Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.
All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.
Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4's LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.
Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?
A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:
• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1
• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2
• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?
What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?
Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?
Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
Which protocol uses the SSL?
Refer to the exhibit.
How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
Refer to the exhibit.
Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.
Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.
What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?
Refer to the exhibit.
The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)
What is a function of an endpoint on a network?
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?
What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?
Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?
What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?
Refer to the exhibit.
All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.
The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?
Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?
What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.
Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
What is the purpose of an SSID?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?
Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?
Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which change to the configuration on Switch?
allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?
An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?
Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?
What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the effect of this configuration?
Refer to Exhibit.
Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route type is configured to reach the internet?
Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?
Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
Refer to the exhibit.
An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?
Refer to the exhibit.
The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?
What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?
What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?
Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?
What is a function of TFTP in network operations?
With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?
Refer to the exhibit.
What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?
Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?
A corporate office uses four floors in a building
• Floor 1 has 24 users
• Floor 2 has 29 users
• Floor 3 has 28 users
•Floor 4 has 22 users
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?
Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer configured the New York router with state routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?
Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?
Which type of traffic is sent with pure iPsec?
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
Refer to the exhibit.
If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?
Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two )
The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)
Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?
How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?
Refer to the exhibit.
R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.
Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)
An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?
What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
Refer to the exhibit.
What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )
Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?
What describes the operation of virtual machines?
Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?
Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two )
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two.)
How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?
Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.
What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)
What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?
A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?
What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?
Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.
Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific time period?
Refer to the exhibit.
After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration?
What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?
Refer to the exhibit.
If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1 Which action is taken by S1?
Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?
Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?
Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.
When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?
An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?
Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)
Which option about JSON is true?
What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?
Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?
Refer to the exhibit Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0'1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded. Which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an SNMP trap?
Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?
Refer to exhibit.
Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?
Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)
Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right.
What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?
When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?
Refer to Exhibit.
The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)
How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command provides this output?
What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.
What is the difference between 1000BASE-LX/LH and 1000BASE-ZX interfaces?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?
The clients and OHCP server reside on different subnets. Which command must be used to forward requests and replies between clients on the 10.10.0.1/24 subnet and the DHCP server at 192.168.10.1?
A WLC sends alarms about a rogue AP, and the network administrator verifies that the alarms are caused by a legitimate autonomous AP.
What is used as a solution for protecting an individual network endpoint from attack?
What differentiates device management enabled by Cisco DNA Center from traditional campus device management?
Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator must prevent the switch Cat9K-2 IP address from being visible in LLDP without disabling the protocol. Which action must be taken must be taken to complete the task?
What is the role of the root port in a switched network?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be enable a floating default route on router A?
Which syslog severity level is considered the most severe and results in the system being considered unusable?
What is the definition of backdoor malware?
Which IPsec transport mode encrypts the IP header and the payload?
Which interface is used for out-of-band management on a WLC?
What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?
In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?
After a recent security breach and a RADIUS failure, an engineer must secure the console port of each enterprise router with a local username and password. Which configuration must the engineer apply to accomplish this task?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Which two protocols are used by an administrator for authentication and configuration on access points?
Refer to the exhibit.
The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at To which IP address is the request sent?
Refer to the exhibit. After applying this configuration to router R1, a network engineer is verifying the implementation. If all links are operating normally, and the engineer sends a series of packets from PC1 to PC3. how are the packets routed?
Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exceed the desired bit rate of traffic flow?
A packet from a company s branch office is destined to host 172.31.0.1 at headquarters. The sending router has three possible matches in its routing table for the packet prefixes: 172. 31.0 .0/16.72.31.0.0724. and 172.31 0 0/25. How does the router handle the packet?
Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?
Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the left onto the architecture types on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch AccSw2 has just been added to the network along with PC2. All VLANs have been implemented on AccSw2. How must the ports on AccSw2 be configured to establish Layer 2 connectivity between PC1 and PC2?
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Refer to the exhibit.
The administrator must configure a floating sialic default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?
What are two protocols within the IPsec suite? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the lookback3 interface of the Washington router.
Drag and drop the characteristics of transport layer protocols from the left onto the corresponding protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
A new VLAN and switch are added to the network. A remote engineer configures OldSwitch and must ensure that the configuration meets these requirements:
• accommodates current configured VLANs
• expands the range to include VLAN 20
• allows for IEEE standard support for virtual LANs
Which configuration on the NewSwitch side of the link meets these requirements?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?
Refer to the exhibit.
A newly configured PC fails to connect to the internet using TCP port 80 to www cisco com Which setting must be modified for the connection to work?
A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is directly connected to the core switch in a data center. A network engineer finds minimal latency on connections to the server, but data transfers are unreliable, and the output of the show Interfaces counters errors command shows a high FCS-Err count on the interface that is connected to the server. What is the cause of the throughput issue?
What is a characteristics of a collapsed-core network topology?
What is a function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for a Next-Generation IPS?
What are two disadvantages of a full-mesh topology? (Choose two.)
Which Windows command is used instead of the route print command to display the contents of the IP routing table?
Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller for management, roaming, and SSID configuration?
Drag and drop the IPv6 addresses from the left onto the corresponding address types on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
What is represented by the word "switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?
How do UTP and STP cables compare?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and now must remove the commands.
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on interlace Seria10. What is the effect of the configuration as the administrator applies the command?
Refer to the exhibit.
The Router1 routing table has multiple methods to reach 10.10.10.0/24 as shown. The default Administrative Distance is used. Drag and drop the network conditions from the left onto the routing methods that Router1 uses on the right.
It work security team noticed that an increasing number of employees are becoming victims of phishing attacks. Which security program should be implemented to mitigate the problem?
Which properly is shared by 10GBase-SR and 10GBase-LR interfaces?
Refer to the exhibit.
How many objects, Keys and JSON list values are present?
By default, how long will the switch continue to know a workstation MAC address after the workstation stops sending traffic?
What is the purpose of classifying network traffic in QoS?
Refer to the exhibit.
What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?
Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the component details on the right.
Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?
What is the purpose of the Cisco DNA Center controller?
What is the function of northbound API?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which format matches the Modified EUI-64 IPv6 interface address for the network 2001:db8::/64?
Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers immediately, transparently, and automatically when edge devices or access circuits fail?
SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configured in the Cisco WLC GUI. SIP call-snooping ports are configured. Which two actions must be completed next? (Choose two.)
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Graphical user interface
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