AAPC CPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Exam Practice Test

Medical necessity is determined by whether a procedure or treatment is necessary to treat or manage a health condition. Removing excess skin after significant weight loss from a gastric bypass often meets medical necessity criteria because excess skin can lead to physical complications, such as infections, rashes, and mobility issues. Insurance companies are more likely to cover this procedure when it's needed to alleviate health issues rather than for cosmetic purposes.

A. Speech therapy for a lisp: Typically, therapy for minor speech impediments like a lisp may not be deemed medically necessary unless it severely affects communication or daily functioning.

B. Tummy tuck after a pregnancy: This procedure is generally classified as cosmetic and not medically necessary, as it is often done to improve appearance rather than address a health condition.

C. Second rhinoplasty for a smaller nose: This would likely be considered elective and cosmetic, especially if it is solely for aesthetic preference without any health-related issues.

Thus, the correct answer is D. Removing excess skin in losing weight from a gastric bypass, as it can be essential for physical health and quality of life.

33016 = Pericardiocentesis, including imaging guidance (e.g., ultrasound) when performed.Because the code already includes imaging guidance, you do not separately report 76942.So the correct coding is 33016 only → B.

For this encounter, ICD-10-CM guidelines dictate that a myocardial infarction (MI) that occurs within four weeks (28 days) of an initial MI is considered to be in the acute phase. Therefore, the patient’s condition should still be coded as an acute MI, as it is within the four-week period since the initial STEMI.

B. I21.29 is the correct code for an acute STEMI of the inferolateral wall occurring within the acute phase following the initial MI. The code I21.29 is specifically used for subsequent STEMI in the same four-week period.

Explanation of incorrect options:

A. I22.2 is incorrect because I22 codes are used for a second acute MI occurring after the initial one has resolved, which is not applicable here.

C. I21.19 and D. I21.3 are codes for different locations of STEMI that do not specify the inferolateral wall.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. I21.29 for a subsequent STEMI of the inferolateral wall within the acute phase.

00537 – Anesthesia for electrophysiologic procedures including ablation

Patient is otherwise healthy → P1

Why others are incorrect:

00532 – Pacemaker insertion

01922 – MRI

01026 – Lower extremity procedures

1. E/M Code Category Selection:

The patient was placed in observation care on 12/2/20XX for an acute asthma exacerbation and stayed in observation for a total of 16 hours, with discharge occurring on 12/3/20XX.

The appropriate E/M category for patients in observation care for a period that includes both admission and discharge on separate calendar dates is "Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services", with specific codes for admission and discharge on different dates.

2. Code Range and Specific Codes:

Code Range 99234-99236 applies to cases where observation care includes both admission and discharge, particularly when they occur on different calendar days and the total duration of care is under 24 hours.

For discharge on the subsequent day, 99238-99239 (Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge Services) applies, depending on the time spent on discharge.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Option B and Option D include Initial Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care codes (99221-99223), which are typically used for admissions to inpatient care rather than for observation care scenarios as presented here.

Option C incorrectly combines Subsequent Inpatient or Observation Care codes (99231-99233), which are used for follow-up days rather than discharge services.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to CPT® guidelines, the 99234-99236 code range is used when observation care requires both admission and discharge on different dates, and 99238-99239 is appropriate for discharge services.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services (Including Admission and Discharge Services) (99234-99236) and Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge services (99238-99239).

99223 = Initial hospital/observation care with high time (75+ min) or high MDM

Prolonged service 99418 is bundled into observation services

Established patient with moderate MDM

99214 aligns with CPC exam standards

This scenario describes an anterior discectomy and arthroplasty at two levels (L3-L4 and L5-S1) using artificial discs. CPT® code 22857 describes total disc arthroplasty (artificial disc), anterior approach, including discectomy to prepare interspace (other than for decompression), single interspace, lumbar. Since the procedure was performed at two levels, the code should be reported twice.

The procedure involves a laparoscopic partial colectomy where the surgeon removes the proximal colon and terminal ileum, then reconnects the cut ends of the distal ileum and remaining colon.

Procedure Description:

Laparoscopic partial colectomy.

Removal of the proximal colon and terminal ileum.

Anastomosis of the distal ileum and remaining colon.

CPT® Coding:

44204: Laparoscopy, surgical; colectomy, partial, with anastomosis.

ICD-10-CM Coding:

C18.2: Malignant neoplasm of ascending colon.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

ICD-10-CM for corresponding diagnosis codes.

In the ICD-10-CM Tabular List, square brackets [ ] (Brackets) are used to enclose synonyms, alternative wording, or explanatory phrases. This is a punctuation convention taught for ICD-10-CM and is tested on CPC.

To avoid confusion with other punctuation:

Parentheses ( ) indicate nonessential modifiers (supplementary words that may be present or absent without affecting the code selection).

A semicolon ( ; ) is used in the Tabular List to show that additional modifying words (that follow the semicolon) are required to complete the diagnostic statement.

Colons ( : ) are used after an incomplete term that needs one or more modifying terms to make it assignable.

The Office of Inspector General (OIG) provides compliance program guidance to form the basis of a voluntary compliance program for provider practices. This guidance is intended to help healthcare providers develop effective internal controls to monitor adherence to applicable statutes, regulations, and program requirements of Federal healthcare programs. The OIG issues various compliance guidelines and resources to assist organizations in establishing comprehensive compliance programs to prevent fraud, waste, and abuse.

OIG Compliance Program Guidance, AMA's CPT® Professional Edition, and healthcare compliance resources.

The patient with malignant lymphoma is administered Rituximab (800 mg) and Benadryl (100 mg) intravenously.

Procedure Description:

Administration of Rituximab (800 mg) intravenously.

Administration of Benadryl (100 mg) intravenously.

HCPCS Level II Coding:

J9312: Injection, Rituximab, 10 mg.

For 800 mg, report 80 units of J9312.

J1200: Injection, Diphenhydramine HCl, up to 50 mg.

For 100 mg, report 2 units of J1200.

HCPCS Level II Code Book (current year).

HCPCS Level II coding guidelines for intravenous drug administration.

A myringotomy is a surgical incision into the tympanic membrane (eardrum).

A myringotomy tube (ventilation tube) is placed in the ear to allow drainage of fluid from the middle ear and to equalize pressure.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Ear.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The scenario describes the removal and replacement of an inflatable penile prosthesis due to erectile dysfunction.

CPT® Code 54416 is specifically used for the removal and replacement of a multi-component inflatable penile prosthesis. This code accurately describes the procedure performed.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 54401 represents the initial insertion of a multi-component inflatable penile prosthesis but does not cover removal and replacement, making it inappropriate for this scenario.

Code 54400 is for the insertion of a non-inflatable (malleable) penile prosthesis, which does not apply here as the prosthesis is inflatable.

Code 4417 does not exist in the CPT® coding system and is likely a typo or incorrect option.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC and CPT® guidelines, 54416 is the correct code when an inflatable prosthesis requires both removal and replacement, without the need for additional modifiers for this procedure.

Therefore, the correct answer based on CPT® guidelines is D. 54416.

00537 = Anesthesia for EP procedures

P1 = Normal healthy patient

The place of service code 22 is used for services performed in an outpatient hospital setting, including outpatient surgical floors. This code indicates that the procedure was done in a hospital but not requiring an inpatient admission.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year), Place of Service Codes.

69642 = Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy and ossicular chain reconstruction

Other codes represent variations without ossicular reconstruction or canal wall work

In this encounter, the correct coding order follows ICD-10-CM guidelines for coding multiple conditions when AIDS (B20) is documented, as it takes precedence. The patient's diagnosis of AIDS, documented with code B20, is reported as the primary diagnosis since it is a chronic condition. The M17.31 code is used to document unilateral primary osteoarthritis of the right knee, unrelated to AIDS but causing the patient's knee pain.

Explanation of each answer choice:

A. B20, M17.31: Correctly lists AIDS (B20) as the primary diagnosis and osteoarthritis of the right knee (M17.31) as the secondary diagnosis.

B. Z21, M08.861: Z21 represents asymptomatic HIV, not AIDS, which is incorrect here, and M08.861 is the code for juvenile idiopathic arthritis, not relevant in this case.

C. M17.11, B20: Incorrect as M17.11 is for unilateral primary osteoarthritis of the right knee, not left, and does not prioritize B20 as required.

D. M17.31, B20: Incorrect because it does not list B20 as the primary diagnosis, which is necessary per coding guidelines when AIDS is documented.

Thus, the correct answer is A. B20, M17.31.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient received IV hydration therapy with normal saline, which lasted for 1 hour and 30 minutes.

CPT® Code 96360 is used for initial IV hydration for the first hour. This code applies to the first 31-60 minutes of hydration therapy.

CPT® Code 96361 is used for each additional hour of IV hydration. Since the hydration lasted 1 hour and 30 minutes, 96361 should be reported once to cover the additional 30 minutes after the initial hour.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 96365 is for initial IV infusion for therapeutic, prophylactic, or diagnostic purposes, rather than hydration, and is not applicable in this case.

Code 96366 is used for additional therapeutic, prophylactic, or diagnostic infusions and does not apply to hydration services.

Option A (96360) would only cover the initial hour of hydration, missing the additional 30 minutes, which is appropriately coded with 96361.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC and CPT® guidelines, 96360 should be used for the first hour of IV hydration, and 96361 should be used for each additional hour or portion of an hour beyond the initial 60 minutes.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. 96360, 96361.

For the injections, CPT® code 64642 is used for chemodenervation of one extremity; 64643 for each additional extremity, and 64647 for chemodenervation of muscles in the paraspinal region. The modifier -50 is added to 64642 and 64643 to indicate bilateral procedures. According to CPT® guidelines, when multiple sites are treated, each site is coded separately, and appropriate modifiers are used.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year), Surgery section, Nervous System.

37267 = Iliac artery stent placement

Angioplasty is bundled into the stent code

Per ICD-10-CM guidelines, when dependence is documented with either use or abuse, only the dependence code is assigned, as it takes precedence.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent a suppression study involving five glucose tests and five human growth hormone tests.

CPT® Code 80430 represents a suppression panel specifically for growth hormone studies, which includes various assessments for diagnosing abnormal growth.

CPT® Code 82947 is used for each glucose test performed, and since five glucose tests were conducted, it should be coded as 82947 x 5.

CPT® Code 83003 is used for each human growth hormone test performed, and since five tests were conducted, it should be coded as 83003 x 5.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Option A lists 82947 x 2 and 83003 without sufficient units to account for the five tests each, which does not match the actual number of tests performed.

Option B omits the suppression panel code 80430, which is necessary for documenting the overall suppression study.

Option D does not provide the correct quantity of glucose and growth hormone tests, which were each performed five times.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, when a suppression panel includes multiple components that are performed more than once, the specific panel code 80430 should be used along with the correct number of individual component codes.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. 80430, 82947 x 5, 83003 x 5.

The lesion is a benign congenital hairy nevus → benign lesion excision codes (11400–11446)

Location: thigh (trunk/arms/legs)

Excision size with margins = 4.5 cm → 11406 (4.1–5.0 cm)

Closure length = 5 cm, layered closure with limited undermining → intermediate repair

12032 = Intermediate repair, trunk/extremities, 2.6–7.5 cm

Modifier -51 applies to the secondary procedure

99285 = High-complexity ED visit

I21.4 = NSTEMI

Chest pain symptoms are not coded once MI is diagnosed

New patient in community residential facility

Moderate MDM → 99344

Total time = 90 minutes

Base time exceeded → 99417 appropriate

Why others are incorrect:

99345 – High MDM (not documented)

Missing prolonged service code

When a patient experiences an underdose of insulin due to an insulin pump malfunction, the primary reason for the encounter would be the malfunction itself, which is coded first. The resulting hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia due to the pump failure is a secondary condition. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, the code for the mechanical complication of the pump (T85.633-) is sequenced first, followed by a code for the diabetes with complication (E11.65 for type 2 diabetes with hyperglycemia).

ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 19: Injury, Poisoning and Certain Other Consequences of External Causes (S00-T88), ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Section I.C.4.

End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) is a condition in which the kidneys fail to work effectively to remove waste products and excess fluids from the blood. This primarily affects the genitourinary system, which includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra. Patients with ESRD often require dialysis or a kidney transplant.

ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 14: Diseases of the Genitourinary System (N00-N99).

CPT code 99385 is used for initial comprehensive preventive medicine evaluation and management of an individual, including a detailed history and examination, and anticipatory guidance. Since additional documentation and treatment for non-inflamed lesions are provided, an additional E/M service code 99203 with modifier -25 (significant, separately identifiable evaluation and management service by the same physician on the same day) is appropriate to indicate both services were rendered. References: CPT® Professional Edition (current year), AMA.

Injection of atropine: Atropine is administered to reduce sialorrhea.

Bilateral submandibular salivary glands: The physician administers the injections into the salivary glands.

Total of four glands: Indicates that multiple glands are treated in the same session.

CPT code 64611 accurately represents chemodenervation of the salivary glands, bilateral. The use of -50, -52, or x4 modifiers is not appropriate since CPT guidelines include bilateral procedures in this code without needing additional modifiers or codes.

Kerat/o = cornea

-itis = inflammation

Keratitis specifically means inflammation of the cornea, which is the transparent anterior portion of the eye.

Other options are incorrect because:

Blepharitis = inflammation of the eyelid

Conjunctivitis = inflammation of the conjunctiva

Scleritis = inflammation of the sclera

90960 = ESRD services, 4 or more visits/month

N18.6 = End-stage renal disease

Z99.2 = Dependence on renal dialysis

27380 = Repair, quadriceps muscle

S76.311A = Strain of muscle, fascia, tendon of right thigh, initial encounter

Code selection is based on specific muscle group and laterality

CPT® code 49083 describes an abdominal paracentesis with imaging guidance, such as ultrasound. This code includes the imaging guidance as part of the procedure, so it is not necessary to separately report the ultrasonic guidance.

1. Problem Type Selection:

Miranda is following up on her diabetes, which is a chronic condition. Her blood sugars are controlled, indicating that the condition is stable with her current medication regimen.

Stable, chronic illness is defined in the CPT® MDM (Medical Decision Making) Table as a chronic condition that is under control and not currently worsening, even if ongoing management is required. This aligns with the patient's diabetes being well-managed with her prescribed medications.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

A. Acute, uncomplicated illness or injury is not applicable as diabetes is a chronic condition, not an acute issue.

B. Minimal problem refers to conditions that are minor or self-limited and typically require little to no treatment, which does not apply to chronic conditions like diabetes.

D. Stable, acute illness would refer to an acute condition that has stabilized, whereas diabetes is a chronic condition, not acute.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to the CPT® MDM Table, a "Stable, chronic illness" is the correct classification for a follow-up encounter on a controlled chronic condition like diabetes.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. Stable, chronic illness.

69905 = Transmastoid labyrinthectomy

69990 = Operating microscope (separately reportable)

H81.391 = Peripheral vertigo, right ear

R42 (dizziness) is not reported when a definitive diagnosis exists

RADIOLOGY & IMAGING QUESTIONS

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The test performed is a quantitative, high-sensitive fluorescent enzyme immunoassay to measure specific IgE for recombinant peanut components.

CPT® Code 86008 is specific for allergen-specific IgE testing for recombinant or component-resolved allergens. This code is appropriate for testing IgE response to individual allergenic components, such as those found in peanuts.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 86003 is used for allergen-specific IgE testing but does not apply to recombinant or component-resolved allergens, which are covered by 86008.

Code 86001 is for total IgE testing and does not measure specific allergens.

Code 86005 is for a general allergy screening (not specific IgE or component testing) and is not appropriate for component-resolved peanut allergen testing.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, 86008 should be used for specific IgE testing related to recombinant allergens or component testing.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. 86008.

Brackets [ ] in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index are used to identify manifestation codes.

These codes cannot be reported as the principal diagnosis and must be sequenced after the underlying condition.

This is a frequently tested ICD-10-CM guideline concept.

The procedure described is flexible bronchoscopy with bronchial biopsy (biopsy taken from the bronchi/bronchial tubes).

31625 = Bronchoscopy, flexible, with biopsy (single or multiple)

Important CPC concept: when the CPT® descriptor is “single or multiple”, you code it once, even if multiple biopsies are taken.

31628 is for transbronchial lung biopsy, which is not what is described (the question specifies bronchial tubes/bronchial biopsies).Therefore, A is correct.

11765 = Excision of nail fold (wedge excision), ingrown toenail

TA = Left great toe

Other codes are incorrect:

11730 = Partial nail avulsion

11750 = Nail excision

11755 = Biopsy

Correct answer: 11765-TA

50236 – Radical nephrectomy with partial ureterectomy and rib resection, open approach

Includes:

Kidney removal

Partial ureter removal

Rib resection

Correct for renal cell carcinoma

Increased complexity due to prior surgery does not change CPT code, but may support modifier -22

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

50545 / 50548 – Laparoscopic/robotic nephrectomy

50225 – Simple nephrectomy (no ureter or rib resection)

1. CPT® Code 11604: This code is used for the excision of a malignant lesion on the back, with a size of 3.5 cm including margins. The 11600 series covers excision of malignant skin lesions, with 11604 being the correct code for a lesion size over 3.0 cm but not exceeding 4.0 cm.

2. CPT® Code 17110: This code is appropriate for the destruction of a benign lesion on the face (right cheek) via cryosurgery. 17110 covers the destruction of benign lesions (up to 14 lesions).

3. ICD-10-CM Code C44.509: This code represents unspecified malignant neoplasm of skin of trunk (back).

4. ICD-10-CM Code D23.39: This code is used for a benign neoplasm of skin of other parts of the face (right cheek).

Explanation of other options:

A. 11604, 11442, C76.8, C76.0: Incorrect because 11442 is for excision of a benign lesion, not a malignant lesion.

B. 11404, 11442, C44.509, D23.39: Incorrect because 11404 is used for a benign lesion excision, not malignant.

D. 11604, 11642, C76.8, C76.0: Incorrect as 11642 would indicate a second malignant excision rather than the benign lesion destruction.

Thus, the correct answer is C. 11604, 17110, C44.509, D23.39.

29827: Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair is correctly coded as 29827.

29828: Arthroscopic biceps tenodesis is an additional procedure and should be coded as 29828 with modifier -51 (Multiple Procedures).

29824: Arthroscopic claviculectomy (partial resection of the distal clavicle) is coded as 29824 with modifier -51.

29826: Arthroscopic subacromial decompression, including coracoacromial ligament release, is coded as 29826.

All these procedures were performed arthroscopically and documented in the operative report, justifying the use of these codes and the use of modifier -51 for multiple procedures.

CPT® Professional Edition, AMA

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent X-ray imaging of the abdomen with multiple views: decubitus, supine, and erect. This is a comprehensive study that includes different positioning to evaluate the abdomen.

CPT® Code 74022 is appropriate for an abdominal X-ray with a minimum of three views. This code accurately reflects the multiple views taken in this scenario.

2. Modifier 26:

Modifier 26 is applied to indicate the professional component of the service if the radiologist is only interpreting the images and not providing the technical component.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 74018 (in option A) is for a single view of the abdomen, which does not apply here since multiple views were taken.

Code 74019 (in option C) covers two views of the abdomen, which is insufficient for this three-view study.

Code 74021 (in option D) represents an abdominal X-ray with more limited or focused views and does not align with the comprehensive three-view study described.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC and CPT® guidelines, 74022 is the correct code when an abdominal X-ray study involves at least three views, capturing various positions for a thorough examination.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. 74022-26.

55970 = Female-to-male sex transformation

55980 is for male-to-female transformation

Unlisted codes (58999, 55899) are not used when a specific CPT® code exists

According to ICD-10-CM coding guidelines for substance use, abuse, and dependence, when multiple levels (use, abuse, and dependence) of the same substance are documented, only the highest level of severity is coded. The hierarchy is as follows: dependence > abuse > use.

D. If both use and dependence are documented, assign only the code for dependence is correct, as dependence represents the highest severity level and supersedes both use and abuse.

A. is incorrect because if both use and abuse are documented without dependence, only abuse would be coded as it is of a higher severity than use.

B. is incorrect because all three codes (use, abuse, dependence) should not be reported together; only the highest level should be coded.

C. is incorrect because if both abuse and dependence are documented, only dependence (the higher severity level) should be coded, not abuse.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. If both use and dependence are documented, assign only the code for dependence.

Laparoscopic nephrectomy: A minimally invasive surgical procedure to remove a kidney.

Part of the ureter: Removal includes part of the ureter.

50220: Nephrectomy (open procedure), which doesn't apply since the procedure was laparoscopic.

50548: Nephrectomy, partial, laparoscopic, which doesn't match the full nephrectomy performed.

50543: Laparoscopy, surgical; nephrectomy with total ureterectomy.

50543 is the correct CPT code for the laparoscopic removal of the kidney along with part of the ureter, fitting the scenario described.

80430 = Growth hormone suppression panel

Individual tests are reported with units

MEDICINE & CARDIOLOGY

For a complete bilateral mastectomy with insertion of breast prosthesis performed during the same surgical session, the correct CPT® codes are:

1. 19303-50: This code represents a complete mastectomy (removal of breast tissue) performed bilaterally (indicated by the -50 modifier).

2. 19340-50: This code is for the immediate insertion of a breast prosthesis following mastectomy, also performed bilaterally.

Explanation of other options:

A. 19303-50, 19342-50: Incorrect because 19342 is for the insertion of a breast implant, which differs from a prosthesis.

B. 19305-50, 19340-50: 19305 describes a modified radical mastectomy, which is more extensive than what is documented here.

C. 19325-50: This code represents a breast augmentation procedure, not a mastectomy with prosthesis insertion.

Thus, the correct answer is D. 19303-50, 19340-50, which accurately describes a bilateral mastectomy with prosthesis insertion.

Procedure Coding:

49186 – Excision or destruction of intra-abdominal tumors, 1–4 tumors

Four tumors excised → correct code selection

Size does not alter code selection once tumor count is determined

Diagnosis Coding:

C48.2 – Malignant neoplasm of peritoneum, unspecified

Pathology confirms malignancy

C76.2 is used for ill-defined sites, not appropriate when peritoneum is specified

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B – 49187 is for 5 or more tumors

D – K66.8 = non-malignant peritoneal disorder

The procedure performed is a bilateral screening mammogram with computer-aided detection (CAD). CPT code 77067 is for bilateral screening mammography with CAD. ICD-10-CM code Z12.31 is for an encounter for screening mammogram for malignant neoplasm of the breast. Z80.3 is for a family history of malignant neoplasm of the breast. Therefore, the correct coding is 77067, Z12.31, Z80.3. References: CPT® Professional Edition (current year), ICD-10-CM (current year).

For a physician who owns the equipment and interprets the chest X-rays (both frontal and lateral views), code 71046 is used. This code includes both the technical and professional components, as the equipment is owned by the physician group and the physician also provides the interpretation.

The procedure involves a tympanoplasty with a radical mastoidectomy and removal of a cholesteatoma from the middle ear, including grafting of the eardrum without ossicular chain reconstruction.

Procedure Description:

Tympanoplasty.

Radical mastoidectomy.

Removal of cholesteatoma from the middle ear.

Grafting technique used to repair the eardrum without ossicular chain reconstruction.

CPT® Coding:

69645: Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy (including canalplasty, atticotomy and/or middle ear surgery), radical or complete, with removal of cholesteatoma; with mastoid obliteration.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on otolaryngology procedures.

To select the correct HCPCS Level II code for a non-emergency ambulance service, we focus on the following components:

A0428 represents "Ambulance service, Basic Life Support (BLS), non-emergency transport," which is appropriate here as the patient was transported with non-emergency BLS following a fainting episode. This eliminates options B and D, which indicate "emergency" (A0429).

QM Modifier indicates "Ambulance service provided under arrangement by a provider of services," relevant when a physician arranges the ambulance transport.

PH Modifier specifies "Physician’s office to hospital" transport, matching the scenario where the patient was taken from the physician’s office to the hospital.

Thus, A0428-QM-PH accurately describes a non-emergency BLS transport arranged by a provider from a physician's office to the hospital, aligning with choice A.

Procedure: Abdominal aorta catheterization and selective placement in the celiac trunk for angiography.

CPT® Codes:

36246: This code is for the catheter placement in the abdominal aorta.

75726-26: This code represents the abdominal angiography with supervision and interpretation, with the -26 modifier indicating the professional component.

Code Selection Justification: The procedure involves the catheterization of the abdominal aorta and the specific imaging performed with supervision and interpretation.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

ICD-10-CM (current year)

HCPCS Level II (current year)

45540 = Repair of rectal prolapse, abdominal approach

52332 = Cystourethroscopy with ureteral stent

K62.3 = Rectal prolapse

44010 = Biopsy of small intestine, single or multiple

Reported once only, regardless of number

11200 = removal of up to 15 skin tags

11201 = each additional 10 lesions or part thereof

26 lesions = 15 + 11 → 11201 ×2

In this case, a CRNA provided anesthesia for an urgent endoscopic procedure. To select the appropriate codes, we consider both the anesthesia code for the procedures performed and the modifiers relevant to the CRNA’s role and the patient’s physical status:

1. 00813: This CPT® code covers "Anesthesia for lower intestinal endoscopic procedures, endoscope introduced distal to duodenum," which is appropriate since the colonoscopy extended to the ileum and into the lower duodenum. 00731 (anesthesia for upper GI endoscopy) would not fully apply, as the main procedure targeted lower intestinal areas as well.

2. QZ Modifier: Indicates the anesthesia was performed by a CRNA without medical direction by an anesthesiologist, which aligns with the scenario where the CRNA independently administered anesthesia.

3. P3 Modifier: Reflects the physical status of "severe systemic disease" for this patient, as she has both end-stage renal failure and myelodysplastic syndrome.

4. 99100: This code is added to reflect "special anesthesia circumstances" given the patient’s extreme frailty (platelet count of 3,000), which warrants additional consideration.

5. 99140: Used for emergency conditions, which applies here due to the urgent nature of the bleeding investigation.

Thus, 00813-QZ-P3, 99100, 99140 accurately reflects the anesthesia services provided by the CRNA in this emergency scenario.

99152 – Moderate sedation, same physician, patient under 5 years, initial 15 minutes

Time documented: 21 minutes

First 15 minutes = 99152

Additional 15 minutes (99153) not reported separately in CPT® exam context

Why others are incorrect:

99151 – Minimal sedation

99155 / 99156 – Different age/provider scenarios

In this scenario, the procedure involved the excision of a large sacral pressure ulcer with deep tissue damage that required muscle and bone removal and was followed by a layered flap closure. The coding reflects both the extent of the ulcer and the procedure performed:

1. CPT® Code 15937: This code describes excision of a pressure ulcer with muscle and bone removal followed by flap closure, which matches the detailed procedure performed on the sacral ulcer.

2. ICD-10-CM Code L89.156: This code is used for a stage 4 sacral pressure ulcer, indicating the presence of deep tissue damage down to muscle and possibly bone, which aligns with the clinical findings.

Explanation of other options:

A. 15933, L89.153 and B. 15931, L89.153: These codes do not adequately describe the excision with muscle and bone removal nor the stage 4 severity of the ulcer.

C. 15935, L89.156: Although L89.156 is correct for a stage 4 ulcer, 15935 does not account for both muscle and bone excision with flap closure.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. 15937, L89.156, accurately capturing the procedure performed and the severity of the ulcer.

Cesarean Delivery with Antepartum and Postpartum Care: The procedure involved the cesarean section delivery of twins, including antepartum and postpartum care.

CPT Code 59510: This code is used for routine obstetric care including antepartum care, cesarean delivery, and postpartum care. The code is not reported per fetus but per delivery, even when delivering multiples.

Dacryocystitis is the inflammation of the lacrimal sac, which is part of the tear drainage system located in the inner corner of the eye. The lacrimal sac is connected to the nasolacrimal duct, which drains tears into the nasal cavity. Inflammation in this area can cause pain, redness, and swelling near the inner corner of the eye.

ICD-10-CM, medical dictionaries

CPT Code 62290: Discography, lumbar, single or multiple levels, radiological supervision and interpretation

This code accurately describes the procedure performed. The documentation indicates a lumbar discography was performed at a single level (L3-4) with radiological supervision (C-arm visualization).

ICD-10-CM Code M54.50: Low back pain, unspecified

This code is the most appropriate diagnosis based on the documentation. The preoperative diagnosis states "Low back pain possible spinal stenosis L3-4." While spinal stenosis was considered, it was not confirmed. The postoperative diagnosis indicates no evidence of spinal stenosis or discogenic pathology. Therefore, the definitive diagnosis is low back pain.

Why other options are incorrect:

62292: This code is for a discography with injection of contrast and/or medication for therapeutic purposes. The documentation doesn't indicate any therapeutic injection was performed.

M48.061 and M48.07: These codes represent spinal stenosis, which was not confirmed in the postoperative diagnosis.

73522 = Bilateral hips with pelvis, 3–4 views

Modifier -76 = Repeat procedure by the same physician

Modifier -51 identifies multiple procedures

Modifier -53 = Discontinued procedure after anesthesia and/or incision due to patient safety

-74 is used by facility, not physician

-52 is for reduced services, not discontinued procedures

Colposcopy of the Cervix: This involves a visual examination of the cervix using a colposcope.

Biopsy and Endocervical Curettage: The procedures performed include taking a biopsy and scraping the lining of the cervical canal.

CPT Code 57454: This code represents a colposcopy of the cervix with biopsy and endocervical curettage.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent a needle biopsy of the liver using CT guidance to obtain two core biopsy samples.

CPT® Code 47000 is for a percutaneous needle biopsy of the liver, which covers the liver biopsy procedure.

CPT® Code 77012 is the correct code for CT guidance for needle placement in soft tissue, which includes the guidance required to obtain accurate liver biopsy samples.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 47001 in option A is an add-on code for a liver biopsy performed during another procedure (such as a laparoscopic or open procedure) and is not applicable in this case, as 47000 is sufficient for a percutaneous approach.

Code 76942 (in option A) represents ultrasound guidance, not CT guidance, and thus is incorrect.

Code 77002 (in option B) is used for fluoroscopic guidance for needle placement, which is not applicable since CT guidance was used.

Option C incorrectly includes 47001, which is not needed as 47000 fully covers the percutaneous needle biopsy.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, 47000 is used for percutaneous liver biopsies, and 77012 should be reported for CT guidance for needle placement in the liver.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. 47000, 77012.

For Mohs micrographic surgery, CPT® coding is based on the anatomic location of the lesion, the number of stages, and the number of tissue blocks per stage.

17311: This code is used for Mohs surgery on body areas such as the trunk, arms, or legs for the first stage.

17315: This is an add-on code used when more than five tissue blocks are examined in a single stage. Since this case involved six tissue blocks, 17315 is appropriate.

Explanation of incorrect answers:

A. 17313, 17314, 17315: Incorrect, as 17313 applies to the head, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia, not the arm.

C. 17313, 17315: Incorrect, as 17313 is not appropriate for the arm.

D. 17311, 17312, 17315: 17312 is used for additional stages beyond the first, which is not applicable here since only one stage was performed.

E. 85B2-335 is not a valid CPT code for Mohs surgery.

Thus, the correct answer is B. 17311, 17315, which accurately reflects a single-stage Mohs surgery with six tissue blocks on the arm.

49083 – Abdominal paracentesis, diagnostic or therapeutic; with imaging guidance

This code includes imaging guidance (ultrasound or fluoroscopy).

Per CPT® guidelines, do not separately report fluoroscopy or ultrasound guidance with 49083.

The procedure was performed in the hospital, but CPT coding does not change based on site of service.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A (49082) – Used without imaging guidance

B / D – Imaging guidance codes (77001, 77002) are bundled into 49083 per CPT® and NCCI edits

Official CPT® Guidance:

When a paracentesis is performed with imaging guidance, report 49083 only.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The emergency department physician placed an indwelling catheter into the lumbar region for continuous infusion for pain management with fluoroscopic guidance.

CPT® Code 62327 is appropriate for injection or catheter placement for continuous infusion of anesthetic or analgesic in the lumbar or sacral region using imaging guidance.

CPT® Code 77003 represents the fluoroscopic guidance used during the catheter placement, which is separately reportable in this case.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 62326 (in options B and D) is for the injection or catheter placement without imaging guidance. Since fluoroscopic guidance was specifically mentioned, 62327 is the appropriate choice.

Code 77003 must be reported separately when fluoroscopy is used in conjunction with 62327 for pain management catheter placement.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, the combination of 62327 and 77003 is correct when catheter placement for continuous infusion is performed with fluoroscopic guidance.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. 62327, 77003.

99213-25 = E/M with separate procedure

87880 = Rapid strep test

J02.0 = Streptococcal pharyngitis

Symptoms are not reported with definitive diagnosis

38573 includes comprehensive laparoscopic staging with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy and paraaortic sampling

All listed components are bundled into this code

55250 = Vasectomy, bilateral procedure inherent (no modifier -50)

Z30.2 = Encounter for sterilization

Z30.012 is for contraceptive management counseling, not the procedure

For a mastectomy that involves removing the breast tissue, skin, pectoral muscles, and surrounding tissue, including the axillary and internal mammary lymph nodes, the appropriate CPT® code is:

19306: Mastectomy, radical, including pectoral muscles, axillary lymph nodes.

This code captures the extent of the surgery, including the removal of the breast tissue, skin, pectoral muscles, and lymph nodes.

CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

Surgery guidelines for mastectomy procedures

Procedure Coding (CPT®):

69910 – Labyrinthectomy, complete; transmastoid approach

Provider performed:

Mastoidectomy

Complete destruction/removal of semicircular canals, utricle, and saccule

This is a complete labyrinthectomy, not partial

69990 – Microsurgical techniques, requiring use of operating microscope

Separately reportable with otologic procedures

Modifier -51 not required (add-on code)

Diagnosis Coding (ICD-10-CM):

H81.391 – Peripheral vertigo, right ear

Correct laterality and condition

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

69905 – Partial labyrinthectomy

R42 – Symptom code (dizziness), not used when definitive diagnosis exists

72080 – Radiologic examination, spine; thoracolumbar junction, 2 views

Correct anatomy and number of views

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

72020 – Single view only

72114 / 72084 – Standing or scoliosis series

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The physician administered the MMRV (measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella) vaccine subcutaneously and dose 3 of Hepatitis B vaccine intramuscularly. The physician also provided counseling on routine immunizations.

CPT® Code 90460 is used for immunization administration with counseling by the physician for patients 18 years or younger for the first or only component of each vaccine.

CPT® Code 90461 is used for each additional component in a vaccine with counseling.

90710 is the code for the MMRV vaccine.

90744 is the code for the Hepatitis B vaccine (pediatric).

2. Application of 90460 and 90461:

For the MMRV vaccine (which has four components: measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella), 90460 is reported once for the first component, and 90461 is reported three times (once for each additional component).

For the Hepatitis B vaccine, 90460 is reported again since it is a separate vaccine with one component.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Option A (90471, 90472 x 4, 90707, 90746) uses codes for vaccine administration without counseling and incorrect vaccine codes (90707 for MMR instead of MMRV and 90746 for adult Hepatitis B instead of pediatric).

Option B and Option D also contain incorrect vaccine codes and do not correctly apply the counseling administration codes.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, 90460 and 90461 are the appropriate administration codes for vaccines with counseling provided to pediatric patients, with each component of a multi-component vaccine coded separately.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. 90460 x 2, 90461 x 3, 90710, 90744.

1. E/M Service Code Selection:

On day two, the urologist provided an evaluation and management (E/M) service for a hospitalized patient with a low level for the number and complexity of problems addressed, minimal complexity for data reviewed, and moderate risk of complications.

CPT® Code 99232 is for a subsequent hospital care E/M service with a level of "Expanded Problem Focused" history and examination, with Medical Decision Making (MDM) of Moderate complexity. This matches the description provided, as the MDM includes a low number of problems, minimal data, and moderate risk.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 99233 is for a subsequent hospital care visit with high complexity MDM (e.g., addressing a high number of problems or higher levels of data review), which does not align with the moderate risk described here.

Code 99221 is for initial hospital care, not a subsequent visit.

Code 99231 represents a lower level of subsequent hospital care with straightforward or low complexity MDM, which does not meet the moderate risk criteria in this scenario.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC and CPT® guidelines indicate 99232 as appropriate for subsequent hospital visits with moderate MDM, such as this visit with moderate risk but minimal data complexity.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. 99232.

The procedure documented is a modified Fontan procedure → 33615 (Fontan-type single-ventricle repair per the choices given).

The congenital diagnosis documented is double inlet ventricle → Q20.2.

Why the other options are incorrect based on the statements provided:

Q20.4 is not “double inlet ventricle” as stated in the question.

Adding Q20.1 is not supported by the documentation (the question only states double inlet ventricle).

Therefore, the best match is 33615, Q20.2 → A.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent an open partial colectomy involving the removal of the proximal colon and terminal ileum with reconnection of the distal ileum to the remaining colon.

CPT® Code 44160 is specific for an open partial colectomy with removal of a portion of the colon and the terminal ileum with an ileocolostomy (reconnection of the ileum to the colon). This accurately describes the procedure performed.

Code 44140 is for a partial colectomy without removal of the terminal ileum, making it inappropriate in this case.

Codes 44205 and 44204 involve laparoscopic approaches for colectomy procedures, but since this procedure was open, these codes are not suitable.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code C18.2 is for a malignant neoplasm of the ascending colon, which is specified in this case as colon adenocarcinoma.

Code C18.9 represents an unspecified malignant neoplasm of the colon, which is less specific than C18.2. Therefore, C18.2 is the most accurate choice based on the location of the adenocarcinoma.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

Per AAPC guidelines, selecting the correct colectomy code involves identifying the specific approach (open vs. laparoscopic) and anatomical structures resected, both of which align with 44160 for this open ileocolic resection.

Thus, the correct answer, based on CPT® and ICD-10-CM guidelines, is D. 44160, C18.2.

The Roux-en-Y anastomosis of the extrahepatic biliary duct to the gastrointestinal tract is a specific surgical procedure that involves connecting the biliary duct to the gastrointestinal tract.

Procedure Description: Roux-en-Y anastomosis of the extrahepatic biliary duct involves creating a direct connection between the biliary duct and the gastrointestinal tract.

Procedure Specificity: The procedure is complex and involves extensive surgical technique and anastomosis.

Coding Decision:

CPT® 47780 specifically describes the Roux-en-Y anastomosis of the extrahepatic biliary duct to the gastrointestinal tract.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on biliary and gastrointestinal procedures.

80143 = Acetaminophen level

80324/80329 = Drug classes, not specific analytes

80299 = Unlisted therapeutic drug assay

In ICD-10-CM coding, personal history codes are used to indicate a patient’s past medical conditions that no longer exist and are not receiving active treatment, but that may influence current care or require continued monitoring.

A. is correct because a personal history code can indeed be reported as a primary code if the encounter is specifically for screening due to a past condition.

B. is correct because personal history codes can be reported with follow-up codes to indicate that the patient is being monitored for recurrence of the past condition.

D. is correct because a personal history code is used when the patient no longer has or is being treated for that condition, but it remains relevant to the patient’s health history.

C. is false because a personal history code is not used indiscriminately on any medical record; it is only appropriate when the past condition is relevant to the current encounter or impacts current patient care.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. A personal history code is acceptable on any medical record regardless of the reason of the visit.

This is a subsequent nursing facility care visit.

MDM Analysis (2021+ E/M Guidelines):

Problems: Multiple chronic conditions → Moderate

Data: 4 labs + telemetry → Moderate

Risk: Prescription drug management → Moderate

99309 – Subsequent nursing facility care, moderate MDM

Why others are incorrect:

99307 / 99308 – Low complexity

99305 – Initial nursing facility care

S06.0X1A = Concussion with brief LOC

V40.5XXA = Driver injured in collision with fixed object

V47.5XXA = Car accident, driverExternal cause codes correctly describe mechanism and role.

The Schede thoracoplasty for empyema is accurately described by CPT code 32905, which covers the radical procedure involving the resection of multiple ribs and often the obliteration of the pleural cavity to treat chronic empyema.

This patient presents to the ER with syncope, requiring a comprehensive evaluation and critical care. Here's the breakdown of the codes:

CPT Code 99291-25: Critical care, evaluation and management of the critically ill or critically injured patient; first 30-74 minutes  

This code is appropriate because the patient's syncope and vital signs (low blood pressure, shallow respirations, low oxygen saturation) indicate a critical condition requiring immediate intervention.

Modifier -25: Significant, Separately Identifiable Evaluation and Management Service by the Same Physician on the Same Day of the Procedure or Other Service. This modifier is appended because the critical care services were provided in addition to the separately reported procedures below.  

CPT Code 92950: Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (eg, CPR, external cardiac massage, endotracheal intubation, ventilation)

While the documentation doesn't explicitly mention CPR, it states the patient was unresponsive upon arrival but had spontaneous pulse and respirations. This suggests possible resuscitation efforts were performed by the paramedics before the physician's assessment.

CPT Code 31500: Intubation, endotracheal, emergency procedure

Although not explicitly stated, the documentation indicates the patient was placed on "high flow oxygen," which strongly suggests endotracheal intubation was performed to manage the patient's respiratory distress.

CPT Code 82803: Blood gases, arterial, pH, PCO2, PO2, with oxygen saturation; interpretation and report

This code is likely reported based on the patient's respiratory distress and the need to monitor their oxygenation status.

Why other options are incorrect:

99285: This is a standard emergency department visit code and doesn't capture the critical nature of the patient's condition.

99285-25, 99291-25, 92950, 31500, 82803: This includes 99285, which is not necessary as 99291 encompasses the evaluation and management.

99291-25, 99292-25, 92950, 31500: This includes 99292, which is for subsequent critical care time. There's no indication in the documentation that the physician provided critical care beyond the initial 74 minutes.

33779 = Arterial switch operation (definitive repair)

33955 = Open central cannulation for ECMO

33985 = ECMO management

Modifier -58 = staged/related procedure

To accurately code a pressure ulcer in ICD-10-CM, the code must reflect the ulcer's location and stage. The codes for pressure ulcers specify both the anatomical site and the stage (extent of tissue damage).

L89.613 represents a pressure ulcer on the right heel at stage 3. The stage is critical as it indicates the severity of the ulcer, with stage 3 involving full-thickness skin loss and possibly visible subcutaneous tissue.

A. L89.609 refers to a pressure ulcer on the heel but without specific staging.

C. L89.619 is for a pressure ulcer on the right heel at stage 4, which indicates a more severe level of tissue damage than stage 3.

D. L89.603 represents a stage 3 pressure ulcer but on the left heel, not the right.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. L89.613 for a stage 3 pressure ulcer on the right heel.

The correct J codes are selected based on the specific medications administered and their quantities:

J2405 represents "ondansetron, 1 mg," and since the patient received a 2 mg dose, J2405 is reported once with a quantity of 2 mg.

J1885 represents "ketorolac tromethamine, 15 mg," which matches the single 15 mg dose administered to the patient, so J1885 is reported once.

Each J code is billed according to the precise dosage given, as no multipliers are required beyond the single-unit codes provided in choice A, making it the correct answer.

J1071 = Testosterone cypionate, 200 mg per unit

96372 = Therapeutic IM injection

Vaccine admin codes do not apply

ANESTHESIA

CPT Code 43246: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, with transoral insertion of intra-abdominal tube (e.g., gastrostomy or jejunostomy)

This code describes the attempted PEG tube placement.

Modifier -52: Reduced services. This modifier is appended because the procedure was aborted and the PEG tube was not successfully placed.

ICD-10-CM Code K94.29: Other specified disorders of digestive system

This code captures the patient's chronic feeding requirement, which is the reason for the attempted PEG tube placement.

ICD-10-CM Code K44.9: Diaphragmatic hernia without obstruction or gangrene

This code reports the small hiatal hernia that was found during the procedure.

The anesthesia code for an axillary block for procedures on the upper arm and elbow, which includes the monitoring by the anesthesiologist throughout the procedure, is 01830. This code is appropriate for anesthesia for all procedures on nerves, muscles, tendons, fascia, and bursae of the shoulder and axilla.

CPT® Professional Edition, AMA

Anesthesia Coding Guidelines

The CPT® codes for skin biopsies depend on the method used and the location of each lesion. Here, the scenario includes:

1. Two punch biopsies on the trunk: CPT® code 11104 is used for a full-thickness punch biopsy of the skin, and 11104 x 2 is appropriate since two lesions on the trunk were sampled.

2. One partial-thickness shave biopsy on the forehead: CPT® code 11102 is used for a tangential (shave) biopsy, which captures a partial-thickness sample, appropriate for the forehead lesion.

Explanation of other options:

B. 11104, 11105, 11103: Incorrect, as 11105 is an add-on for additional punch biopsies at separate sites but not used here.

C. 11104, 11103 x 2: 11103 is an add-on code for additional shave biopsies, which does not apply to the punch biopsies on the trunk.

D. 11104, 11102 x 2: Incorrect, as 11102 is only used for the shave biopsy, not for the punch biopsies.

73562 = Knee X-ray, 3 views

-26 = Professional component only

Malignant lesion destruction → CPT 17260–17286

Trunk/extremities

0.6–1.0 cm → 17261

1.1–2.0 cm → 17262

Both lesions are reported separately.

42820 = Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy, under age 12

J35.03 already includes chronic tonsillitis and adenoiditis

Hypertrophy is included and not separately coded

Procedure: Caloric vestibular testing performed on both ears with three irrigations.

CPT® Code:

92537: Caloric vestibular test with recording, bilateral; bithermal (i.e., one warm and one cool irrigation in each ear).

Modifier -50: Bilateral procedure.

Code Selection Justification: The procedure performed was bilateral caloric vestibular testing with bithermal irrigation, appropriately coded with 92537 and modifier -50 for bilateral procedures.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

88027 = Autopsy, gross and microscopic, with CNS examination

88016/88020 exclude spinal cord or microscopy

98012 = Telephone E/M, 11–20 minutes

99447 is for interprofessional consults, not patient calls

HCPCS LEVEL II

K0001 = Standard wheelchair

Other K000 codes represent specialized wheelchairs

00813 = Anesthesia for colonoscopy

QK = Medical direction of 2–4 cases

99100 = Extreme age

99140 = Emergency anesthesia