procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

B.

Policies define the principles of an organization and influence the drafting of procedures. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes.

C.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Neither policies nor procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

D.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Both policies and procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

Question 26

There are three types of factors that can be used to authenticate someone ownership, knowledge, and inherent factors.

Which of the following factors falls under inherent factors?

Options:

A.

Challenge-response

B.

Fingerprint

C.

Security token

D.

Passphrase

Question 27

Which of the following are part of a risk-based approach? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Determining detailed risk profiles for customers based on their activities and relationships

B.

Focusing monitoring primarily on previously flagged customers while using standard controls for others

C.

Choosing and applying effective controls that align with the identified risk levels

D.

Performing a comprehensive risk assessment to identify customer, transaction, and geographic risks

E.

Allocating resources equally across all customer segments to ensure fairness

Question 28

A compliance manager at a virtual asset service provider (VASP) is evaluating its business and its impact on AML policies. Which of the following features of the VASP's business would be of greatest concern? (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

Allowing clients lo transact anonymity-enhanced tokens

B.

Onboardlng of clients who are residents abroad. Including those with politically exposed person (PEP) status

C.

Enabling transfer of tokens from one blockchain to another

D.

Offering services to VASPs established in jurisdictions that are not FATF compliant

E.

Operating a network of crypto ATMs charging high fees

F.

Lack of adequate IP address tracking capabilities

Question 29

In the process of mutual evaluations and subsequent follow-ups used by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) to assess the quality of various jurisdictions' AML controls, the FATF:

Options:

A.

imposes economic sanctions on jurisdictions with lax AML controls to force them to strengthen their controls.

B.

conducts on-site inspections of financial institutions in jurisdictions with lax AML controls to identify deficiencies and recommend improvements.

C.

publishes annual reports ranking all member jurisdictions based on their self-assessment of AML controls.

D.

conducts a peer review process whereby member countries assess the AML controls of other jurisdictions and provide recommendations for improvement.

Question 30

Which of the following are key financial crime risks associated with real estate companies? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

Buying property allows for the movement of large amounts of funds in a single transaction

B.

Criminal networks could purchase real estate for use as supply houses or locations to grow, manufacture, or distribute illicit narcotics

C.

Markets can be volatile, and buyers may not achieve a strong return on their investment

D.

Beneficial ownership information might be opaque, and criminals may abuse arrangements like shell companies and trusts

E.

Real estate transactions often involve financial institutions and other professional gatekeepers

F.

The high value of properties may require multiple types of financing, which can make it more difficult to identify the source of funds

Question 31

Which non-governmental bodies typically issue information and guidance related to AML/CFT issues? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Wolfsberg Group

B.

Transparency International

C.

Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

D.

Tax Justice Network

Question 32

Which of the following describes a role of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF)?

Options:

A.

Oversight of the Financial Intelligence Units in FATF Member countries

B.

Providing a unique platform for information exchange regarding anti-money laundering efforts

C.

Regulation of financial markets through directives and executive orders

D.

Enhancement of international cooperation to foster anti-money laundering efforts via recommendations and guidance

Question 33

How can public-private partnerships (PPPs) foster collaboration in the fight against financial crime? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Developing a culture of compliance

B.

Improving governance in the public sector by requesting feedback from financial institutions

C.

Reducing transaction monitoring false positives for all financial institutions

D.

Improving the quality and quantity of data available for analysis by sharing information

Question 34

Which role within private banking has the best placement to identify and report money laundering risk?

Options:

A.

Investment advisor

B.

Relationship manager

C.

Operations manager

D.

Compliance officer

Question 35

A law enforcement action alleged that on several trading days over the course of two months, defendants engaged in a series of copper gold, crude oil. and natural gas futures transactions on an electronic trading platform One defendant repeatedly bought future contracts at low prices from the other, and then immediately sold them back at higher prices. As a result, one defendant effectively pocketed the same amount as the other lost even though there were no changes in the open positions held by either defendant.

What is a name for this typology?

Options:

A.

Short position

B.

Reverse flip

C.

Bid-ask spread

D.

Wash trading

Question 36

Unusual wire transfer transactions can include: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

wire transfers in different currencies between accounts held at different banks for the same client.

B.

an incoming third-party wire transfer followed by the purchase of real estate in the client's name.

C.

an incoming wire transfer followed by the loan payment to a third party that is a business associate of the client.

D.

multiple wire transfers sent to counterparties associated with the client as per KYC documentation.

Question 37

The Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is responsible for:

Options:

A.

Ensuring an effective export control and treaty compliance system

B.

Administering and enforcing economic and trade sanctions

C.

Designating jurisdictions as primary money laundering concerns

D.

Managing trade agreements between the US and foreign countries

Question 38

A financial institution plans to implement adverse media screening with Artificial Intelligence (AI)/Machine Learning (ML) capabilities During testing, the system produces high volumes of irrelevant news articles for review.

What is the best way to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Narrow the media sources to avoid unrelated articles

B.

Rely on manual filtering by investigators

C.

Increase the frequency of updates to media sources

D.

Adjust AI/ML models to focus on high-risk keywords/phrases from reputable media sources

Question 39

Which statements regarding using network analysis tools to determine links to criminality are true? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

When using network analysis data to fight money laundering and financial crime, data protection and privacy can be disregarded because fighting crime takes precedent

B.

Network analysis tools are an efficient means of generating relevant results because they only need a limited amount of data and computation power and artificial intelligence (Al) allows less-skilled people to quickly learn to use these systems

C.

When using artificial intelligence (Al) with network analysis tools, it must be ensured that the algorithms used are not biased towards social criteria, such as race, gender, or religion

D.

Network analysis allows for the identification of individuals or entities in a network by analyzing connections or links between them and can be used to study a wide range of systems, such as social or transportation networks

E.

Analyzing relationships between individuals in a social network allows for the identification of hierarchies, the detection of behaviors and geographical movements, or an understanding of how groups are organized

Question 40

Which services provided by an accounting firm could be considered as higher risk from a financial crime perspective? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Forming a trust on behalf of a customer with a complex setup and acting as a nominee director

B.

Auditing a firm that provides payroll software to large corporate customers

C.

Preparing financial statements for a listed or a privately owned firm

D.

Providing tax advice to an international customer hoping to move their assets out of their home country

E.

Assisting an offshore corporation from a jurisdiction with no available beneficial owner information to buy property in the UK

Question 41

A sound AML compliance program requires a comprehensive governance framework that addresses key elements to ensure the integrity of the financial system.

Which element forms the starting point of an effective AML compliance program?

Options:

A.

Ongoing monitoring

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Policies and procedures

D.

Suspicious activity reporting

E.

Customer due diligence

Question 42

Criminals may misuse financial statements prepared by accountants to hide illicit assets.

Which of the following scenarios poses the greatest risk of financial statement manipulation by criminals?

Options:

A.

A lack of professional body oversight or required use of accounting and auditing standards in the country of incorporation of the entity

B.

Criminals posing as individuals seeking financial advice to place assets out of reach to avoid future liabilities

C.

Incomplete records being provided during bookkeeping, making them difficult to audit

D.

Accountants being used as intermediaries to introduce criminals to financial institutions

Question 43

A client advisor at a bank contacts a member of the compliance team for guidance on how to proceed with a client who wants to transfer US$250,000 from the sale of cryptoassets into their savings account at the bank.

What guidance should the compliance team provide?

Options:

A.

Advise further clarification is necessary, including which coins or tokens were sold and whether the crypto exchange conducts due diligence on its clients

B.

Advise that the transaction should be stopped because cryptoassets in general are not regulated and by definition pose an unacceptable AML risk for the bank

C.

Confirm to the advisor that the customer can proceed with the transaction if the client's KYC is up to date and a search on a public blockchain explorer does not provide any adverse media hits

D.

Confirm to the advisor that the customer can proceed with the transaction because clients are already correctly onboarded KYC is complete and the source of funds is transparent

Question 44

Which of the following measures can help maintain the independence of BSA/AML compliance staff to ensure effective compliance controls?

Options:

A.

Establishing BSA/AML compliance staff reporting to the management of the business line in the first line of defense

B.

Ensuring BSA/AML compliance staff is primarily outsourced

C.

Providing BSA/AML compliance staff a reporting line to compliance or other second line of defense internal control function

D.

Providing BSA/AML compliance staff with a reporting line to the chief financial officer

Question 45

Which of the following are considered best practices regarding senior management involvement in a financial crime compliance program? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Setting tone from the top

B.

Mandatory participation in all regulatory inspections

C.

Mandatory attendance and review of all financial crime trainings

D.

Setting clear criteria for escalations to senior management

Question 46

According to PinCEN. when a financial institution (PI) identities a suspicious activity that necessitates suspicious activity report (SAR) filing, the SAR supporting documentation should (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

include all documents or records that assisted the Fl in making the determination that the activity required a filing.

B.

always be limited to account name, account details, and transaction records.

C.

have written policies and procedures to maintain supporting documentation.

D.

be saved in a single separate file with hard copies stored in a fireproof cabinet.

Question 47

The primary objectives of the United Nations in developing sanctions regimes include: (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

to force developing nations to adopt liberal or substantive democracies.

B.

to support governments and regimes in the peaceful resolution of conflict.

C.

to punish governments for having weak financial crime controls.

D.

to deter non-democratic and non-constitutional changes within countries.

E.

to support the protection of human rights.

Question 48

What is the first step in designing an effective controls framework using a risk-based approach?

Options:

A.

Establishing risk controls

B.

Assessing risk controls

C.

Ongoing risk monitoring

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

Question 49

From an international standards perspective both the EU and Financial Action Task Force (FATF) consider data sharing a crucial component of effective anti-money laundenng measures because data sharing:

Options:

A.

allows Financial Intelligence Units (FlUs) to enact sanctions against perpetrators of financial crime

B.

promotes financial transparency and protects the integrity of the financial systems

C.

needs to be approved by the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) before sharing between financial institutions

D.

helps financial institutions to be more effective in fighting crime with data analysis

Question 50

Which characteristic of accountants is most attractive to those looking to launder funds using an accountant or accountancy firm?

Options:

A.

Accountants can prepare ledgers and spreadsheets, draft annual returns and make payments to government offices

B.

Accountants can advise on the structuring of companies as well as ensure compliance with local tax regulations

C.

Accountants are knowledgeable about financial management, including what to record over the course of the accounting year

D.

Accountants are able to create and structure companies, falsify accounts and manipulate financial statements

Question 51

In a large US bank, an individual leads a team in charge of overseeing the governance and effectiveness of the bank's transaction monitoring approach.

Which strategies should the team implement? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries

B.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank's internal policies and procedures

C.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected

Question 52

While gaming platforms are typically used for recreational purposes, they can potentially be used for terrorist financing through games in which players can:

Options:

A.

buy in-game items with virtual in-game currencies.

B.

exchange in-game items with other players.

C.

trade in-game items with other players that can be exchanged for fiat currency

D.

obtain in-game materials by performing in-game activities.

Question 53

Which strategies are most effective for prioritizing resources within an anti-financial crime (AFC) program using a risk-based approach (RBA)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Prioritizing resources towards lower-risk areas to reduce workload

B.

Regularly reassessing risks to adjust resource allocation

C.

Allocating more resources to areas with higher financial crime risk

D.

Providing equal resources to all departments to maintain consistency

E.

Using a fixed resource allocation plan without adjustments

Question 54

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendation 22. when involved in customer transactions that include the buying and selling of real estate, real estate professionals are required to apply which customer due diligence (CDD) measures? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Obtaining prior senior manager approval for all related transactions

B.

Understanding the purpose of the business relationship

C.

Performing adverse media searches on the customer

D.

Identifying and verifying the customer's identity

Question 55

How do nominees benefit criminals misusing thorn for money laundering purposes? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Allow beneficial owners to provide proxies lot voting on corporate decisions

B.

Obscure beneficial ownership

C.

Allow domicile in the nominee's jurisdiction

D.

Derail investigations

Question 56

A risk-based approach (RBA) to anti-financial crimes (AFC) involves understanding and managing risks by:

Options:

A.

applying uniform controls to all customers, regardless of their risk profile

B.

allocating resources and implementing controls based on the level of identified risks

C.

prioritizing regulatory compliance over customer experience and operational efficiency

D.

relying on automated systems to detect and mitigate AFC risks

Question 57

Which of the following processes or tools contribute to AML compliance despite being seemingly unrelated? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Customer loyalty program tracking

B.

Product usage analysis

C.

Customer satisfaction surveys

D.

Customer support ticket tracking

E.

Credit risk assessment

Question 58

Money services businesses (MSBs), payment service providers, and e-commerce platforms usually have a high volume of daily transactions.

What are the risks associated with these types of businesses? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

These businesses are all cash intensive, increasing the risk of financial crime

B.

KYC challenges arise because e-commerce platforms face global customers making customer due diligence complex and resource intensive

C.

These businesses are highly regulated and therefore have no reason to be non-compliant as this would put them at risk of sanctions and fines

D.

Criminals can make use of identify fraud to fulfill KYC processes for layering purposes

E.

The settlement systems of these businesses are not sophisticated enough to cope with the high transaction volume

Question 59

A large international bank's chief compliance officer (CCO) is exploring ways to enhance the bank's ability to identify suspicious activities by using intelligence data more effectively. One potential solution is to engage in public-private partnerships (PPPs) to leverage shared intelligence and enhance collaboration with government agencies.

The bank considers joining a PPP initiative with the local Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) and other financial institutions to improve its access to relevant data and intelligence. The CCO understands that while PPPs can provide significant benefits, such as improved risk detection and enhanced information sharing, there are also potential limitations, including data privacy concerns and differing priorities between public and private sector partners.

Which approach would best maximize the benefits of PPPs for the bank while mitigating the limitations associated with data sharing and intelligence?

Options:

A.

Engage in the PPP without strict data sharing protocols, allowing for open and unrestricted flow of information between the bank, FIUs, and other financial institutions

B.

Rely solely on the intelligence provided by government agencies through the PPP because they have the most comprehensive data on suspicious activities

C.

Establish a clear framework within the PPP that outlines data privacy protections and ensures that information sharing complies with legal and regulatory requirements in all jurisdictions involved

D.

Prioritize the bank’s internal data sources over external intelligence from PPPs, as internal data is easier to control and does not present data privacy challenges

Question 60

At a high level, the risk assessment process involves identifying and rating the inherent risks associated with customers, products, countries, and delivery channels, and then:

Options:

A.

comparing these risks with industry benchmarks to determine the residual risk.

B.

implementing new controls to eliminate all risks

C.

rating the effectiveness of the related controls in order to calculate the residual risk.

D.

documenting the historical risk incidents for future reference.

Question 61

Which financial crime risks are inherent to e-commerce platforms? (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

E-commerce platforms exploited to move criminal proceeds

B.

Use of stolen bank cards for online purchases

C.

E-commerce platforms susceptible to fraud schemes

D.

E-commerce platforms used as a front for illicit transactions

E.

E-commerce platforms encouraging unregulated peer-to-peer lending

F.

Use of foreign currency to mask criminal proceeds

Question 62

Which of the following accurately describes the economic, reputational and social consequences of money laundering (ML) and the risks and consequences of violating AFC regulations? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

ML undermines the integrity and stability of financial systems and makes them vulnerable to illegal activity. This can erode investor confidence and hinder economic growth.

B.

When a financial institution (FI) is found to be promoting ML or violating AFC regulations, this can lead to a loss of confidence in the institution and a loss of customers. Interestingly, this scenario might sidestep any legal consequences for the Fl.

C.

When laundered funds flow into legitimate economies, they can be used for illegal purposes, such as funding terrorist activities or organized crime. This distorts resource allocation and undermines development.

D.

Jurisdictions perceived as having insufficient ML measures might be identified as uncooperative or high-risk, potentially facing restricted access to international markets, though economic sanctions by other countries are an unlikely outcome.

Question 63

Which risk factors are associated with acquiring and servicing the banking activities of customers considered higher risk for financial crime activities? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Reputational risk

B.

Operational risk

C.

Sanctions risk

D.

Compliance risk

E.

Lending risk

Question 64

The US Department of the Treasury notes that which of the following represent high money laundering risk when de-risked from traditional financial institutions (FIs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Money services business (MSB)

B.

Multinational corporations

C.

Individual foreign customers

D.

Non-profit organizations with international operations

Question 65

An institution is looking to alter an existing threshold-based monitoring scenario because it is generating too many alerts that do not yield suspicious activity reports.

Documentation submitted to the relevant committee for supporting this proposal should include details on: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

evidence that the increased residual risk arising from the change is within the bank's risk appetite.

B.

approval by money-laundering reporting officer for the proposal.

C.

how many resources are spent on the less productive lower threshold and the associated costs.

D.

the number of cases that will not be filed and the resources that can be freed up for other tasks.

E.

minutes of meeting held with the regulator where agreement was obtained that the higher threshold was justified.

F.

historical analysis proving that the current scenario generates a disproportionate number of false positives.

Question 66

Cryptocurrency-related technologies that can be exploited by money launderers include: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

generative copilots.

B.

small language models.

C.

privacy coins.

D.

crypto-mixers.

Question 67

When applying new technologies to AML, application programming interfaces (APIs) allow for:

Options:

A.

Digital identification on mobile devices

B.

Different applications to connect and communicate

C.

Authentication via artificial intelligence (AI) and biometrics

D.

Quick CDD and client traits analysis during onboarding

Question 68

Section 319(a) of the USA PATRIOT Act:

Options:

A.

Allows the appropriate federal banking agency to require a financial organization to produce, within 120 hours, records or information related to the organization's AML compliance or related to a customer of the organization or any account opened, maintained, administered, or managed in the U.S. by the financial organization.

B.

Provides the U.S. Department of Treasury with the authority to apply graduated, proportionate measures against a foreign jurisdiction, foreign financial organization, type of international transaction, or type of account.

C.

Permits the U.S. Government to seize funds from a correspondent bank account in the U.S. that has been opened and maintained for a foreign bank in the same amount as has been deposited with the foreign bank.

D.

Requires due diligence, and in certain situations enhanced due diligence (EDD), for foreign correspondent accounts, which includes virtually all account relationships that organizations can have with a foreign financial organization and private banking for non-citizens of the U.S.

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Total 229 questions